Wipro Technologies Whole-Testpaper Contributed by Bibin Jacob updated on Jul 2020
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Verbal Section

 

For questions 1–3,

 select among the given choices the word or phrase for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

1. Old and tired rule India that is _______ with young people.

A) flowing

B) teeming

C) pouring

D) bouncing

 

2. Of the 20 international companies, which had been ________ permission to undertaken reconnaissance operations, 15 companies had already started the work.

A) asserted

B) accorded

 C) assigned

D) assured

 

3. India is making __________ investments in overseas oil even as it is trying its to best to sell off its own deep-water

blocks to private parties.

A) massive

B) high

C) solid

D) excess

 

 

For questions 4–6,

select among the given choices the correct phrase to replace the underlined phrase in the following sentence.

4. She is good to the neighbours. But they put about her goodness to weakness.

A) put on

B) put in

C) put up

D) put down

 

5. Customers must avail of this opportunity.

A) must avail themselves of this opportunity

B) should avail themselves of this opportunity

C) should avail of this opportunity

D) must make availability of this opportunity

 

6. The principal reminded the audience that the school always has and always will try to secure some ranks in the board examination.

A) has always and will always try to secure

B) always has tried and always will try to secure

C) always has tried and always will try to secure

D) has always tried to secure and will always

 

For questions 7–9,

choose the lettered pair that expresses a relationship most similar to the relationship expressed in the capitalized pair.

7. PRUDISH : PROPRIETY ::

A) fanatical : violence

B) authoritative : evidence

C) finicky : quality

D) obstinate : accuracy

 

8. FEAR : COWER ::

A) calmness : fret

B) anger : rant

C) disappointment : co mole

D) embarrassment : speak

 

9. FOIBLE : FAULT ::

A) perjury : testimony

B) reputation : disrepute

C) vagary : notion

D) quibble : objection

 

For questions 10 & 11,

select the option that gives the correct meaning of the given idiomatic expression or phrase.

 

10. To meet one’s waterloo.

A) To die fighting

B) To die an ignoble death

C) To meet one’s final defeat

D) To meet a strong adversary

 

11. To flog a dead horse.

A) To do a vain thing

B) To try to work from a weak horse

C) To act in a foolish way

D) To revive interest in a subject which is out of date

 

For questions 12–14,

Given below are sentences which when arranged logically form a coherent passage. choose the option which gives the correct sequence.

 

12. Choose the correct option.

a. It attracts tourists from all over the world.

b. India has a rich cultural heritage, which has no parallel in the world.

c. The best example of the Indian-architecture is the Taj at Agra.

d. They are charmed by the beauty of this poem in marble.

A) bcad

B) badc

C) abcd

D) adbc

 

13. Choose the correct option.

S1. Speech was the first means of conveying information.

P. Thirdly printing helped in dissemination of knowledge in a permanent form.

Q. Then writing as a means introduced a capacity for storing information.

R. Computer is the only medium that can not only store but analyse information to make decision.

S. However all these are passive media.

S6. Therefore, computer is hailed as the fourth information revolution.

A) PQSR

B) QPRS

C) QPSR

D) QRPS

 

14. S1. He tried the door.

P. The room was neat and clean.

Q. Then he stepped into the room.

R. He waited for a minute or two.

S. It opened easily and he peeped in.

S6 He was careful not to touch anything.

A) PQRS

B) QSPR

C) RPQS

D) SPRQ

For questions 15–17,

 select the option that can be substituted for the given sentence.

 

15. A person who lives alone and avoids other people.

A) Ascetic

B) Recluse

C) Unsocial

D) Agnostic

 

16. A person interested in reading books and nothing else

A) Student

B) Scholar

C) Book Worm

D) Book Keeper

Read the following passage and select the best answer to questions 17 - 20 among the given choices.

Music has the power to cause emotions to well up within us. These feelings are gripping - often irresistible - and seem to emerge from nowhere. These feelings colour our moods, affect our perceptions and generate a behavioural pattern. The indisputable fact about music is its power to evoke emotions. Is there anyone, for whom music is completely emotion-neutral? Music has the ability to inevitably tap the still, mysterious deep well of our emotions. However, music can produce various emotional responses in different individuals and even different responses in the same person at different times. Music may produce expressions of various emotions - peaceful, relaxing, exciting, festive, boring, unsettling, un-stimulating, invigorating…, and so on.

Music is an extremely versatile medium of communication. Through music it is possible to explore all the features that are used in verbal communication. Moreover, it does so in an explicit and structured way, which makes it an interesting and useful window into human communication, in general. The repetition of a line as in a lullaby, the regular beating of a drum - produces a feeling of physical ease and lulls the child to sleep. The rhythmic sound of the train, of waves breaking on the shore, the song of a cricket at night - why, even the electric fan is able to produce a soothing physical quiet. But good music does not stop there. It touches our emotions. True music really goes far deeper and touches our very soul and leaves its imprint on us. It may not be possible to explain or describe this reaction in ordinary language. It can only be felt. It is one of those mystic experiences, which baffle analytical explanation.

Music is known to endow the listener with aesthetic or intellectual pleasure. It can be simple, complex, subtle, overt - and these features may reside, in one of the different aspects of the music e.g. rhythm, melody. Some of the greatness of music, however, lies in its holistic nature-that all the elements form a unique wholeness which may not be understood by studying the parts, separately. However complex, music is readily appreciated by the mind without the need for formal knowledge. The lay listener may not be able to hear which instruments are playing, or which pitches are used. Yet, he or she may have no problem appreciating the music as a whole. An experienced listener, on the other hand, may be able to transcribe every note, but might still be at a loss to understand why the music is so pleasing to listen to even for the time! As a performer, I believe that music can recreate emotions and get the listeners involved with my emotions. Any particular music has an inherent emotion. And, there is the emotion that one feels while rendering it. Besides, the listener is in an emotional state while listening to that music - which is also important because it could be possible that this will now be linked to the emotional state of the listener. So he or she can use the song to recreate this emotion. Very often we hear people say "This is my song" and feel that special emotion again.

Rhythm and melody are two facets of music that lend themselves to enjoyment in their individual capacities. The experience of beat and rhythm has a simple relation with joy, well-being and even excitement. Babies spontaneously start to rock and move when they hear music with a pronounced beat in a medium or fast tempo. By changing the rhythm, we can change the aesthetic appeal of a piece of music. Even a change of tempo can cause variations in the aesthetic appeal. Similarly, melody, which is the soul of music, can create different types of feelings in listeners. Some melodies bring soulfulness, some sadness, some bring jubilance or tranquility.

Music is created from the heart and molded by emotion. As musicians, we are inherently creative - so people say - and we have the ability to derive intense pleasure from a particular piece of music, which we listen to or Produce. Here, I am referring to an aesthetic experience, which everybody must have felt. Tears of Joy, a tug at the heart, goose pimples … True art always comes as an irresistible inner urge. We hear a song of Thyagaraja and are enthralled just as we gaze at a majestic temple or an ancient sculpture with wonder. All such works of art are the result of an inner urge. That is why it is something inherently beautiful. And there can be no enjoyment more impersonal and sublimating than what it offers. It prepares the very soul for something higher.

17. According to the passage, music is a medium of communication as

A) We can explore all the features used in verbal communication through music

B) Certain melodies cause certain reactions

C) It is created from an inner urge

D) It can appease the mentally imbalanced people

 

18. What, according to the author, is the fact of music that cannot be disputed?

A) It causes national barriers

B) It creates a feeling of amiability

C) People react in the same manner to music without regard to age

D) It has the power to evoke emotions

 

19. Which of the following could be an apt title for the above passage?

A) The spontaneous reaction to music

B) The power of soothing.

C) The inherent creativity in music

D) The power of music

 

20. What is the mystic experience that the author refers to?

A) Children rocking spontaneously to the sound of music

B) Music bringing about physical repose as well as affecting the soul

C) The experience of Tyagaraja in the temple

D) The festive mood caused by the rhythmic beating of drums

 

Aptitude Questions:

The questions 1-6 are based on the following pattern. The problems below contain a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions.

The correct answer is:

(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.

(B) If statement (II) alone is sufficient but statement (I) alone is not sufficient.

(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.

(D) If both together are not sufficient.

 

1. What is John's age?

(I) In 15 years John will be twice as old as Dias would be

(II) Dias was born 5 years ago

Ans. (C)

 

2. What is the distance from city A to city C in kms?

(I) City A is 90 kms from City B

(II) City B is 30 kms from City C

Ans. (D)

 

3.Is A=C ? A, B ,C are real numbers

(I) A-B=B-C

(II) A-2C = C-2B

Ans. (C)

 

4. What is the 30th term of a given sequence ?

(I) The first two terms of the sequence are 1,1/2

(II) The common difference is -1/2

Ans. (A)

 

5.Was Avinash early, on time or late for work?

(I) He thought his watch was 10 minutes fast

 (II) Actually his watch was 5 minutes slow

Ans. (D)

 

6. What is the value of A if A is an integer?

(I) A4 = 1

(II) A3 + 1 = 0

Ans. (B)

 

7. A person travels 12 km in the southward direction and then travels 5km to the right and then travels 15km toward the right and finally travels 5km towards the east, how far is he from his starting place?

(a) 5.5 kms

(b) 3 km

(c) 13 km

(d) 6.4 km

Ans. (b)

 

8. X's father's wife's father's granddaughter uncle will be related to X as

(a) Son

(b) Nephew

(c) Uncle

(d) Grandfather

Ans. (c)

 

9. Find the next number in the series 1, 3 ,7 ,13 ,21 ,31

(a) 43

(b) 33

(c) 41

(d) 45

Ans. (a)

 

10. If in a certain code "RANGE" is coded as 12345 and "RANDOM" is coded as 123678. Then the code for the word "MANGO" would be

(a) 82357

(b) 89343

 (c) 84629

(d) 82347

Ans. (d)

 

11. If "PROMPT" is coded as QSPLOS ,then "PLAYER" should be

(a) QMBZFS

(b) QWMFDW

(c) QUREXM

(d) URESTI

Ans. (a)

 

12. A person travels 6km towards west, then travels 5km towards north ,then finally travels 6km towards west. Where is he with respect to his starting position?

(a) 13km east

(b) 13km northeast

(c) 13km northwest

(d) 13km west

Ans. (c)

 

13. If A speaks the truth 80% of the times, B speaks the truth 60% of the times. What is the probability that they tell the truth at the same time

(a) 0.8

(b) 0.48

(c) 0.6

(d) 0.14

Ans.(b)

 

14. Susan can type 10 pages in 5 minutes. Mary can type 5 pages in 10 minutes. Working together, how many pages can they type in 30 minutes?

A. 15

B. 20

C. 25

D. 65

E. 75

Ans: E

 

15. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals 2,4,6,8,10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes how many times they toll together.

a) 4

b) 10

c) 15

d) 16

Ans: (d)

 

The questions 16-20 are based on the following data

The only people to attend a conference were four ship captains and the first mates of three of those captains. The captians were L, M, N and O; the first mates were A, D and G. Each person in turn delivered a report to the assembly as follows:

Each of the first mates delivered their report exactly after his or her captain. The first captain to speak was M, and captain N spoke after him.

16. Among the following which is not an appropriate order of delivered reports?

(A)M, A, N, G, O, L, D

(B)M, D, N, G, L, O, A

(C)M, N, A, L, D, O, G

(D)M, N, A, O, D, L, G

(E)M, N, G, D, O, L, A

Ans : E

 

17. In case L speaks after A, and A is the third of the first mates to speak, then among the following statements which would be untrue? O spoke immediately after G. The order of the first four speakers was M, G, N, D. O's first mate was present. A was the fourth speaker after M. The captains spoke in the order M, N, O, L.

Ans : D

 

18. Among the following statements which statement must be true?

In case the second speaker was a captain, the seventh speaker was a first mate.

In case the second speaker was a first mate, the seventh speaker was a captain.

In case the third speaker was a first mate, the seventh speaker was a captain.

In case the third speaker was a captain, the seventh speaker was a first mate.

In case the seventh speaker was a first mate, the first and third speakers were captains.

Ans : A

 

19. In case A spoke immediately after L and immediately before O, and O was not the last speaker, L spoke

(A)second

(B)third

(C)fourth

(D)fifth

(E)sixth

Ans : C

 

20. In case G is M's first mate, D could be the person who spoke immediately

(A) Aprior to T

(B)prior to L

(C)prior to V

(D)after T

(E)after V

Ans : D

 

 

Technical Questions:

 

1. If the time quantum is too large, Round Robin scheduling degenerates to

(a) Shortest Job First Scheduling

(b) Multilevel Queue Scheduling

(c) FCFS

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

 

2. Transponders are used for which of the following purposes

(a) Unlinking

(b) Downlinking

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

 

3. The format specifier "-%d" is used for which purpose in C

(a) Left justifying a string

(b) Right justifying a string

(c) Removing a string from the console

(d) Used for the scope specification of a char[ ] variable

Ans. (a)

 

4. A sorting algorithm which can prove to be a best time algorithm in one case and a worst time algorithm in worst case is

(a) Quick Sort

(b) Heap Sort

 (c) Merge Sort

(d) Insert Sort

Ans. (a)

 

5. What details should never be found in the top level of a top-down design?

(a) Details

(b) Coding

(c) Decisions

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

 

6. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by assembler

(a) Reallocation

(b) Allocation

(c) Linking

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans. (d)

 

7. Banker's algorithm for resource allocation deals with

(a) Deadlock prevention

(b) Deadlock avoidance

(c) Deadlock recovery

(d) None of these

Ans. (b)

 

8. Thrashing can be avoided if

(a) The pages, belonging to the working set of the programs, are in main memory

(b) The speed of CPU is increased

(c) The speed of I/O processor are increased

(d) All of the above

Ans. (a)

 

9. Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?

(a) Narrowband channels

(b) Simplex channels

 (c) Full-duplex channels

(d) Mixed band channels

Ans. (b)

 

10. A feasibility document should contain all of the following except

(a) Project name

(b) Problem descriptions

(c) Feasible alternative

(d) Data flow diagrams

Ans. (d)

 

11. What is the main function of a data link content monitor?

(a) To detect problems in protocols

(b) To determine the type of transmission used in a data link

(c) To determine the type of switching used in a data link

(d) To determine the flow of data

Ans. (a)

 

12. Which of the following is a broadband communications channel?

(a) Coaxial cable

(b) Fiber optic cable

(c) Microwave circuits

(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

 

13. Which of the following memories has the shortest access time?

(a) Cache memory

(b) Magnetic bubble memory

(c) Magnetic core memory

(d) RAM

Ans. (a)

 

14. A shift register can be used for

(a) Parallel to serial conversion

(b) Serial to parallel conversion

(c) Digital delay line

(d) All the above

Ans. (d)

 

15. In which of the following page replacement policies, Balady's anomaly occurs?

(a) FIFO

(b) LRU

(c) LFU

(d) NRU

Ans. (a)

 

16. Subschema can be used to

(a) Create very different, personalised views of the same data

(b) Present information in different formats

(c) Hide sensitive information by omitting fields from the sub-schema's description

(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

 

17. A 12 address lines maps to the memory of

a. 1k bytes

b. 0.5k bytes

c. 2k bytes

d. none

Ans: b

 

18. In a processor these are 120 instructions . Bits needed to implement this instructions

[a] 6

[b] 7

[c] 10

[d] none

Ans: b

 

19. In a compiler there is 36 bit for a word and to store a character 8bits are needed. IN this to store a character two words are appended .Then for storing a K characters string, How many words are needed.

[a] 2k/9

[b] (2k+8/9

[c] (k+8/9

[d] 2*(k+8/9

[e] none

Ans: a

 

20. Virtual memory size depends on

[a] address lines

[b] data bus

[c] disc space

[d] a & c [e] none

Ans : a

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