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1. 'Temporary' is related to 'Permanent' in the same way as 'Natural' is related to '__________ '.
(A) Nature
(B) Artificial -Answer
(C) Imaginary
(D) Fraud
(E) Genuine
2. In a class of 25 students, Sneha's rank is 19th from the bottom and Meena's rank is 23rd fromthe top. If Chhaya's rank is exactly between Sneha and Meena's rank, what is Chhaya's rank from
the bottom?
(A) 15th
(B) 12th
(C) 14th
(D) 11th -Answer
(E) Cannot be determined
3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of thefollowing does not belong to that group?
(A) 9 -Answer
(B) 216
(C) 8
(D) 64
(E) 512
4. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters 'EPA' using all the letters but each letter only once in each word?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two -Answer
(D) Three
(E) More than three
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(A) Meter
(B) Litre -Answer
(C) Yard
(D) Feet
(E) Mile
6. If each vowel in the word 'REMAINS' is changed to next alphabet according to the English alphabetical series and each consonant changed to previous letter, how many alphabets will be there in the English alphabetical series between the letters which are at the extreme ends of the new word thus formed?
(A) None -Answer
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
7. Pointing to a man's photograph Ajay said "my mother is the only daughter of his father." How is the man in the photograph related to Ajay?
(A) Uncle -Answer
(B) Brother
(C) Son
(D) Grandfather
(E) Cannot be determined
8. In a certain code language, 'NICE' is coded as 'OIDE', similarly 'WORK' is coded as 'XOSK'. How will 'SAID' be coded in the same code language?
(A) TIJD
(B) TBJD
(C) SBIE
(D) TAJD -Answer
(E) TBID
9. Which of the following groups of letters should replace the blank spaces (in the same order from left to right) so that the group of letters, given in bold, follow a logical pattern from the preceding and the following group of letters?
(A) b, y, e
(B) x, y, g
(C) b, y, g
(D) x, y, e
(E) b, w, e -Answer
10. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'LENGTH', each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two -Answer
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Directions-(Q.11-15) Study the following information to answer the given questions- Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. Four out of the eight friends drive a car while four drive a bike. No two friends who drive a car are immediate neighbours of each other. A, who drives a car sits third to left of H. G, who drives a bike sits second to right of E. F and C are immediate neighbours of each other. F does not drive a car. B is an immediate neighbour of F butnot of H.
11. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the above arrangement and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(A) B
(B) E -Answer
(C) A
(D)C
(E) D
12. If all the eight friends are made to sit in alphabetical order in the anti-clockwise direction starting from A, positions of how many will remain unchanged (excluding A)?
(A) None
(B) One -Answer
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
13. In which of the following pairs do both the members drive a bike?
(A) F, D
(B) B, D
(C) F, C
(D) H, B
(E) E, H -Answer
14. Which of the following is true about D?
(A) D drives a bike
(B) H and E are immediate neighbours of D
(C) H sits third to left of 0
(D) D sits second to the left of C -Answer
(E) None is true
15. What is F's position with respect to E?
(A) Immediate right
(B) Third to the right
(C) Second to the left -Answer
(D) Fourth to the left
(E) Second to the right
Directions-(Q.26-27) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions-
Among M, R, L, N and J each scoring different marks in an examination, R scored more than M. N scored less than L but more than J. J scored more than R.
26. Who amongst them scored the least marks?
(A) R
(B) M -Answer
(C) J
(D) N
(E) L
27. Whose score was the third highest?
(A) R
(B) M
(C) J -Answer
(D) N
(E) L
28. If each vowel of the word PERTAIN is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series and then the alphabets thus formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following will be third from the left?
(A) O
(B) Q
(C) M
(D) B
(E) J -Answer
29. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word THINGS, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?
(A) One
(B) Two -Answer
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) Five
30. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) Drop
(B) Slip
(C) Bounce -Answer
(D) Topple
(E) Fall
Directions-(Q.31-35) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions- A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a straight line (not necessarily in the same order) facing North.
• E sits third to right of A. E sits second to left of F.
• Only one person sits between G and B. Neither G nor B is an immediate neighbour of F.
• C is not an immediate neighbour of either B or F.
31. Who sits at the extreme right end of the line?
(A) G
(B) F -Answer
(C) B
(D) C
(E) E
32. How many persons sit between A and C?
(A) None
(B) One -Answer
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
33. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) GC
(B) DF
(C) BA
(D) DE -Answer
(E) AG
34. What is the position of D with respect to C?
(A) Third to the left
(B) Second to the right -Answer
(C) Immediate right
(D) Second to the left
(E) Immediate left
35. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many will remain unchanged as compared to the original seating positions?
(A) None
(B) One -Answer
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Directions-(Q.36-40) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions-
P, Q, R, S, T, V, W, and Yare sitting around a circular table facing the centre.
• P sits second to left of T
• W sits third to right of Y. Y is not an immediate neighbour of T.
• Q and R are immediate neighbours of each other but neither Q nor R is an immediate neighbour of Y.
• V is an immediate neighbour of R.
36. Who sits exactly between P and Y?
(A) W
(B) T
(C) V
(D) Q
(E) None of these -Answer
37. How many persons sit between T and P when counted in clockwise direction from T?
(A) None
(B) One -Answer
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
38. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) WP
(B) VR
(C) QT
(D) VY -Answer
(E) PS
39. What is the position of Y with respect to Q?
(A) Fourth to the left
(B) Immediate to the right
(C) Third to the left
(D) Second to the left
(E) Third to the right -Answer
40. What will come in the place of the question mark (?) based upon the given seating arrangement?
RV SP QR PW? 11
(A) YV
(B) VY
(C) PW
(D) WT
(E) YS -Answer
Directions-(Q.41-45) Study the following information to answer the given questions-
Seven friends -P, Q, R, S, T, V and Ware sitting in a straight line facing North, not necessarily in the same order. T sits at one of the21. extreme ends of the line. Q sits third to left of T. Only one person sits between Sand W. S is an immediate neighbour of Q. P is not an immediate neighbour of T and S. P and R do not sit at the extreme ends of the line.
41. What is R's position with respect to P?
(A) Second to the right
(B) Fourth to the right -Answer
(C) Second to the left
(D) Third to the left
(E) None of these
42. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(A) QS
(B) VP
(C) TR -Answer
(D) PW
(E) WQ
43. If all the seven friends are made to sit in alphabetical order from right to left, the positions of how many will remain unchanged?
(A) Four
(B) Three
(C) One
(D) Two
(E) None -Answer
44. Who sits exactly in the middle of the line?
(A) P
(B) W
(C) S
(D) Q -Answer
(E) R
45. Who amongst the following sits to the immediate left of W?
(A) Q
(B) P -Answer
(C) R
(D) S
(E) T
Directions-(Q.46-50) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below-
A $ H * J R S 2 & I T 6 @ Q B K F G U M I © # % E 4 N 5 9 D S 3 L W 7
46. Which of the following is fifth to the left of the sixteenth from the left end of the above arrangement?
(A) 4
(B) I
(C) E
(D) 2
(E) None of these -Answer
47. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?
H* RS IT BK?
(A) ©#
(B) MI
(C) #%
(D) I©
(E) None of these -Answer
48. If all the letters are dropped from the arrangement, which of the following will be the ninth from the right end?
(A) #
(B) @ -Answer
(C) ©
(D) 6
(E) None of these
49. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not elong to the group?
(A) AJH
(B) G©M
(C) TB@
(D) 5DL -Answer
(E) %54
50. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by vowel and also immediately followed by a consonant? (A) None
(B) One -Answer
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Test-I: Reasoning Ability
1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1)215
2)143
3)247
4)91 5
)65
2. In a certain code CROWNED is written as PSDVEFO.How is STREAMS written in that code?
1) SUTDBNT
2) TUSDTNB
3)SUTFTNB
4)QSRDTNB
5) None of these
3. 'DEAN' is related to 'NDAE' and -ROAD' is related to 'DRAO' in the same way as'SOME' is related to
l)ESMO
2) EOMS
3)EMOS
4)MSEO
5) None of these
4. In a row of thirtyfive children, M is fifteenth from the right end and there are ten children between M and R.
What is R's position from the left end of the row?
1) 15th
2) 5th
3) 30th
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the""one that does not belong to that group?
DGold
2) Nickel
3) Platinum
4) Tungsten
5) Diamond
6. Among P, Q, T. A and B, each having a different height,T is taller than P and B but shorter than A and Q. P is not the shortest. Who among them is the tallest?
1)A
2)Q
3)P
4) P or B 5
) Data inadequate
7. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RBAE, using each letter only once in each word?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
8. In acertain code TRAIN is written as'39?7%'and MEALis written as ' 4 $?@'. How is ITEM written in that code?
1)7534
2)73$4
3)79$4
4)73H4
5) None of these
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word OBJECTIVE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
10. If each consonant in the word TOLERANT is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel in the word is replaced by the next letter is the English alphabet and the new set of letters is arranged alphabetically, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end after the replacement ?
1)M
2)P
3)Q
4)K.
5) None of these
11. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 8429516 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?
1) None
2) One
) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
12. The positions of the first and the second digits in the number 85341279 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of the third and the fourth digits are interchanged, and so on, till the positions of the seventh and the eighth digits. Which of the following will be the third to the right of 3 after the rearrangement?
1)9
2)7
3)8
4)2
5) None of these
13. In a certain code language 'over and above' is written as 'da pa ta' and 'old and beautiful' is written as 'sa na pa'. How is 'over' written in that code 'language?
l)da
2)ta
3)na
4)daorta
5) None of these
14. What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A F E D C B A
1)E
2)G
3)F
4)B
5) None of these
15. Mohan correctly remembers that his father's birthday is before twentieth January but after sixteenth January,whereas his sister correctly remembers that their father's birthday is after eighteenth January but before twentythird January. On which date in January is definitely their father's birthday?
1) Eighteenth
2) Nineteenth
3) Twentieth
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
16. If'P denotes '?' ; 'R' denotes ' + ' ; 'M' denotes '-'; and 'W denotes'+', then 2 0 R 5 W 1 2 M 3 P 4 = ?
1)4
2)16
3)28
4)52
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 17-20): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below:
832 719 654 967 481
17. If the positions of the second and the third digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the sum of the first and the second digits of the third highest number?
1)16
2)10
3)9
4)15
5) None of these
18. Which of the following is the sum of the first and the third digits of the second lowest number ?
1)16
2)10
3)18
4)5
5)Noneofthese
19. If the positions of the first and the second digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the difference between the highest and the second highest number?
1)203
2)133
3)385
4)182
5)144
20. If the positions of the first and the third digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the sum of the second and third digits of the lowest number?
1)8
2)11
3)15
4)12
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 21-27): In each of t h e q u e s t i o n s below a r e given four s t a t e m e n t s followed by t h r e e conclusions numbered I, II & 111. You have to t a k e t h e given statements to be t r u e even if t h ey seem to be at v a r i a n c e with commonly known facts. Read all t h e conclusions and t h e n decide which of t h e given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
21. Statements:
All chairs are keys.
All keys are balloons.
Some balloons are mirrors.
Some mirrors are desks.
Conclusions:
I. Some desks are keys.
II. Some balloons are chairs.
III. Some mirrors are balloons.
1) Only I follows
2) Only II follows
3) Only I I I follows
4) Only I I and I I I follow
5) All I , I I and I I I follow
22. Statements:
Some drums are posters.
All posters are windows.
Some windows are tablets.
All tablets are books.
,
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are drums.
II. Some books are posters.
III. Some tablets are drums.
1) None follows
2) Only I follows'
3) Only II follows
4) Only I I I follows
5) Only I and II follow
23. Statements:
Some boxes are toys.
Some toys are nails.
Some nails are stores.
Some stores are shops.
Conclusions:
I. Some shops are toys.
II. Some nails are boxes.
III. No shop is toy.
1) Only I follows
2) Only I I I follows
3) Only either I or I I I follows
4) Only II follows
5) None of these
24. Statements:
All doors are windows.
No window is house.
Some houses are buildings.
All buildings are skies.
Conclusions:
I. Some skies are doors.
II. Some skies are houses.
III. Some buildings are doors;
I ) Only I follows
2) Only I I follows
3) Only I I I follows
4) Only I I and I I I follow
5) None of these
25. Statements:
All rivers are walls.
All walls are stones.
All stones are clothes.
All clothes are trees.
Conclusions:
I. Some trees are stones.
II. Some clothes are rivers.
III. All walls are clothes.
1) Only 1 and II follow
2) Only I and I I I follow
3)Only I I and I I I follow
4) All I , I I and I I I follow
5) None of these
26. Statements:
Some letters are glasses.
Some glasses are plates.
All plates are buses.
All buses are cars.
Conclusions:
I. Some cars are letters.
II. Some cars are glasses.
I I I . Some buses are glasses.
1) Only 1 and II follow
2) Only I and III follow
3) Only II follows
4) Only III follows
5) Only II and III follow
27. Statements:
All books are pens.
Some pens are ropes.
All ropes are discs.
Some discs are bricks.
Conclusions:
I. Some bricks are ropes.
II. Some discs are books.
I I I . Some bricks are pens.
1) None follows
2) Only I follows
3) Only II follows
4) Only 111 follows
5) Only II and III follow
Directions (Q. 28-34): Study the following arrangement carefully a n d answer t h e questions given below:
B 4 @ D A © 7 9 F % 2 R - 5 H 6 E * N $ 1 U W 3 P T 8 8 V # Y I
28. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twenty-first from the left end of the above arrangement?
1)R
2)1
3)5
4)$
5) None of these
29. If all the numbers from the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the fifteenth from the right end?
1 )W
2)6
3)*
4)R
5) None o f these
30. How many such consonants are there in the abovearrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a vowel?
l ) N o n e
2)One
3)Two
4)Three
5)Four
31. In which of the following combinations the first elementis in between the second and the third elements in the above arrangement?
1) 2 % F
2^9©7
3 ) 5 H 6
4 ) T P 3
5 ) * E N
32. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a
group. Which is the one that does not belong to that g r o u p 9
1 ) 5 6 2
2)WPU
3 ) © 9 D
4 ) 6 # T
5)U3$
33. How many such symbols are t h e r e in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number?
1) None
2) One
) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
34. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Directions (Q. 35-41): In each question below is given aletter g r o u p followed by four combinations of digits/symbols
numbered 1),2),3) a n d 4). You have to find out which of t h e combinations correctly represents the g r o u p of letters based on the following coding system and t h e conditions that follow and m a r k the number of t h a t combination as your answer. If none of t h e combinations c o r r e c t l y represents the g r o u p of l e t t e r s , m a r k 5),i e ' N o n e of t h e s e ' a s y o u r answer.
L e t t e r : P M A D E J 1 TO U O F H W B
D i g i t / S y m b o l : 6 S 7 1 % 2 5 8 3 © 4 @ 9 5 ?
Conditions:
(i)If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as
'
Directions (Q. 42-48): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input joy far 35 27 16 96 heij >ht star
Step I 96 joy far 35 27 16 heij jht star
Step J1 % far joy 35 27 . 16 heij ;ht star
Step III 96 far 35 joy 27 16 heij iht star
Step IV % far 35 height joy 27 16 star
StepV 96 far 35 height 27 joy 16 star
And Step V is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
42. Input: organize 19 12 stable room 35 72 house How many steps will be required to complete the arrangement?
l)Five
2) Six
3) Seven
4) Four
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 49-55): In the following questions, the symbols $, %, @, © and ? are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
' P % Q' means 'Pis neither greater than nor smal ler than Q'.
'P $ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P ©Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P ? Q' means 'P is not greaterthan Q'.
'P @ Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three
conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
49. Statements :V©K, K@B, B $ M
Conclusions: I. V © B II. M© K III. M©V
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only II and III are true
50. Statements: D ? R, R % F, F $ T
Conclusions: I. F % D II. F $D III.T©R
1) Only I is true
2) Only II is true
3) Only III is true
4) Only either I or II is true
5) Only either 1 or II and III are true
51. Statements: N @ D, D?K, K $ A
Conclusions: I. K@N II. A©D HI.N$A
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only II and III are true
52. Statements: K@T, T $ N, N © R
Conclusions: I. R $ K II. N ? K III. K $ N
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only I is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only II and III are true
53. Statements: W%K, K © F, D $ F
Conclusions: I. D$K II. D $W III.F@W
1) Only 1 and III are true
2) Only I and II are true
4) All 1, II and III are true
5) None of these
54. Statements: B ? K., K © F, F % R
Conclusions: I. R $ K II. R $ B III. F S B
1) Only I and II are true
2) Only I and III are true
3) Only II and III are true
4) All I, II and III are true
5) None of these
55. Statements: H $ M, M % D , D@K.
Conclusions: I. H $ D II. K ? M III. K© H
l)Only II is true
2) Only II and III are true
3) Only I and III are true
4) Only I and II are true
5) AH I, II and III are true
Directions (Q. 56-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, M, D, P, R, T, B and H are sitting around a circle, facing the centre. M is third to the left of A, who is second to the left of T. D is second to the right of H, who is second to the right of T. R is second to the right of B, who is not an
immediate neighbour of T.
56. Which of the following combinations represents the first and the second to the left of B respectively?
1)MD
2)DH
3)AM
4)AR
5)DM
57. Who is third to the right of T?
1)D
2)B
3)H
4)M
5) None of these
58. Who is to the immediate left of H?
1)P
2)M
3)T
)R
5) Data inadequate
59. Who is second to the left of B?
1)D
2)H
3)M
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
60. In which of the following combinations the third person is second to the left of the second person?
1)BAR
2) DBM
)TPH
4)PMH
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 61-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Following are the conditions for selecting Manager- Finance in an organization:
The candidate must
i) be at least 30 years and not more than 35 years as on 1.11.2009.
(ii) be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55 percent marks.
(iii) be a postgraduate degree/diploma holder in Management with Finance specialisation with at least 60 per cent marks.
(iv) have post-qualification work experience of at least six years in the Finance department of anorganisation.
(v) have secured at least 50 per cent marks in the preliminary interview.
(vi) have secured at least 40 per cent marks in the final interview. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions
EXCEPT
(a) at (iv) above, but has post-qualification workexperience of at least three years as Deputy Finance Manager in an organisation, his/her case is to be referred to VP-Finance.
(b) at (vi) above, but has obtained at least 60 per cent marks in the preliminary interview, his/her candidature
is to be considered under 'wait list'. In each question below, details of one candidate are given.
You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and subconditions given above and mark the number of that course ofaction as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.11.2009.
Mark answer (1) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answer (2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Mark answer (3) if the candidate is to be kept on waiting list.
Mark answer (4) if the case is to be referred to VP-Finance.
Mark answer (5) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision
61. Neelam Johri has secured 38 per cent marks in the final interview. She has also secured 65 per cent marks in bothB. Com. and postgraduate degree in Finance Management.She has been working in the Finance department of an organisation for the past six years after completing her postgraduate degree. She was born on 16th August 1978. She has secured 63 per cent marks in the preliminary interview.
62. Anirban Chowdhury was born on 8th March 1978. He has secured 65 per cent marks in BSc and 62 per cent marks in postgraduate degree in Finance Management. He has been working in the Finance department of a company for the past seven years after completing his postgraduation. Hehas secured 50 per cent marks in the final interview and 40 per cent marks in the preliminary interview.
63. Vaibhav Joshi has secured 60 per cent marks in both graduation and postgraduate diploma in Finance Management. He has been working as Deputy Finance Manager in an organisation for the past four years after
completing his post-graduate diploma. He has secured 53 per cent marks in the preliminary interview and 43 per cent marks in the final interview He was born on 3rd July 1977.
64. Sudha Motwani was born on 24th March 1977. She has secured 58 per cent marks in BA and 68 per cent marks in postgraduate diploma in Finance Management. She has been working in the Finance department of an organisation for the past eight years after completing her post• graduation. She has secured 50 per cent marks in both preliminary and final interviews.
65. Ashok Chandra has been working in the Finance department of an organization for the past seven years after completing his postgraduate diploma in management with Finance specialization with 65 per cent marks. He
has secured 55 percent marks in the preliminary interview and 45 per cent marks in the tlnal interview. He was born on 12th April 1976.
66. Suparna Desai has secured 5 8 per cent marks in graduation and 68 per cent marks in postgraduate diploma in Finance Management. She has been working as Deputy Finance Manager in an organization for the past four years after completing her postgraduate diploma. She has secured 50 percent marks in preliminary interview and 45 percent marks in the final interview. She was born on 26th August 1977.
67. Balwant Singh was born on 18th November 1979. He has secured 60 per cent marks in B Com and 55 per cent marks in post graduate degree in Finance Management. He has been working as Deputy Finance Manager in an organisation for the past five years after completing his postgraduate degree. He has secured 54 per cent marks in preliminary interview and 44 per cent marks in final interview.
68. Abhishek Saha was born on 8th October 1978. He has been working in the Finance department of an organisation for the past six years after completing his postgraduate
diploma in management with 68 per cent marks. He has secured 63 per cent marks in B Sc. He has also secured 60 percent marks in both preliminary and final interviews.
69. Shikha Rastogi was born on 11th April 1976. She has secured 68 per cent marks in graduation and 62 per cent marks in postgraduate degree in Finance Management.She has secured 65 per cent marks in preliminary interview and 35 per cent marks in final interview. She has been working in the Finance department of an organisation for the past seven years after completing her postgraduate degree.
70. Navin Shukla has secured 60 per cent marks in graduation and 64 per cent marks in postgraduate diploma in Finance Management. He has been working in the Financedepartment of a company for the past six years after
completing his postgraduate diploma. He has secured 56 per cent marks in the preliminary interview and 45 per cent marks in the final interview. He was born on 28thMay 1976.
Directions (Q. 71-75): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer (1) if the inference is 'definitely true', ie it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
Mark answer (2) if the inference is "probably true" thoughnot 'definitely true' in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (3) if the 'data are inadequate', ie from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
Mark answer (4) if the inference is 'probably false', though not 'definitely false' in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (5) if the inference is definitely false', ie it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.In its most ambitious bid ever to house 6 crore slum dwellers and realize the vision of a slum-free India, the government is rolling out a massive plan to build 50 lakh dwelling units in five years across 400 towns and cities. The programme could free up thousands of acres of valuable government land across the
country and generate crores worth of business for real-estate developers. Proliferation of slums has had an adverse impact on the GDP growth foryears. Slum dwellers are characterized by low productivity and susceptibilility to poor health conditions. The government believes that better housing facilities will addresssocial issues and also have a multiplier effect and serve as an economic stimulus.
71. Health and sanitary conditions in slums are far below the acceptable norms of human habitat in Indian cities and towns.
72. Cities and towns of developed countries are free from slums.
73. Per capita income of slum dwellers is significantly lower than that of those living in better housing facilities.
74. Majority of the slums in cities and towns in India are on prime private properties.
75. Development of land occupied by slums in cities of India will not have any effect on the common public.
Directions (Q. 76-80): In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Give answer 1) if only I follows.Give answer 2) if only II follows.Give answer 3) if either I or II follows.Give answer 4) if neither I nor 11 follows.Giveanswer5) if both land II follow.
76. Statement: A very large number of people gathered outside the local police station to submit amemorandum on behalf of the residentshighlighting police inaction in curbing incidents of theft and burglary in the eighbourhood for the past few months
Courses of action: I.
The police authority should forma team of officers to talk to the representatives of the residents and assure them that propersteps will be taken to stop the menace.
II. The police authority should advise the people gathered outside the police station to disburse and promise them quick action.
77. Statement: At least five students were killed due to astampede in one city school as the students triedto leave the school bui Iding, fearing short circuit.
Courses of action: I.
The principal of the school shouldbe arrested immediately. 1
II. The Govt should immediately order closure of the school permanently.
78. Statement: Two local passenger trains collided while running in opposite directions on the same trackas the signalling system failed for a brief period.
Courses of action:
I. The services of the motormen ofthe trains should immediately be terminated.
II. The Govt should immediately constitute a task force to review the functioning of the signalling system.
79. Statement: Almost ninety per cent of the flights of one of the private airline companies were cancelled for the fourth consecutive day as the pilots refused to join their duties in protest against sacking of two of their colleagues by the airline management.
Courses of action:
I. The management of the airline company should be ordered by the Govt to immediately reinstate the sacked pilots to end the crisis.
II. The Govt should immediately take steps toend the impasse between the management andthe pilots to help the hapless passengers.
80. Statement: A major part of the local market in the city was gutted due to a short circuit causingextensive damage to goods and property.
Courses of action:
I. The Govt should issue strict guidelines for all establishments regarding installation and maintenance of electrical fittings.
11. The Government should relocate all themarkets to the outskirts of the city.
81. Statement: The Govt has decided to construct an eightlane super highway across the state to facilitate fast movement of vehicles.Which of the following can be an assumption which is implicit in the above statement ?
1) The Govt has adequate resources to construct theproposed super highway.
2) The people of the state may protest against the Govt's decision as their farm land will be taken over by the Govt for constructing the highway.
3) The Govt may find it difficult to enrol a suitable contractor for constructing the highway.
4) There is no other highway which can be used for transportation of goods across the state.
5) None of these
82. Statement: It has been reported in a recent research report that taller people are found to be happier than those who are relatively shorter.
Which of the following contradicts the above finding ?
1) People are generally truthful when they respond to the questions of such research studies.
2) Those people who have a comfortable lifestyle are found to be happier than those who lead a strenuous lifestyle irrespective of their height.
3) Shorter people suffer from inferiority complex throughout their life.
4) Taller people are found to be more positive in approach to daily chores of life.
5) None of these
83. Statement: There was a slow decline in the number of patients with flu-like symptoms visiting varioushealth facilities in the city during the last fortnight.
Which of the following substantiates the fact mentionedin the above statement?
1) Majority of the people suffering from flu visit the health facilities in the city.
2) There has been a continuous increase in the sale medicines for curing flu in the city limits.
3) People have started visiting the crowded places like malls and cinema halls during the last fortnight after a cautioned gap of one month. 1
4) There is a sudden increase in the number of deaths caused by flu-like symptoms followed by respiratorycomplications.
5) None of these
84. Cause: A severe cyclonic storm swept away most part of the state during the last two days.
Which of the following cannot be a possible effect of the above cause ?
1) Heavy rainfall was reported in most part of the state during the last two days.
2) Many people were rendered homeless as their houses were flown away.
3) The communication system of the state was severely affected and continues to be out of gear.
4) Govt has ordered that all the offices and schools should be kept Open.
5) All are possible effects.
85. Effect: The prices of petroleum products have increased by about twenty per cent in the past two months.
Which of the following can be a probable cause of the above effect ?
1) The prices of foodgrains and vegetables have shot up by more than thirty per cent.
2) The truck owners' association has decided to increase their rent by about 20 per cent with immediate effect.
3) The prices of crude oil in the international market haveincreased considerably during the past few weeks.
4) People have decided to demonstrate against the Govt's apathy towards rise in prices of essential commodities.
5) None of these
