IndianCoastGuard Question-Paper |   2478

IndianCoastGuard Question-Paper

 

Model Questions for Marine/ Air/ Electrical Engineer Officers

 

Questions for Marine Engineer / Air Engineer Officers

 

A. Section A 

 

Each question carries 1 mark.

 

1. Damage stability of a ship is the stability 

 

(a) Which exists when the wind speed is less than 50 kn. 
(b) Before collision 
(c) After flooding 
(d) At survival draft 

 

Answer : c

 

2. What is the usual effect of moving weight from lower decks to upper decks? 

 

(a) Increase in stability 
(b) Reduced draft 
(c) Reduced stability 
(d) Reduced reserve buoyancy. 

 

Answer :

 

3. Metacentric height (GM) cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination as 
 
(a) M is not fixed at larger angles. 
(b) There is no M at larger angles. 
(c) G is not fixed at larger angles. 
(d) There is no G at larger angles. 

 

Answer :

 

4. The value of maximum righting arm is dependent upon the position of the centre buoyancy and the 
 
(a) Longitudinal cg 
(b) Vertical location of cg 
(c) Transverse cg 
(d) Metacentric height 

 

Answer :

 

5. The disadvantage of using CO2 for fire fighting is that 

 

(a) CO2 does not cool the fire. 
(b) They are not effective on class B fire. 
(c) They are corrosive. 
(d) Not effective on class C fire. 

 

Answer :

 

6. When entering a compartment which is on fire 

 

(a) You must wear rubber gloves. 
(b) The flames should be beaten back from door with water fog. 
(c) A straight stream of water should be used to cool the door. 
(d) A straight stream of water should be used to cool the fire fighter. 

 

Answer :  

 

7. Fire hoses should always be stowed in a manner which will allow 

 

(a) All sections to be quickly connected. 
(b) The nozzle end to be run out to fire. 
(c) All section are quickly drained. 
(d) Easy carrying of hose to any other location. 

 

Answer :

 

8. The crank case of many diesel engines are kept under a slight vacuum to 
 
(a) Improve fuel economy 
(b) Improve air charge velocity’ 
(c) Reduce the risk of crank case explosion 
(d) All of the above 

 

Answer :

 

9. Engine operating conditions may be indicated by the colour of exhaust smoke. Black smoke could indicate 
 

(a) Insufficient speed droop setting. 
(b) Overloaded engine. 
(c) Clogged drain holes in the oil control rings. 
(d) Complete combustion. 

 

Answer :

 

10.What is the maximum permissible dilution level of lub oil in a diesel engine 
 
(a) 3 % 
(b) 5 %
(c) 8 % 
(d) 10 % 

 

Answer :

 

11. One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with discharge valve closed is that the 
 
(a) Motor overload will operate. 
(b) Relief valve will operate. 
(c) Pump will overheat. 
(d) Motor will overheat. 


Answer :

 

12. The usual symptoms of cavitation in a centrifugal pump are 
 
(a) Noise and vibration. 
(b) Increased discharge pressure. 
(c) Turbulent flow through pipes. 
(d) Reduced discharge. 

 

Answer :

 

13. One of the most common cause of reduction gear failure is gear wear caused by scoring as a result of 
 
(a) Surface fatigue of gears 
(b) Inadequate lub oil film 
(c) Plastic flow of gears 
(d) Fretting corrosion by presence of water in oil 

 

Answer : b

 

14. If a refrigeration compressor had developed a high suction pressure 
 

(a) Accumulation of air or non condensable gases in the system. 
(b) Clogged sub cooler 
(c) Liquid refrigerant flooding back from cooling coil. 
(d) High ambient temperature. 

 

Answer : a

 

15. The purpose of an air compressor unloading device is to 
 
(a) Drain water from the systems. 
(b) Drain water from the cylinders. 
(c) Delay the compression process until the motor is upto speed. 
(d) All of the above. 

 

Answer :  

 

16. Compared to  FPP, a CPP is
 
(a) More efficiently uses available engine power. 
(b) Operates at a lower efficiency at a fixed speed. 
(c) Produces same torque at lower engine speed. 
(d) Develops its rated power at a lower speed. 

 

Answer :

 

17. A piece is missing from one of the blades of a four bladed propeller and can result in 

 

(a) Accelerated stern bearing wear. 
(b) Excessive shaft vibrations. 
(c) Unusual noises. 
(d) All of the above. 

 

Answer : d

 

18. Improper seating of an air starting check valve in an operating diesel engine is indicated by 
 
(a) Noise from air starting valve. 
(b) An over heated air supply pipe to the cylinder head. 
(c) Continuous operation of air compressor. 
(d) Zero air pressure in air starting system. 

 

Answer :

 

19. In a normally operating diesel engine the main source of lub oil contamination in the crank case is a result of the 
 

(a) Metal particles loosened by wear. 
(b) Condensation of water vapours. 
(c) Break down of the lubricating oil itself. 
(d) Fuel dilution.

 

Answer :

 

20. Piping cross-sections ranging from 3 mm to 300 mm in dia are sized by 
 
(a) Wall thickness 
(b) Nominal inside dia 
(c) Outside dia 
(d) Threaded dia 

 

Answer :

 

21. The valve which is most suited for regulating the flow through a pipeline is 
 
(a) Gate valve. 
(b) Globe valve. 
(c) Swing-check valve. 
(d) Needle valve. 

 

Answer : b

 

22. Increasing the load on an engine equipped with a constant speed mechanical governor, will cause the engine speed to initially.
 
(a) Increase 
(b) Decrease 
(c) Fluctuate 
(d) Remain constant 

 

Answer :

 

23. Which combination of propulsion system will give optimum power output at both cruise and boost power requirement 

 

(a) CODOG 
(b) CODAD 
(c) CODAG 
(d) CODAL 

 

Answer : a

 

24. During the diesel engine power stroke, the side thrust of a trunk type piston is a result of the angle 

 

(a) Formed by the connecting rod and cylinder center line 
(b) Of the bevel on the piston oil rings 
(c) Formed by the crank arm and crank pin 
(d) Formed by the master and link connecting rods 

 

Answer : a
 
B. Section B 

 

1. Name five leak stopping devices and its application. (1.5 Marks )

 

2. What is free surface effect? How can it be avoided? (1.5 Marks )
 
3. Explain the IC engine power statement as per IS 3046. ( 2 Marks ) 

 

4. What is dual certification of a new construction ship? Name five classification societies.( 2 Marks ) 

 

5. Explain the seasoning procedure of a new AVCAT fuelling hose prior to installing to any AVCAT         system. ( 2 Marks ) 

 

6. Which are the occasions on which sea trials are required to be conducted in the case of a CG ship.     ( 2 Marks ) 

 

7. What are the NDT techniques being used by ICG during normal Ops cycle, refits and new                   construction of ships. ( 2 Marks ) 

 

8. What is fatigue life of any engineering component? How maximum  fatigue life of ship’s propeller         shaft can be ensured? ( 2 Marks ) 

 

9. What are factors to be considered in selecting the material for any system piping.( 2 Marks ) 

 

10. What are super cavitating propellers? ( 2 Marks ) 

 

11. What is nominal speed of a governor? ( 2 Marks )

 

12. Briefly explain the role of classification societies in the new construction projects and refit ships.

      ( 3 Marks )

 

13. Explain the standard fire fighting and damage control organisation of a CG OPV in harbour.

     ( 4 Marks )

 

14. What is the purpose a conducting an inclining experiment? Explain the procedure and obtain the         expression.( 4 Marks )

 

15. What is crankshaft deflation? What are the reasons and how it is measured? ( 4 Marks )

 

16. How preservation of a diesel engine is carried out? ( 4 Marks )


 

Questions for Marine/ Electrical/Air Electrical Officers

 

A. Section A

 

Each question carry 1 mark.

 

1. The difference between primary and secondary cell is that the secondary cell can be 

 

(a) Recycled 
(b) Recharged 
(c) Reused 
(e) Repaired 

 

Answer :

 

2. The specific gravity of the charged cell will 

 

(a) Decrease 
(b) Remain same 
(c) Increase 
(d) None of above 

 

Answer :

 

3. The equipment is earthed for the safety of 

 

(a) Equipment 
(b) Personnel 
(c) Both 
(d) None of above 

 

Answer :

 

4. An universal motor is the motor which can be operated with 

 

(a) DC and single phase AC 
(b) DC and three phase AC 
(c) DC and single phase AC with same speed and output. 
(d) None of above 

 

Answer :

 

5. The main advantage of stationary armature (rotating field generator) is 

 

(a) It is easier to insulate stationary armature winding 
(b) It is easier to rotate the field 
(c) It is not advisable that the field is to be stationery at higher voltages 
(d) None of above 

 

Answer :

 

6. If the rated speed of the primover is reduced the output frequency of the generator will 

 

(a) Increase 
(b) Decrease 
(c) No change 
(d) None of above 

 

Answer :

 

7. If A and B are the input of the EX-OR gate; the output will be 

 

(a) A'B + AB'
(b) A'B' + AB 
(c) A' + AB 
(d) AB + 2 AB 

 

Answer :

 

8. Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) is primarily used in 
 
(a) High packing density applications 
(b) Low power applications 
(c) Both (b) & (c) 
(d) None of above 

 

Answer : b

 

9. Arc Time Constant of ACBs is 

 

(a) It is time required to regain dielectric strength of the medium 
(b) It is time required to quench the arc of the medium 
(c) It is time required to charge the capacitor 
(d) None of above 

 

Answer :

 

10. The protection level of ICCP is gauged with respect to 

 

(a) Reference potential 
(b) Anode potential 
(c) Hull potential 
(d) None of above 

 

Answer :

 

11. Main advantage of Laser Ring Gyro on Conventional Gyro is 

 

(a) Laser Gyro does not have moving parts 
(b) It uses laser 
(c) It is cheap in cost 
(d) None of above 

 

Answer :

 

12. Gyro sphere consists of 

 

(a) One rotor 
(b) Two rotors 
(c) Three rotors 
(d) Combination of (a) & (b) 

 

Answer :

 

13. ‘Muff’ couplings are used to connect 

 

(a) Emergency cables in case of the damage 
(b) Radio cable used with radars 
(c) Power cables for shore supply 
(d) Wires 

 

Answer :

 

14. The SID is the abbreviation of 

 

(a) Safe Identification Device 
(b) Sole Identification Device 
(c) Support Identification Device 
(d) None of above 

 

Answer : a

 

15. Frequency range of ‘S’ Band radar is 

 

(a) 3110 MHZ – 3200 MHZ 
(b) 3040 GHZ – 3060 GHZ 
(c) 3040 MHZ – 3060 MHZ 
(d) 3110 GHZ – 3200 GHZ 

 

Answer :

 

16. The gain of unidirectional antenna is more than increases on Omni directional antenna due to 

 

(a) Increase in power density 
(b) Decrease in power density 
(c) Power density remains same 
(d) None of above 

 

Answer :

 

17. Laser Range Finder (LRF) fitted on board AOPVs uses 

 

(a) NDYAG Laser 
(b) Semiconductor Laser 
(c) Gas Laser 
(d) Dye Laser 

 

Answer :

 

18. Eye Safe Laser means 

 

(a) One can continuously look into the laser and it will not affect the eye 
(b) Looking into the laser for small duration will not affect the eye 
(c) Accidental exposure of eye to the laser will not affect the eye 
(d) None of above 

 

Answer :

 

19. Power factor improving devices are located at 

 

(a) Receiving end of power 
(b) Transmitting end of power 
(c) In between receiving and transmitting end of power 
(d) Both at (a) & (b) 

 

Answer :

 

20. In Echo sounder AVC will ensure 

 

(a) Signal strength is constant under all reception conditions 
(b) Signal strength is to be only amplified from higher depths 
(c) Signal strength is to be reduced in all conditions 
(d) None of above 

 

Answer : a

 

21. In case of semiconductor diode barrier potential developed across the junction can be 

 

(a) Used as a cell 
(b) Cannot be used as a cell 
(c) Can be used as a low potential battery 
(d) None of above 

 

Answer :

 

22. CCDs are used in TV cameras 

 

(a) To have high resolution 
(b) Reduced size 
(c) Both (a) & (b) 
(d) None of above 

 

Answer :

 

23. AELs stand for 

 

(a) Automotive Energy Lights 
(b) Accessible Engineering Ledgers 
(c) Auto Equipment Ledgers 
(d) None of above 

 

Answer :

 

B. Section B

 

Each question carries 4 marks.

 

1. The performance of DGPS is superior on GPS, how it is obtained? 

 

2. Write the principle of wind speed indicator? 

 

3. In case of emergency MSB watch keeper is required to switch off certain loads from the MSB,           explain.


4. Explain effect of each parameter, considered for formulation of the radar range equation on radar         range under ideal condition? 

 

5. The sequence of switching off of the loads with colour codes? 

 

6. Draw simple block diagram of Electro-Optic Fire Control System (EOFCS)? 

 

7. Write short notes on 

 

    (a) IMCS 
    (b) IBS 

 

8. Explain the procedure of calibration of EM log? 

 

9. Draw simple block diagram of the Echo sounder? 
 

C. Section C

 

Each question carries 2 marks.

 

1. Differentiate between ‘D’ Flip Flop and JK Flip Flop? 

 

2. Write short note on EMI / EMC? 

 

3. Explain, with illustrated examples, the role of converted supplies on board ship? 

 

4. What is expulsion type fuse?

 

5. What is the role of reference electrode in ICCP? 

 

6. Explain various methods to quench the Arc produced in the circuit breakers?  

 

7. Explain role of controller unit in autopilot system? 

 

8. What is the role of 25 V 333 HZ power supply in Gyro? 

 

9. Explain PMS (Power Management System) in brief? 

 

10. What type of detector is used to detect the mist formation in lub oil sump of the main engine? 

 

11. Why we are using 3 wire system despite 4 wire system has more advantages in power distribution system? 

 

D. Objective Questions

 

1. When of the following does not cover under definition of fish as per MZI Act 1976 

 

(a) Aquatic animal 
(b) Coral 
(c) Sea weed 
(d) None of the above 

 

2. Failing to stow fishing gear in the prescribed manner is a violation under which section of MZI Act 1981 

 

(a) S – 7/14 
(b) S – 7/321 
(c) S – 7/28 
(d) S – 7/35 

 

3. Which all state have the right to sail ship through it flag on the high sea 

 

(a) All coastal state 
(b) All state with major port 
(c) All commonwealth state and coastal state organisation 
(d) Every state, whether coastal or land locked 

 

4. An act which provides regulations regarding territorial water, continental shelf and exclusive economic zone and other maritime zone of India is know as 

 

(a) MZI Act – 1978 
(b) TW Act – 1978 
(c) EEZ Act 1976 
(d) MZI Act 1976 

 

5. State will not have which of the following control over ship flying its flag 

 

(a) Administrative 
(b) Technical 
(c) Navigational at high sea 
(d) Social matter 

 

6. A war of high sea will have complete immunity form the jurisdiction of any state

 

(a) Except flag state 
(b) Except coastal state 
(c) Both of them 
(d) Non of the above 

 

7. Fishing with out license / permit is violation of which section under MZI Act 1981 

 

(a) S – 3/10 
(b) S – 3/30 
(c) S – 4/40 
(d) S – 2/30 

 

8. Palk straight are the historical water between India and which country 

 

(a) Bangladesh 
(b) Sri Lanka 
(c) Pakistan 
(d) Maldives 

 

E. Short Answer Questions

 

1. Define exclusive economic zone? 

 

2. Define contiguous zone of India? 

 

3. Define high seas? 

 

4. Define Historic water? 

 

5. Define continental shelf? 

 

6. What all documents CG Ship to maintain to preserve the evidence leading to inspection / apprehension of foreign vessel under MZI Act 1981? 

 

7. What is the definition of warship as pr UNCLOS? 

 

8. What are the powers given to Coast Guard Officer under MZI Act 1976 and Amended MZI Act 1981? 

 

9. What is Territorial water and how is it different from EEZ? 

 

F. Long Answer Questions

 

1. Explain exploration and survey of an offshore area including various drilling rigs used? 

 

2. Explain exposed location single buoy mooring (ELSBM) and how is the difference from offshore storage system? 

 

3. Explain the details of powers exploded to Coast Guard Officers under various section of Merchant Ship?

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