Partner Sites
IASRI Aptitude Paper
IASRI Entrance Exam Paper
PART- I (General Agriculture)
Multiple choice questions (No. 1 to 30). Choose the correct answer (a, b, c or d) and enter your choice in the circle (by shading with a pencil) on the OMR -answer sheet as per the instructions
given on the answer sheet.
1. Which of the following crops have been approved for commercial cultivation in India?
a) Bt cotton and Bt brinjal
b)Bt cotton and Golden Rice
c)Bt maize and Bt cotton
d)Bt cotton only
2.This year (2010-11) the expected food grain production in India is
a) 212 million tonnes
b) 220 million tonnes
c) 235 million tonnes
d) 250 million tonnes
3.The genome of which of the, following crops is still not completely sequenced?
a) Rice
b)Soybean
c)Sorghum
d)Wheat
4.According to the Approach Paper to the 12th Plan is
a) Inclusive growth
b)Sustainable growth
c)Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth
d)Inclusive and sustainable growth
5. To address the problems of sustainable and holistic development of rainfed areas,including appropriate farming and livelihood system approaches, the Government of India has set up the
a) National Rainfed Area Authority
b) National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas
c) National Mission on Rainfed Areas
d) Command Area Development and Water Management Authority
6.Which of the following sub-schemes are not covered under the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana?
a)Extending the Green Revolution to eastern India
b) Development of 60,000 pulses and oilseeds villages in identified watersheds
c) National Mission on Saffron
d)National Mission on Bamboo
7. According totheHumanDevelopment Report 2010 of the United Nations, India's rank in terms of the human development index is
a) 119
b) 134
c) 169
d) 182
8.Which of the following does not apply to SRI method of paddy cultivation?
a)Reduced water application
b)Reduced plant density
c)Increased application of chemical fertilizers
d)Reduced age of seedlings
9. Which organic acid, often used as a preservative, occurs naturally in cranberries, prunes, cinnamon and cloves?
a) Citric acid
b) Benzoic acid
c) Tartaric acid
d) Lactic acid
10. Cotton belongs to the family
a) Cruciferae
b). Anacardiaceae
c) Malvaceae
d) Solanaceae
11. Photoperiodism is
a) Bending of shoot towards source of light
b) Effect of light/dark durations on physiological processes
c) Movement of chloroplast in, cell in response to light
d) Effect of light on chlorophyll synthesis
12. Ergot disease is caused by which pathogen on which host?
a) Claviceps purpurea on rye
b) Puccinia recondite on wheat
c) Drechlera sorokiniana on Wheat
d) Albugo candida on mustard
13. Rocks are the chief sources of. parent materials over which soils are developed.Granite, an important rock, is classified as
a) igneous rock
b) Metamorphic rock
c) Sedimentary rock
d) Hybrid rock
14. Which one of the following is a Kharif crop?
a) Pearl millet
b) Lentil
c) Mustard
d) Wheat
15. The coefficient of variation (C.V.) is calculated by the formula
a) (Mean/S.D.) x 100
b) (S.D./Mean) x 100
c) S.D./Mean
d) Mean/S.D.
16. Which of the following is commonly referred to as muriate of potash?
a)Potassium nitrate
b)Potassium chloride
c)Potassium sulphate
d)Potassium silicate
17. Inbred lines that have same genetic constitution but differ only at one locus are called
a) Multi lines
b) Monohybrid
c) lsogenic lines,
d) Pure lines
18. For applying 100 kg of nitrogen, how much urea woul d orte'use?
a) 45 kg
b) 111 kg
c) 222 kg
d) 333 kg
19. The devastating impact of plant disease on human suffering and survival was first realized by epidemic of
a) Brown spot of rice in Bengal
b) Late blight of potato in USA
c) Late blight of potato in Europe
d) Rust of wheat In India
20. The species of rice (Oryza) other than O.sativa that is cultivated is
a) O. rufipugon
b) 0.longisteminata
c) O. glaberrima
d) O. nivara
21. The enzyme responsible for the fixation of CO2 in mesophyil cells of C-4 plants Is
a) Malic enzyme
b) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
c) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase
d) RuBP carboxylase
22. Which one of the following is a `Vertisol'?
a) Black cotton soil
b) Red sandy loam soil
c) Sandy loam sodic soil,
d) Submontane (Tara!) soil
23. What is the most visible physical characteristic of cells in metaphase?
a) Elongated chromosomes
b) Nucleus visible but chromosomes not
c) Fragile double stranded loose chromosomes
d) Condensed paired chromosomes on the cell plate
24. All weather phenomena like rain, fog and mist occur in
a) Troposphere
b) Mesosphere
c) Ionosphere
d) Ozonosphere
25. Which of the following elements is common to all proteins and nucleic acids?
a) Sulphur
b) Magnesium
c) Nitrogen
d) Phosphorous
26. Silt has intermediate characteristics between
a) Sand and loam
b) Clay and loam
c). Loam and gravel
d) Sand and clay..
27. Certified seed is produced from
a) Nucleus, seed
b) Breeder seed
c) Foundation seed
d) Truthful seed
28. Seedless banana is an
a) Autotriploid
b) Autotetraploid
c) Allotriploid
d) Allotetraploid
29. Which one of the following is used to test the goodness-of-fit of a distribution?
a) Normal test
b) t-test
c) Chi-square test
d) F-test
30. The type of isoquant which represents perfect substitutability of factors. of production is
a) Leontief isoquant
b) Convex isoquant
c) Linear isoquant
d) Kinked isoquant
PART - II (Subject Paper)
Multiple choice questions (No. 1 to 30). Choose the correct answer (a, b, c or d) and enter your choice in the circle (by shading with a pencil) on the OMR -answer sheet as per the instructions
given on the answer sheet.
1. Giffeh paradox occurs when income effect is
a) Greater than the substitution effect
b) Equal to the substitution effect
c) Less than the substitution effect
d) Negative and is greater than the substitution effect
2. If the amounts of two commodities purchased change as the price of one of the two commodities changes, then the cross elasticity of demand between them will be
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Zero
d) One
3. The degree of monopoly power as defined by Rothschild is based on
a) Price elasticity of demand
b) Price cross-elasticity of demand
c) Slope of the demand curve of.a firm and of the industry
d) Super-normal profit
4. A locus of constant utility is called the
a) Expansion path
b) Utility function
c) Indifference curve
d) Demand function
5. Market performance is determined by
a) Marketstructure only
b) Market conduct only
c) Either market structure or market conduct
d) Both market'structure and market conduct
6: The break-even quantity of output can be determined by the formula
a) TFC/(P-AVC)
b) TFC/(AVC-P)
c) TFC/(P±AVC)
d) TFC/(TFC-AVC)
7. A demand curve would not shift if there were changes in the
a) Taste and preferences of consumers
b) Number or age distribution of buyers
c) Price of the good,
d) Expectations of consumers about the availability of the good
8. The economic rent earned by any factor will be the highest if its elasticity of supply Is
a) Zero
b) Equal to one
c) Infinity
d) Between one and infinity
9. Least cost production in the long run requires firms to adjust their resource mixes until the relative prices of resources are equal to the relative
a) Prices of outputs
b) Total costs for each resources
c). Average productivity per resource
d) Marginal productivity of the resources
10. Under WTO in agriculture, all measures that directly support prices or subsidies related to production quantities are included in the
a) Amber Box
b) Red box
c) Blue box
d) Green Box
11. Which of the following is a proposal contained in the Model APMC Act?
a) Expansion of futures trading
b) Setting up of special marketing boards
c) Provision of direct sales to consumers
d) Setting up of special economic zones
12. Measures of long-term solvency of a business enterprise are collectively called
a) Leverage ratios
b) Liquidity ratios
c) Turn-over ratios
d) Profitability, ratios
13. Price discrimination allows a monopoly to
a) Lower its marginal cost
b) Reduce its producer surplus
c) 'Raise its total revenue
d) Charge all customers a higher price
14. The marketing activity of dividing markets into smaller units with similar needs and characteristics is known as
a) Market penetration
b) Relationship marketing
c) Target marketing
d) Market segmentation
15. Family labour income is equal to
a) Gross income - Cost A,.
b) Farm business income - wages of family labour
c) Gross income - Cost C2
d) Gross income - Cost B2
16. GNP deflator is
a) Nominal GNP/nominal GDP
b) Nominal GNP/real GNP
c) Nominal GNPPeal GDP
d) Real GNP/nominal GDP
17. The Identification problem of the simultaneous equation systems relates to
a) Method'-of estimation
b) Sample site ;
c) Meaningful estimate of structural coefficients
d) All of the above
18. The determinant of the matrix a-b a is a a+b
a) b 2
b) -b2
c) a2
d) -a2
19. The substitution effect for a fall in the price of a commodity (ceteris paribus) is given by
b) A movement from a higher to a lower indifference curve.
c) A movement down a given indifference curve
d) Any of the above
20. Type i error is
a) Rejecting Ho when HQ is true
b) Accepting Ha When HQ is false.
c) Accepting Ho when Ho is true
d) Rejecting Ho when Ho is false
21. Presence of multicollinearity between the explanatory variables is detected by
a) Durbin-Watson test
b) Farrar-Glauber test
c) Chi-square test
d) Coefficient of multiple determination
22. If the correlation coefficient between X and Y is 0.50, what percentage of the total variation remains unexplained by the regression equation?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
23. Which of the following is a positive statement?
a) The govt, must lower the prices of bread so that more consumers can afford to buy it
b) The best level of taxation Is zero per cent because then people get to keep every thing they want
c) An increase in college tuition will cause fewer students to apply to college
d) Economic theory course should last for two terms because it is a very important subject
24. If demand is inelastic, a'shift of supply curve rightward will
a) Decrease total revenue
b) Increase total revenue
c) Have no effect on total revenue
d) Reduce the demand for the product
25. All normal goods have
a) Income elasticity of demand greater than 1.0
b) Price elasticity of demand greater than 1.0
c) Negative price elasticity of demand
d) Positive income elasticity of demand
26. The difference between the maximum amount consumers are willing to pay and the amount they actually do pay for a given quantity of good is called
a) D ead weight surplus
b) Consumer surplus
c) Producer surplus
d) Total surplus
27. A feature of labour supply curve is that,unlike most supply curves, it
a) is always positively sloped
b) is always negatively sloped
c) May.bend backwards
d) None of the above
28. Suppose the government taxes a product.The decrease in quantity consumed will be smaller when
a) The elasticity of demand is higher,
b) The elasticity of demand is tower
c) Elasticity of demand has nothing to do with quantity demanded
d) More information is needed to answer it
29. When the elasticity of demand of a product is less than the elasticity of its supply, it results in Cobweb phenomena of the following type
a) Perpetual oscillation
b) Damped oscillation
c) Explosive oscillation
d) Both a) & b)
30. The relationship, between rate of interest and the level of income at which the money market is in equilibrium is described by
a) LM function
b) Production function
c) IS function
d) Cost function
