IBPS probationary(PO) and Clerical Whole-Testpaper Contributed by Venkitesh Varma updated on May 2021

Question papers of IBPS Bank PO and Clerical cadre Written Test Examination Pattern and Latest Question Papers\
IBPS stands for Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Common Written Examination (CWE) for PO,Clerical and Gramin Banks Officer scale jobs
IBPS PO (CWE) Gramin Banks Latest Selection Procedures2012|Aptitude Reasoning, Data Interpretation computer Knowledge and General Awareness Questions
IBPS Previous Years question papers with answers Detailed Test Analysis|IBPS

 

IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Eamination  Detailed Analysis

The CWE was conducted by the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS).About 14 lakh candidates had applied for this exam .The examination was conducted in two slots,


Morning slot from 9.30am to 1pm
Evening slot from 2.30pm to 6pm.


The duration of the objective paper was 150 minutes and this was immediately followed by a Descriptive Test of 1 hour duration.
To understand the IBPS Bank PO CWE paper better, we provide you with a detailed analysis below.



IBPS Written Test  from which the questions were asked in the exam were,
Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, General Awareness, Computer Awareness and English Language.
There were 50 questions, all objective type, from each of these 5 test areas.


IBPS Bank PO CWE -Detaled Analysis of the Objective Test :


(1) Quantitative Aptitude
The type of questions in this section were on lines similar to the questions that have appeared in the different Bank PO exams earlier.The two question types which did not appear in this paper, as compared to the earlier Bank PO exams, are (a) column-wise comparisons of roots of a quadratic and (b) Data sufficiency.


There were 10 questions based on simplification and approximation. At a glance these questions appeared to be easy and every one would have started solving these first. But when students got down to solving them they would have found them to be lengthy and time consuming. A good student would have attempted 6 to 7 questions in 10 minutes.


There were 5 questions on series. The questions involved finding the wrong number in the given sequence. The students who were aware of this question type, would have solved them comfortably.
3 to 4 correct attempts in 5 minutes is considered to be good.


Coming to the individual questions, there were 10 questions, from various topics like Simple Equations, Ratio, Percentages, Simple Interest-Compound Interest and Averages. The questions were aimed at testing basic conceptual knowledge.


Data Interpretation, there were 4 sets of 5 questions each. Two sets were based on the data given in tabular form, one set on pie chart and one set on Bar graph. Of these the set on Bar graph was very easy. All the five questions on Bar graph were direct and simple without any lengthy calculations. The students who had practiced the basic question types that appear in DI , concepts of percentages and speed maths techniques would have had an added advantage. An attempt of 2 to 3 sets in 15 minutes is considered good.


The following table gives the topic wise break up of the questions asked in this section.

(2)IBPS Bank PO CWE anlysis of English Language

The Verbal Ability section presented some questions different from what have been seen so far in Bank PO exams.


The section had a total of 50 questions in 6 types, with a total of 25 marks. There were:

Five Para-completion questions (Verbal Reasoning). These were questions where a paragraph was presented with a blank in place of a sentence that had been removed. From the choices given, and keeping in mind the context of the paragraph, the candidate had to pick the sentence best suited to the blank.


Five Sentence equivalence questions (Vocabulary usage). These were questions where a sentence was presented with a blank in place of a word that had been removed. From the choices given, and keeping in mind the context of the sentence, the candidate had to pick 2 words either of which would fit to the blank.

Five questions on synonymous words/phrases (Vocabulary). These were questions where a given word was followed by choices that present words/phrases. From the choices the candidate had to pick all those that were synonymous with the headword. These 3 question types have not appeared in earlier Bank PO exams.
.

Five Para-formation questions (jumbled paragraph),of 7 sentences each. In earlier exams, such questions had upto 6 sentences.

15 questions on Cloze test (a paragraph with blanks to be filled). In earlier exams, cloze test presented upto 10 questions.

15 Reading Comprehension questions (7+8) based on 2 passages.In earlier exams, a passage had upto 15 questions, including 6 vocabulary-based questions. This time, though the passages were of the size previously seen, about 600-700 words, each had 7 to 8 questions, including 2 vocabulary-based questions in each of the passages. The passages were on economic and developmental
aspects, presented a lot of detail, and required careful reading.
While the vocabulary-based questions were moderately difficult, overall, the section was difficult. It required a reasonable level of familiarity with English - the sort of familiarity that comes with regular reading. Clearly, the candidates who had been reading extensively, apart from practice in specific areas, would have been able to perform well.
An attempt of 30-32 questions, with not more than two or three wrong, is a good score.


(3)IBPS Bank PO CWE  Reasoning
The topic wise break up of the questions is given below.

 

(4)IBPS Bank Po CWE - Computer Knowledge


The overall difficulty level of Computer knowledge section was moderate. All the questions asked in this section in the exam conducted in both the slots, were purely based on the fundamentals of topics like Archtecture , Operating Systems, DBMS,Networks,E commerce and MS Office.A student with a good knowledge of the fundamentals would have scored well. An attempt of 35-40 questions, with not more than 3-4 wrong, is a good score

 

(4) IBPS Bank PO CWE General Awareness

 

The questions that appeared in both the slots were based on a wide range of topics like, banking, economy, current affairs - national & international and a few questions on sports and literature.banking dominated with 17 questions coming from it. Out of these 17 questions , five questions were easy(Who is the largest shareholder of nationalized banks) and 8 questions were of moderate difficulty level.(questions based on fixed & recurring deposits etc..) The remaining 4 questions on core banking, and cross selling by banks etc, were difficult.
There were 10 questions related to economy
Out of the 50 questions, there were 16 questions related to banking. Out of these 16 questions, six were easy. (question on "interest rate on FDs higher/lower than normal savings accounts, etc.). Of the rest , seven were found to be of moderated difficulty level (questions on KYC norms, & NPAs etc.)The remaining four were difficult (questions on NEFT, and inter bank transfer codes for NEFT etc).
From topics related to economy, there were 10 questions, five of which were easy.(question on Microfinance originator etc.).Among the rest, three were of moderate difficulty level(question on Capital markets, inflation & Price rise etc.).The balance two questions were difficult. (one question on self-help groups, and another one on ASBA (Applications Supported by Block Amounts),a stock /share issue concept).
Under current affairs-national topics, there were six questions out of which three were easy.(question based on West Bengal CM's predecessor, CM of which state resigned in illegal
mining case etc.) and remaining three questions were of moderate difficulty level.(questions on location of copper mines in India, SFIO is under the ministry of --- etc.).
Under current affairs -international issues, there were 10 questions. Five of these were easy. (question on which country's credit rating is down graded from AAA to AA+, attracting world-wide attention etc. ) and the remaining five were of moderate difficulty level(Name of South Sudan's president etc.).
There were four questions on sports, three of which were relatively easy. (Michael Helps plays which sport etc and one question was difficult (Virdhawal Vikram hade, qualified for which sport for 2014 London olympics)
An attempt of 32 - 35 questions, with not more than one or two wrong, in about 20 minutes is a good score.
IBPS Bank PO (CWE)Detaled Analysis of the Descriptive Test :

The Descriptive Writing section did not present any surprises.This test was for 50 marks ( to be scaled to 25). The tasks that were asked are as follows.


Letter Writing:


The students were asked to write a letter of 150 words , from the given three choices. Two of these were formal letters and one was an informal letter. Marks alloted for this task was 15.
Essay Writing:


An essay of 250 words , from the three given choices.The topics were on social and economic aspects.Marks alloted for this task was 20.


Precis Writing:
A precis in 130 words of a passage of about 300 words. 15 marks was alloted for this task.
Those who had spent some time on regular practice would have been able to perform well in this section.

IBPS Bank PO CWE Reasoning ,Quantitative Aptitude,General awareness and Computer Questions

IBPS Bank PO CWE Reasoning Questions


Directions (questions 1 to 5): Read the following information and answer the questions given below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.

1. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d) 

2. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

3.  Who is at the extreme right?
(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

5.  What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b) 

7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ’4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4′s and 6′s together are there?

5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.
9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)

12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)

13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)

14.  Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)

15.  Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e) 

16.  If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(d) ADAMRAN
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park

17.  If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d) 

18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.
21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
Ans (c) There is no alphabet ‘S’ in the question

22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these 
Ans (d)

23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d) 

24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

25.  ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

Directions (questions 1 to 5):Read the following information and answer the questions given below.

(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.

1. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d) 

2. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

3.  Who is at the extreme right?
(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

5.  What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)

7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ‘4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4’s and 6’s together are there?
5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.

9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)

12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)

13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)

14.  Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)

15.  Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e) 

16.  If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(d) ADAMRAN
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park

17.  If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d) 

18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b) 

19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.

21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
Ans (c) There is no alphabet ˜S in the question

22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these 
Ans (d)

23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d) 

24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

25.  ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

At the start of game, A and B between them had four times as much money as C while B & C together had three times as much as A. At the end, A & B between them had three times as much as C, while B & C together had twice as much as A. B finished Rs. 200 poorer at the end. A, B, C are the only players.
1. What fraction of the total money did C have at the beginning of the game ?
(a) 1/3 
(b) 1/8
(c) 2/9
(d) 1/5

2. What fraction of the total money did A win (or lose)?
(a) won 1/12
(b) lost 1/6
(c) lost 1/3
(d) won 1/5

3. What amount did B start with ?
(a) Rs. 575
(b) Rs. 375
(c) Rs. 825
(d) Rs. 275

4. What amount did C win (lose)?
(a) lost Rs. 50
(b) won Rs. 75
(c) lost Rs. 125
(d) won Rs. 175

5. How much money did A have at the end of the game?
(a) Rs. 375
(b) Rs. 500
(c) Rs. 325
(d) Rs. 1100


IBPS Bank PO CWE Quantitative Aptitude Questions

1 A sum of money doubles itself in four years at compound interest in scheme 1. The same sum doubles itself in six years at simple interest in scheme 2. What is the ratio of the respective number of years required in scheme  1 and scheme 2 for a sum to become eight times itself ?
a) 2: 7 b) 2 : 3  c) 1 : 3  d) 1 : 4  e) none of  these Ans 2:7

 

2. Tap T1 can fill an empty tank in 9 hours. Two emptying taps , tap T2 and T3 can empty it in 18 hours and 27 hours respectively, if they are fitted at the bottom of the tank. But tap T2 is fitted at 1/3rd of the height of the tank and Tap T3 is fitted at 2/3rd of the height of the tank. In how much time will the tank be filled, if all the three taps are opened simultaneously when the tank is empty?
a) 27 hours b) 26 2/3 hours  c) 251/2 hours d) 24 hours e) none of these

 

Till the level reaches 1/3rd of the tank, neitherof the emptying taps will function.
So,the filling tap will take 9 x 1/3 = 3 hours to fill 1/3rd of the tank
From here till 2/3rd of the height is reached, tap T1 and tap T2 are  functional.
1/3 x 1(1/9-1/18)  = 6 hours
The last 1/3rd of the tank, all the three taps will function they will fill tank in
1/3 * (1/(1/9-1/18– 1/27) = 18 hours
           So, a total of ( 3+ 6 + 18) = 27 hours. Choice (1)


3 Two men starting from the same place walk at the rate of 5 kmph and 5.5 kmph respectively. What time will they take to be 8.5 km apart, if they walk in the same direction ?
a) 4 hrs 15 min b)8 hrs 30 min  c)17hrs e) none of these Ans 17 hrs

 

4 The calendar for the year 2005 is the same as for the year
a) 2010 b)2011  c) 2012 d)2013  e) none of these Ans 2012

 

5.A printer numbers the pages of a book starting with 1 and uses 3189 digits in all. How many pages does the book have ?
a) 1000 b)1074  c) 1075 d)1080  E) 1084 Ans 1074

 

6  In a garden, there are 10 columns and 12 rows of mango trees. The distance between the two trees is 2 metres and a distance of 1 metre is left from all sides of the boundary of the garden. The width of the garden is :
a) 20m b) 22m  c) 24m  d) 26m  e) 29m Ans 22 m

 

7In a certain railway network there are 25 railway stations. Earlier the tickets issued contained only the destination station’s name. Now the officials want to print tickets with both starting and destination station’s names on them. How many more kinds of tickets than in previous method are to be printed in the new method?
a. 50 b. 250 c. 575 d. 600 e) None of these Answer: Option (c)

 

8 A and B throw dice, one after the other, until one of them throws a 5 and the person who throws a 5 first wins the game. If A begins the game, then the probability that B wins the game is ..
a. 5/11 b. ½ c. 7/11 d. 6/11  e) None of these Answer: Option (a)

 

IBPS Bank PO CWE Data Interpretation Questions

 

41.   Of every dollar received by the federal government, how much (in cents) is from coporate sources?

      1.  32
      2.  70
      3.  30
      4.  35
      5.  29 Answer : 1
42.   what percentage of the federal revenue is derived from borrowings?

      1.  0.2%
      2.  0.02%
      3.  2.7%
      4.  1.2%
      5.  2.5% Answer : 3

 

IBPS Bank PO CWE computer Awareness


1. Which among the following is a device , that is used in computers to add external components?
(A)Storage Device such as USB
(B)Keyboard
(C)Ports / System Boards
(D)RAM
Answer ©

 

2. The term Round-trip delay time, used in telecommunication is replaced in computers with which among the following?
(A)Access time
(B)Response time
(C)Entrance time
(D)Ping Time
Answer(d)

 

3. The terms “push and pull services” in context with the Banking are used in which among the following generally?
(A)Rural Banking
(B)Unit Banking
(C)Online Banking
(D)Mobile Banking
Answer(d)

4. Consider the following in context with the CVV or Card security code of an ATM or Credit Card:
1.Magnetic Stripe
2.Front of the in embossed or printed digits
3.Back of the card as a separate group of 3 digits to the right of the signature strip
At which among the above locations CVV or Card Security Code of an ATM is found?
(A)1 & 2
(B)2 & 3
(C)1 & 3
Ans C


(D)1, 2 & 3 Answer

6. What do we call the process of collecting, organizing, storing and otherwise maintaining a complete historical record of programs and other documents used or prepared during the different phases of the system?
(A)Segmentation
(B)Documentation
(C)Data Management
(D)Data History
Answer(B)

 

7. Which among the following is an example of “Card not present transaction” in context with the Credit / Debit Cards?
(A)A person paying a restaurant bill by giving details of his credit card
(B)A person making an online purchase using his / her credit card
(C)A person making a purchase using mobile banking
(D)Both 2 & 3
Answer(d)

 

8. Consider the following:
1. Application software
2. Hardware
3. Operating systems
The PDF documents are dependent upon which among the above to display the text, fonts, graphics, and other information contained by them?
(A)Only 1
(B)1 & 2
(C)1, 2 & 3
(D)None of them
Answer(d)

 

9. As a person working in internet banking environment, why you should be aware of the “Dictionary attack”?
(A)It is used to inject worms or viruses in the system
(B)It is used to determine a password
(C)It is used to access customer’s account by determining other details
(D)It is used for stealing info from the Credit Card
Answer(b)

 

10. Consider the following:
1. Software
2. Hardware
3. Internet Programs
The terms Bug and Debugging are generally used in which among the above?
(A)1 & 2
(B)2 & 3
(C)1 & 3
(D)1, 2 & 3
Answer(D)

11. What is ISO 9362 is related to in context with Banking Technology?
(A)RTGS Transfers
(B)NEFT Transfers
(C)SWIFT Transfers
(D)All of them
Answer©

12. The Clearing House Interbank Payments System or CHIPS is a clearing system for large value transactions in which among the following countries / regions?
(A)United States
(B)United Kingdom
(C)Entire Europe
(D)Australia
Answer(A)

 

13. The terms Goodput , Throughput and Maximum throughput are most closely associated with which among the following in computers?
(A)Bit Rate
(B)Response Time
(C)Command Line Interface
(D)Random memory
Answer(A)

 

14. Which among the following is the time period during which a computer is malfunctioning or not operating correctly due to machine failures?
(A)Downtime
(B)Uptime
(C)Response time
(D)Runtime
Answer(A)

15. What would be the number of bytes, transferred at the rate of 1 Kilobit per second?
(A)100
(B)108
(C)125
(D)140
Answer©

 

16. Which public sector bank was the banking partner in Commonwealth Games 2010?
(a) Central Bank of India       
(b) State Bank of India   
(c) Bank of Baroda            
(d) None of these
Answer-(a)

17 A group of attribute/field in a database is known as a______.
a) Record -ans
b) File  
c) Database  
d) Entry  
e) None

 

18 Which layer of OSI model, firstly make use of unit of data called “Packet”?
a) Datalink Layer
b) Transport Layer
c) Network Layer-ans
d) Presentation Layer
e) None

19 Which layer of OSI model, firstly make use of unit of data called “Packet”?
a) Datalink Layer
b) Transport Layer
c) Network Layer-ans
d) Presentation Layer
e) None

20 A computer programmer
a) can draw only flowchart
b) can enter data quickly
c) does all the thinking for a computer-ans
d) can operate all type of computer equipment
e) None

 

21 A Trojan horse is
a) An ad ware program
b) A virus disguised as a useful program.-ans
c) A program that blows up every time you use it
d) A spy ware which steal information over internet
e) None

22 A goal of data mining includes which of the following?
a) To confirm that data exists
b) To create a new data warehouse
c) To analyze data for expected relationships-ans
d) To explain some observed event or condition
e) None of the above

 

23 A goal of data mining includes which of the following?
a) To confirm that data exists
b) To create a new data warehouse
c) To analyze data for expected relationships
d) To explain some observed event or condition
e) None of the above-ans

 

24 The process of finding errors in software’s source code
a) Debugging -ans
b) Compiling  
c) Testing  
d) Running  
e) None

 

25 The section of CPU which selects, interprets and sees to the execution of program
instructions?
a) ALU  
b) Control Unit -ans
c) Register Unit  
d) Processing Unit  
e) None

IBPS Bank PO CWE General Awareness

1.According to latest World Tourism Organization figures, which country is the   most popular tourist destination with 78.95 million tourist arrivals ?
(1)USA   
(2)France
(3)China   
(4)Spain
(5)Non of these Ans : (2)

 

2.Who is the present President of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) ?

(1)N. Chandrasekaran
(2)B. Muthuraman
(3)Kris Gopalakrishnan 
(4)N.R. Narayana Murty
(5)Non of these Ans : (2)

 

3.Which company has been declared “The 5th Maharatna Company “ ?

(1)NMDC  
(2)CIL
(3)BHEL   
(4)GAIL
(5)MTNL Ans : (2)

 

4.Which tennis player won his 7th straight Monte Carlo Masters title in April 2011 ?

(1)David Ferrer 
(2)Roger Federer
(3)Rafael Nadal  
(4)Novak Djokovic
(5)Non of these Ans : (3)
   
5.Which bank has entered into an agreement with Deutsche Bank to buy its credit  card business in India ?

(1)ICICI Bank  
(2)Axis Bank
(3)Yes Bank   ]
(4)HDFC
(5)Induslnd Bank  Ans : (5)


         
6.Who smashed a world record 15 sixes in a one day international cricket match, in    April 2011 ?

(1)Chris Gayle  
(2)Shane Waston
(3)Virender Sehwag 
(4)Brendon McCullum
(5)Non of these Ans : (2)


         
7.According to the World Tourism Organization figures released in April 2011,  what is India’s rank with regard to the number of tourist arrivals?

(1)35  
(2)47   
(3)52
(4)11  
(5) Non of these          Ans : (2)
         
8.Who is the president Chairman of the Indian Banks Association (IBA)?

(1)M.V. Nair 
(2)Ramnath Pradeep
(3)M.D. Mallya  
(4)K.R. Kamath
(5)Prateep Chaudhari Ans : (3)


         
9.Which programme is aimed at the development of infrastructure service in cities ?

(1)NREGP  
(2)JNNURM
(3)VAMBAY  
(4)PURA
(5)IAY Ans : (2)
         
10.Who is the author of the book ‘Wide Angle’?

1)Richard Hadlee 
(2)Adam Gilchrist
(3)Anil Kumble 
(4)Shane Warne
(5)Imran Khan Ans : (3)


         

11.The 2012 ICC is World Twenty20 cricket championship is to be held in which of the following countries ?

(1)India   
(2)West Indies
(3)Bangladesh  
(4)Sri Lanka
(5)England Ans : (4)



12.Which of the following books was written by Margaret Atwood, the Booker    prizewinner?

(1)The Sea of Poppies  
(2)Shame
(3)The Blind Assassin
(4)Shalimar, the Clown
(5)An Area  of Darkness Ans : (3)

         
13.Who is the chairman of the Nalanda Mentor Group, that is related to the following Nalanda University?

(1)M.S. Swaminathan 
(2)Amartya sen
(3)Prof. Yash Pal 
(4)V. Ramakrishnan
(5)V. Radhakrishnan  Ans : (2)


         
14.Who is called “The Father of White Revolution” in India?

(1)M.S. Swaminathan 
(2)V.S. Ramachandran
(3)Amruta Patel  
(4)Medha Patkar
(5 Ans : (5)                                                                                                                                                                

15.India is yet to sign a civil nuclear agreement with which of the following  countries ?

(1)USA   
(2)Russia
(3)France   
(4)Mongolia
(5)South Korea Ans : (5)

 

16.The Justice B.K. Somasekhara Commission  of Inquiry is related to which of the  following states ?

(1)Orissa   
(2)Karnataka
(3)Assam   
(4)Maharashtra
(5)Andhra Pradesh  Ans : (2)
         
17.Which of the following prizes/awards is given for progress in regulation ?

(1)Kalinga Prize  
(2)Prizker Prize
(3)Templeton Prize 
(4)Magsaysay Award
(5)Non of these Ans : (3)
         

18.Identify the mismatched pair
BOOK                                 AUTHOR
1.The Catcher in the Rye J.D Salinger
2.If God was a Banker Ravi Subramanian
3.The Eighth Ring                 K.M. Mathew
4.Asian Drama                Amartya Sen
5.Dreams From My Father: A Story of Race and InheritanceBarack Obama Ans : (4)
19.April 24 is celebration in India as

 

(1)National Public Sector Day
(2)National Panchayat Raj Day
(3)National Statistics Day 
(4)National Sports Day
(5)Non of these Ans : (2)
         
20.Which of the following companies manufacture Blackberry smartphones?

(1)Samsung  
(2)Motorola
(3)Onida   
(4)Nokia
(5)Non of these Ans : (5)

 

 

Complete preparation kit for Bank P O and Common Written Examination

 

feedback