HPSC General-Awareness

                     HPSC Sample papers

1. The Directive Principles of State Policy as embodied in Chapter IV of the Constitution were derived by us from:-
a. The Constitution of Ireland
b. The Constitution of U.S.S.R.
c. The Constitution of Switzerland
d. The Gandhian Constitution for Free India

2. State which of the following statements is correct:
a. Preamble is not part of the Constitution
b. Preamble is part of the Constitution and relates to its basic structure.
c. Preamble is not part of the Constitution but a sort of introduction to the Constitution.
d. Preamble is like a prologue to the Constitution

3. State which of the following statements is correct:-
a. The American doctrine of waiver of fundamental rights is part of the Indian Constitution. .
b. No person can waive his fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution as they are sacrosanct and no individual can tinker with them.
c. A non-citizen can waive his fundamental rights.
d. A citizen can waive his fundamental rights which are for his individual benefit.

4. The right to equality means that no person is above law. To this rule, certain exceptions are recognized. State which of the following come under the exception:
a. President of India
b. Ambassador of USA.
c..Judges of the High Courts.
d. All the above

5. Which one of the following writs can be issued only against the judicial or quasi-judicial authorities?
a. Mandamus
b. Habeas Corpus
c. Certiorari
d. Quo Warranto

6. State which of the following statements is incorrect:
a. A writ can be issued against the High Court.
b. Government of India and State Governments.
c. Any authority under the power and control of the Government of India.
d. Parliament or a State Legislature.

7. The Directive Principles are:-
a. justiciable the same way as the fundamental rights.
b. justiciable though not the same way as the fundamental rights.
c. decorative portions of the Indian Constitution.
d. not justiciable, yet fundamental in the governance of the country

8.Which coin out of the following has been withdrawn by RBI in 2011:
a. 20Paisa
b. 10 paisa
c. 25Paisa
d. 5 paisa

9. The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister in the Council of Minister should not exceed:-
a. 20%of the total number of members of Lok Sabha.
b. 15%of the total number of members of Lok Sabha.
c. 20%of the total number of members of Rajya Sabha.
d. 15%of the total number of members of both the Houses.

10. Whohas been conferred with Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in the year 2011.
a. Abhinav Bindra
b. Gagan Narang
c. Kapil Dev
d. Sachin Tendulkar

11. Vast powers and functions vested in the Indian President make him:
a. Almosta dictator
b.A benevolent ruler
c. Real head of the Government
d.A nominal Constitution Head

12. Only that person can be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court who is a citizen of Indiaand:
a. judge of the High Court for at least five years.
b. advocate of the Supreme Court for at least 10 years’ standing.
c. judge of the High Court for at least ten years.
d. advocate of the High Court for at least fifteen years.

13. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the State Government:-
a. Cannot legislate.
b. Can legislate only on subjects in the Concurrent List.
c. Can legislate on the subject in the State List.
d. Is suspended.

14. ‘What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly’. This statement epitomises the doctrine of:-
a. Pith and substance.
b. Implied powers.
c. Ancillary powers
d. Colourable legislation.

15. Residuary powers are vested in:
a. executive
b. judiciary
c. parliament
d. state legislatures

16. Who said that the Supreme Court in India has the highest powers which no other court in the world possess?
a. Mahatma Gandhi
b. Jawahar Lal Nehru
c. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
d. Alladi Krishna Swamy Iyyer

17. The Constitution of India is:-
a. Highly federal
c. Neither federal nor unitary
b. Highly unitary
d. Partly federal and partly unitary

18. Who amongst the following is not a ‘public officer’ within the meaning of Section 2 (17) of CPC.
a. a Judge
b. a person in service under the pay of Government
c. sarpanch of a Gram Panchayat
d. all of the above

19. Give response to the statement Equality before law under Article 14 of the Constitution is with reference to
a. laws enacted by legislature
b. orders passed by the executive
c. notifications issued by the Government only
d. laws enacted by legislature, executive order etc.

20. A change of nature of obligation of a contract is known as
a. repudiation
b. rescission
c. alteration
d. none of the above

21.1ndira Swahney V. Union of India is a case popularly known as:
a. Ayodhya judgment
b. Mandai judgment
c. Suicide judgment
d. Election Commission judgment

22.The Advisory opinion tendered by the Supreme Court:
a. is binding on the President
b. is not binding on the President
c. is binding on the President only if it is unanimously made
d. is not made public at all

23.Among the following States, which one sends the highest number of members to Lok Sabha?
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Bihar
c. Kamataka
d. Madhya Pradesh

24. A contract, which is formed without the free consent of the parties, is
a. void ab initio
b. void
c. illegal
d. void ableat the instance of the party whose consent was not free.

25. Which of the following legal pleas need not be pleaded
a. estoppel
b. limitation
c. res-judicata
d. none of the above

26. At present the Vice President of India is:-
a. Meera Kumari
b. Bhairon SinghShekhawat
c. Dr.KaranSingh
d. A.H.Ansari

27. Thesmallestmilitary outfit is called a
a. Division
b. Brigade
c. Section
d. Platoon

28. India’s largest and most sophisticated indigenously built warship which was commissioned in 1994-95 is:
a. INS Delhi
b. INS Mysore
c. INS Satpura
d. INS Kulish

29. The Battle of Longewala took place in the year:
a. 1965
b. 1967
c. 1969
d. 1971

30. The National Anthem was first sung at this session of the Indian National Congress in 1911:-
a. Pune
b. Calcutta
c. Lucknow
d. Ahmedabad

31. Goodwill of a partnership business is the property of the partnership
a. under Section14
b.under Section13
c. under Section12
d. underSection11

32. The State with the highest population density in India is:
a. Uttar Pradesh
b. West Bengal
c. Gujarat
d. Maharashtra

33.The Indian State with the highest female sex ratio is:
a. Punjab
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Maharashtra
d. Kerata

34. Thefirst recipient of the Bharat Ratna after it was revived in 1980was:
a. Acharya Vinoba Bhave
b. Mother Teresa
c. M.G.Ramachandran
d. V.V.Giri

35. Compulsory dissolution of a firm has been provided under
a. Section 39 of the Act
b. Section 41 of the Act
c. Section 40 of the Act
d. Section 44 of the Act

36. An act done by a partner on behalf of the firm beyond the implied authority
a. can be ratified expressly
b. can be ratified impliedly by conduct
c. either (a) or (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)

37. After dismissal of a complaint under Section 203, a fresh similar complaint on the same facts
a. is banned
b. is not banned but will be entertained only in exceptional circumstances
c. is not banned and will be entertained in all circumstances
d. either (a) or (c)

38. A new person can be introduced into a firm as a partner under Section 31 of the Act by
a. unanimous consent of all the partners
b. majority consent amongst the partners
c. with the consent of the managing partner
d. none of the above

39. Complaint may relate to:
a. a cognizable offence
b. a non cognizable offence
c. both (a) & (b) are correct
d. must be for a non-cognizable offence as the police has no power to investigate such an offence.

40. If the, person who is competent to compound offence is dead, thecompounding
a. cannot be done
b. can be done by the legal representative of the deceased without the permission of the court
c. can be done by the legal representative of the deceased only with the permission of the court.
d. both (b) & (c)

41. In a bailable offence:
a. conditions can be imposed while granting bail by the police officer
b.conditions can be imposed while granting bail by the court
c. no condition can be imposed while granting bail by the police officer or by the court
d. only mild conditions can be imposed by the court only

42. In case where an inquiry, trial or other proceedings have been conducted in a wrong place:
a. the inquiry, trial or other proceedings shall be void ab initio
b. the inquiry, trial or other proceedings cannot be set aside as void unless it has occasioned in failure of justice
c. the inquiry, trial or other proceedings, cannot be set aside even if it has occasioned in failure of justice
d. either (a) or (c)

43. In computing the period of limitation the time during which
a. the accused avoided arrest by absconding has to be excluded
b. the accused remained absent from India has to be excluded
c. both (a) & (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)

44. Irregularities which do not vitiate trial have been stated in
a. Section 460 of Cr.P.C
b. Section 461 of Cr.P.C
c. Section 462 of Cr.P.C
d. Section 466 of Cr.P.C

45. Objection as to the lack of territorial jurisdiction of the criminal court:
a. can be taken before or at the time of commencement of trial
b. can be taken at any time after the commencement of trial
c. can be taken in appeal for the first time
d. all the above.

46. power to recall any witness(es) under Section 311 of Cr.P.C. can be exercised:
a. even after the evidence of both the sides is closed
b. after the evidence of the prosecution is closed, but before the evidence of defence is closed
c. before the evidence of the prosecution is closed, if the witness is to be calledon the motion of the prosecution
d. after the evidence of the prosecution is closed if the witness is called on themotion of the defence

47. Words ‘competent jurisdiction’ under Section 39 of CPC refers to
a. pecuniary jurisdiction of transferee court
b. territorial jurisdiction of the transferee court
c. pecuniary and territorial jurisdiction of the transferee court
d. none of the above

48. Section 428 Cr.P.C provides for concession to the effect that period of detention undergone by accused be set off
a. against the substantive periodof imprisonment awarded;
b. against the periodof imprisonment in default of payment offine.
c. (a) & (b) above. .
d. none of the above.

49. Under Section 167 of Cr.P.C, the Magistrate can authorise detention for a total period of 90 days during investigation, in cases of offences punishable
a. with death
b.with imprisonment for life
c. with imprisonment for a term not less than 10 years
d. all the above

50. Under Section 216 of Cr.P.C, the Court has the power to:
a. add to the charge(s) already framed
b. alter the charge(s) already framed
c. neither to alter nor to add to the charge already framed
d. add to and alter the charge both

51. Under Order VI, Rule 17 of CPC, an application for amendment of pleadingscan be allowed .
a. before the commencement of trial
b. after the commencement of trial
c. either before or after the commencement of trial
d. none of the above

52. Under .Section 315 of Cr.PC
a. an accused cannot be a witness
b. an accused can be compelled to give his own evidence generally
c. an accused can be called as a witness only on his own request in writing
d. either (a) or (b)

53. Under Section 439 of Cr.PC, the jurisdiction to cancel the bail vests with:
a. The Court of Sessions
b. The High Court
c. The Court of Magistrate
d. Only(a) &(b)

54. With reference to Crime response the following:
a. it is a state wrong
b. it is a civilwrong
c. it is a private wrong
d. none of the above

55. Actus reus includes:
a. positive (intentional doing) as well as negative (intentional non-doing. ie.omission) acts.
b. only positive acts.
c. external (bodily) as well as internal (mind) acts
d. both (a) and (c)

56. Section 34 of IPC
a. creates a substantive offence
b. is a rule of evidence
c. both (a) and (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)

57. Preparation and attempt are two stages of commission of crime. Preparation isnot punishable generally but attempt is. One basic reason as to why preparation is not punishable is that there:
a. is no nexus between preparation and attempt.
b. can be chances of change of mind before commission of offence
c. is absence of intention.
d. is absence of attempt.

58. Illegal signifies:
a. everything which is an offence
b. everything which is prohibited by law
c. everything which furnishes ground for civil action
d. all the above

59. How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code:
a. three
b. six
c. five
d. four

60. Second appeal under Section 100 of CPC lies
a. on question off acts
b. on substantial questions of law
c. on mixed question of law & fact
d. none ofthe above