GATE civil engineering
GATE-2013 Civil engineering questions with answers,GATE 2013 solved question papers.GATE-2013 model questions for practice.
1. The magnitude of the bending moment at the fixed support of the beam is equal to :
(a) P.a
(b) P. a - Answer
2
(c) P.b
(d) P.(a+b)
2. The number of simultaneous equations to be solved in the slope deflection method, is equal to :
(a) the degree of statical indeterminacy
(b) the degree of kinematic indeterminacy
(c) the number of joints in the structure
(d) none of the above
3. The influence line diagram for the force in member 'a' of the truss shown below is given by 
Answer - (A)
4. The forces in members 'a, b, c' in the truss shown are, respectively
(a) P, P/2, 0 - Ans
(b) P/2, P, 0
(c) P, P, P
(d) P/2, P/2, 0
5. Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the flexibility method of analysis ? 
(a) The method is used to analyse determinate structures
(b) The method is used only for manual analysis of indeterminate structures
(c) The method is used for analysis of flexible structures
(d) The method is used for analysis of indeterminate structures with lesser degree of static indeterminacy. - Ans
6. A single bay single storey portal frame has hinged left support and a fixed right support. It is loaded with uniformly distributed load on the beam. Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the deformation of the frame ?
(a) It would sway to the left side - Ans
(b) It would sway to the right side
(c) It would not sway at all
(d) None of the above
7. The material that exhibits the same elastic properties in all the directions at a point, is said to be
(a) homogeneous
(b) Orthotropic
(c) Visco-elastic
(d) Isotropic - Ans
8. If the shear force at a section of beam under bending is equal to zero then the bending moment at the section is
(a) zero
(b) maximum - Ans
(c) minimum
(d) minimum or maximum
9. The net effective cross sectional area calculated in the steel angle tension member design, accounts for :
(a) the tensile force and bolt holes - Ans
(b) the eccentricity of the end connections and the bolt holes
(c) the effectiveness of the tack connection along the length
(d) the effectiveness of the end connection
10. The maximum allowable compressive stress corresponding to lateral buckling in a discretely laterally supported symmetrical I beam does not depend upon :
(a) the modulus of elasticity - Ans
(b) the radium of gyration about the minor axis
(c) the span length of the beam
(d) the ratio of overall depth of thickness of the flange
11. The basic assumption of plane sections normal to the neutral axis before bending, remaining plane and normal to the neutral axis after bending, leads to :
(a) uniform strain over the beam cross section - Ans
(b) uniform stress over the cross section
(c) linearly stress over the cross section
(d) stresses which are proportional to strains at all cross sections
12. As per IS:800 -1984 the minimum pitch of rivets in a row is recommended as the diameter of the rivet times.
(a) 2.0
(b) 2.5- Ans
(c) 3.0
(d) 4.0
13. As per IS:800-1984 the maximum allowable slenderness ratio of compression members carrying forces resulting from dead load and superimposed load is
(a) 180- Ans
(b) 250
(c) 300
(d) 400
14. Which one of the following conditions, both elastic and plastic methods of analysis of indeterminate structures have to satisfy ?
(a) yield condition
(b) mechanism condition
(c) equilibrium
(d) compatibility of deformation - Ans
15. The span to depth ratio limit is specified in IS : 456 - 1978 for the reinforced concrete beams, in order to ensure that the
(a) tensile crack width is below a limit
(b) shear failure is avoided
(c) stress in the tension reinforcement is less than the allowable value
(d) deflection of the beam is below a limiting value - Ans
16. The lateral ties in a reinforced concrete rectangular column under axial compression are used to :
(a) avoid the buckling of the longitudinal steel under compression.- Ans
(b) Provide adequate shear capacity
(c) Provide adequate confinement to concrete.
(d) reduce the axial deformation of the column
17. Which one of the following set of values give the minimum clear cover (in mm) for the main reinforcements in the slab, beam, column and footing, respectively, according to IS: 456-1978
(a) 20, 25, 30, 75
(b) 5, 15, 25, 50
(c) 15, 25, 40, 75 - Ans
(d) none of the above
18. In a reinforced concrete beam-column, the increase in the flexural strength along with the increase in the axial strength occurs
(a) beyond the elastic limit of the material
(b) when the yield of the tension reinforcement governs the strength - Ans
(c) when the crushing of the concrete in the compression zone governs the strength
(d) never
19. The modulus of rupture of concrete gives
(a) the direct tensile strength of the concrete
(b) the direct compressive strength of the concrete
(c) the tensile strength of the concrete under bending. - Ans
(d) the characteristic strength of the concrete
20. The effective width of a reinforced concrete T beam flange under compression, according to IS:456-1978, given Io is the distance between the adjacent zero moment points, b is the breadth of the rib and D is the thickness of the flange, is
(a) Io + B + 6D - Ans
6
(b) Io + 6D
(c) Io + 6D
6
(d) Io + b
6
21. A soil having particles of nearly the same size is known as
(a) well graded
(b) uniformly graded - Ans
(c) poorly graded
(d) gap graded
22. The consistency of a saturated cohesive soil is affected by
(a) water content - Ans
(b) particle size distribution
(c) density index
(d) coefficient of permeability
23. The unconfined compressive strength of a 'stiff clay' falls in the range
(a) less than 50 kN/m2 - Ans
(b) 50 to 100 kN/m2
(c) 100 to 200 kN/m2
(d) above 200 kN/m2
24. The unit weight of a soil at zero air voids depends on :
(a) specific gravity
(b) water content
(c) unit weight of water
(d) all the above - Ans
25. The appropriate field test to determine the insitu undrained shear strength of soft clay is :
(a) plate load test
(b) static cone penetration test
(c) standard penetration test
(d) vane shear test - Ans
26. State whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE
(1) The measure of soil compaction is its wet density
Ans : False
(2) The void ratio of soil can exceed unity
Ans : True
(3) Between bearing capacity and settlement, the proportioning of a footing in sand is more often governed by settlement.
Ans : False
(4) The bulb of pressure under a strip footing forms in the direction of its length
Ans : True
(5) Friction poles are also called 'floating piles'.
Ans : False
27. Fill in the blanks :
(1) Soils transportated by wind are known as -----soils
Ans : Transported
(2) The equation of the A-line in the Plasticity Chart is -------
Ans : Ip = 0.73 (wf-20)
(3) The hydraulic head at a point in the soil includes -----
Ans : Piezometric as well as datum head
(4) Use of N-Values not corrected for over-burden pressure leads to ------design of footings at shallow depths.
Ans : False
28. A steady discharge of 1 cumec flows uniformly in a rectangular channel 1 m wide at a depth of 250 mm. The slope of the channel bed is :
(a) adverse - Ans
(b) steep
(c) critical
(d) mild
29. A 1 : 30 model of an ogee spillway crest records an acceleration of 1.3 m/s2 at a certain location. The homologous value of the acceleration in the prototype in m/s2 , is
(a) 0.043
(b) 0.237
(c) 1.300 - Ans
(d) 7.120
30. The expression for the specific speed of a pump :
(a) does not include the diameter of the impeller
(b) yields larger values for radial pumps than for axial flow pump
(c) is necessarily non dimensional - Ans
(d) includes power as one of the variables
31. A lysimeter is used to measure :
(a) infiltration
(b) evaporation
(c) evapotranspiration - Ans
(d) radiation
32. The dimension of a pressure gradient in a fluid flow are :
(a) ML-1 T2
(b) ML-3 T-2
(c) ML-2 T-2 - Ans
(d) M-1 L-3 T-2
33. Shear stress develops on a fluid element, if :
(a) the fluid is at least
(b) the fluid container is subject to uniform linear acceleration
(c) the fluid is inviscid
(d) the fluid is viscous and the flow is non-uniform - Ans
34. The percentage error in the computed discharge over a triangular notch corresponding to an error of 1% in the measurement of the head over the notch, would be
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.0
(d) 2.5 - Ans
35. In deriving the equation for the hydraulic jump in a rectangular channel in terms of the conjugate depths and the initial Froude number.
(a) continuity equation and energy equation are used.
(b) continuity equation and momentum equation are used
(c) equations of continuity, momentum and energy are used - Ans
(d) gradually varied flow equation is used
36. The peak discharge of the instantaneous unit hydrograph of a basin, when compared to the peak discharge of a 4 hour unit hydrograph of that basin, would be "
(a) greater - Ans
(b) equal
(c) equal or lesser
(d) lesser
37. The temporary hardness of water, is caused by :
(a) dissolved carbon dioxide
(b) bicarbonates and carbonates of calcium and magnesium - Ans
(c) bicarbonates of sodium and potassium
(d) carbonates of calcium and magnesium
38. Breakpoint chlorination of water involves addition of chlorine in an amount sufficient to :
(a) total concentration of a biochemicals
(b) total concentration of organic matter
(c) concentration of biodegradable organic matter - Ans
(d) concentration of chemically oxidisable matter
39. A trickling filter is primarily a :
(a) straining process to remove suspended solids from sewage
(b) biological oxidation process to remove BOD from sewage - Ans
(c) straining process to remove turbidity from water
(c) straining process to remove bacteria from water
40. The ideal form of curve for the summit curve
(a) Spiral
(b) Parabola - Ans
(c) Circle
(d) lemniscate
41. A highway stretches where the required overtaking sight distance cannot be provided, it is necessary to incorporate :
(a) at least twice the stopping sight distance - Ans
(b) half the required overtaking sight distance
(c) one-third the required overtaking sight distance
(d) three times the stopping sight distance
42. In a highway pavements emulsions are mainly used in :
(a) surface dressing
(b) patching and maintenance operation - Ans
(c) bitumen macadam
(d) asphaltic concrete
43. In using the data from a plate bearing test for determining the modulus of subgrade reaction, the value of settlement to be used is :
(a) 1.25 mm - Ans
(b) 2.50 mm
(c) 3.75 mm
(d) 1.75 mm
44. The function of ballast in railway tracks is to
(a) facilitate drainage
(b) serve as an elastic support for the track structure
(c) provide the necessary resilience against the dynamic effect of the loads
(d) all the above - Ans
45. Shear centre for an angle-purlin (figure) is located at,
(a) X
(b) Y
(c) Z
(d) none
46. The deflection of a cantilever beam at free end b applied with a moment M at the same point is :
(a) M I2 /EI
(b) Ml2/2EI - Ans
(c) Ml2 /3 EI
(d) Ml2/ 4 EI
47. The effective length of a circular electric pole of length L and constant diameters erected on ground is,
(a) 0.80 L
(b) 1.20 L
(c) 1.50 L
(d) 2.00 L - Ans
48. In IS : 800(1984) the permissible compressive stress in column is based on :
(a) Euler formula
(b) Secant formula - Ans
(c) Rankine-Gordan formula
(d) Rankine -Merchant formula
49. Generally (fatigue life of welded steel structure/fatigue life of riveted steel structure) ratio is,
(a) smaller than 1 - Ans
(b) equal to 1
(c) greater than 1
(d) greater than 2.1
50. The particle size distribution curves are extremely useful for the classification of
(a) fine grained soils
(b) coarse grained soils
(c) both coarse grained and fine grained soils - Ans
(d) silts and clays
