CTS
CTS
Analytical section
Questions 1-5
1. A guidance counsellor is planning schedules for 30 students. Sixteen students say they want to take French, 16 want to take Spanish, and 11 want to take Latin. Five say they want to take both French and Latin, and of these, 3 wanted to take Spanish as well. Five want only Latin, and 8 want only Spanish. How many students want French only?
Ans: 7 Students
2. A veterinarian surveys 26 of his patrons. He discovers that 14 have dogs, 10 have cats, and 5 have fish. Four have dogs and cats, 3 have dogs and fish, and one has a cat and fish. If no one has all three kinds of pets, how many patrons have none of these pets?
Ans: 5 patrons
3. In a school of 320 students, 85 students are in the band, 200 students are on sports teams, and 60 students participate in both activities. How many students are involved in either band or sports?
Ans: 225 Students
4. In a class of 50 students, 18 take Chorus, 26 take Band, and 2 take both Chorus and Band. How many students in the class are not enrolled in either Chorus or Band?
Ans: 8 Students
5. Twenty-four dogs are in a kennel. Twelve of the dogs are black, six of the dogs have short tails, and fifteen of the dogs have long hair. There is only one dog that is black with a short tail and long hair. Two of the dogs are black with short tails and do not have long hair. Two of the dogs have short tails and long hair but are not black. If all of the dogs in the kennel have at least one of the mentioned characteristics, how many dogs are black with long hair but do not have short tails?
Ans: 3 dogs
Questions 6-10:
6. The ratio of white balls and black balls is 1:2. If 9 gray balls is added it becomes 2:4:3. Then what is number of black balls ?
Ans:12
7. There are 10 coins. 6 coins showing head. And 4 showing tail. Each coin was randomly flipped (not tossed) seven times successively. after flipping the coins are 5 heads 4 tails one is hided the hided coin will have what ?.
Ans :Head
8. Two cars are 500 cm apart. each is moving forward for 100 cm at a velocity of 50 cm/s and receding back for 50 cm at 25cm/s at what time they will collide with each other.
Ans : 14sec
9. A car travels from B at a speed of 20 km/hr. The bus travel starts from A at a time of 6 A.M. There is a bus for every half an hour interval. The car starts at 12 noon. Each bus travels at a speed of 25 km/hr. Distance between A and B is 100 km. During its journey , The number of buses that the car encounter is ?
Ans: 17
10. The ratio of the ages of the father and the son is 5:3, After 10 years it will be in the ratio3:2. What will be their ages?
Ans: 60,40
Directions for Questions 11-15:
Each question given below has a problem and two statements numbered I and II giving certain information. You have to decide if the information given in the statements are sufficient for answering the problem. Indicate your answer as
(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(c) If the data in either in I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(d) If the data even in both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question;
(e) If the data in both the statements together are needed;
11. Among four brothers - Anil, Pawan, Neeraj, and Sahil, who is the heaviest?
I) Anil and Pawan are of the same weight
II) Pawan weighs more than Neeraj, but less than Sahil
Ans: E
12. Who is C's partner in a game of cards involving four players A, B, C and D ?
I) D is sitting opposite to A
II) B is sitting right of A and left of D.
Ans: C
13. What is Gagan's age?
I) Gagan, Vimal and Kunal are all of the same age
II) Total age of Vimal, Kunal and Anil is 32 and Anil is as old as Vimaal and Kunal together.
Ans: E
14. How much amount Ronnie required to pay for the new car in the buy-back scheme?
I) The cost of the new car was three times the cost price of his old car
II) His old car was valued at Rs. 25000 under buy-back scheme
Ans: E
15. In which year was Rahul born?
I) Rahul at present is 25 years younger to his mother
II) Rahul's brother, who was born in 1964, is 35 years younger to his mother.
Ans: E
Directions for Questions 16-20:
Convert the given binary numbers.
16. (100100101011) 2 = ( )8
Ans: (4453) 2
17. (1010111110110010) 2= ( ) 10
Ans: (AFB2) 16
18. (1100 1010 ) 2 =( ) 8
Ans: (202) 10
19. (1010111110110010) 2 =( ) 8
Ans: ( 127662) 8
20. (10011101) 2 =( ) 10
Ans: (157) 10
Directions(21-25):
A painter is given a task to paint a cubical box with six different colours for different faces of the cube. The detailed account of it was given as:
A) Red face should lie between Yellow and Brown faces
B) Green face should be adjacent to the Silver face.
C) Pink face should lie adjacent to the Green Face
D) Yellow face should lie opposite to the Brown one
E) Brown face should face down
F) Silver and Pink faces should lie opposite to each other.
21) The face opposite to Red is
A) Yellow B) Green C) Pink D) silver
Ans: B
22) The upper face is
A) Red B) Pink C) Yellow D) Silver
Ans: C
23. The faces adjacent to Green are
A) Yellow, Pink, Red, Silver B) Brown, Pink, Red, Silver
C) Red, Silver, Yellow, Brown D) Pink, Silver, Yellow, Brown.
Ans: D
24. The face opposite to Silver is
A) Pink B) Brown C) Red D) Green
Ans: A
25. Three of the faces adjacent to Red face are
A) Silver, Green, Brown B) Silver, Brown, Pink C) Silver, Pink, Green D) Yellow, Pink, Green
Ans: B
26. Place the numbers 1 - 12 in the twelve circles below so the sum of each side of the triangle is 36. I will give you a head start by placing some of the numbers for you. (The numbers may be used once only).
Ans: 4
27. Below is a pyramid of numbers where the number on each brick is the sum of two bricks below it. The numbers given will help you fill in the entire pyramid
Ans : 43
28. What is the number of odd days in a leap year ?
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
Ans : B
29. What is the day on 1st January 1901?
A. Monday B. Wednesday
C. Sunday D. Tuesday
Ans : D
30. If GIVE is coded as 5137 and BAT is coded as 924, how is GATE coded?
A. 5427 B. 5724
C. 5247 D. 2547
Ans : C
Verbal section
Directions for Questions 1-5:
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
Work expands so as to fill the time available for its completion. The general recognition of this fact is shown in the proverbial phrase, It is the busiest man who has time to spare. Thus, an elderly lady at leisure can spend the entire day writing a postcard to her niece. An hour will be spent in writing a postcard, another hunting for spectacles, half an hour to search for the address, an hour and a quarter in composition and twenty minutes in deciding whether or not to take an umbrella when goingto the pillar box in the street. The total effort that could occupy a busy man for three minutes, all told may in this fashion leave another person completely exhausted after a day of doubt, anxiety and toil.
1. What happens when the time to be spent on some work increases?
A) the work is done smoothly.
B) the work is done leisurely.
C) work consumes all the time.
D) The work needs additional time.
Ans: C
2. Explain the sentence: Work expands so as to fill the time available for its completion’.
A) The more work there is to be done , the more time needed.
B) whatever time is available for a given amount of work, all of it will be used.
C) If you have more time you can do some work.
D) If you have some important work to do, you should always have some additional time.
Ans: B
3. Who is the person likely to take more time to do work.
A) a busy man.
B) a man of leisure.
C) an elderly person.
D)an exhausted person
Ans: B
4. What is the total time spent by the elderly lady in writing a postcard?
A) Three minutes.
B) four hours and five minutes.
C) half day
D)the entire day.
Ans: D
5. What does the expression ‘pillar box’ stand for?
A) a box attached to the pillar.
B) a box in the pillar
C) box office.
D) a pillar type postbox.
Ans: D
Directions for Questions 6-10:
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
From the 197 million square miles, which make up the surface of the globe, 71 per cent is covered by the interconnecting bodies of marine water; the Pacific Ocean alone covers half the Earth and averages near 14,000 feet in depth. The portions which rise above sea level are the continents-Eurasia, Africa; North America, South America, Australia, and Antarctica. The submerged borders of the continental masses are the continental shelves, beyond which lie the deep-sea basins.
The ocean are deepest not in the center but in some elongated furrows, or long narrow troughs, called deeps. These profound troughs have a peripheral arrangement, notably around the borders of the pacific and Indian oceans. The position of the deeps, like the highest mountains, are of recent origin, since otherwise they would have been filled with waste from the lands. This is further strengthened by the observation that the deeps are quite often, where world-shaking earthquakes occur. To cite an example, the "tidal wave" that in April, 1946, caused widespread destruction along Pacific coasts resulted from a strong earthquake on the floor of the Aleutian Deep.
The topography of the ocean floors is none too well known, since in great areas the available soundings are hundreds or even thousands of miles apart. However, the floor of the Atlantic is becoming fairly well known as a result of special surveys since 1920. A broad, well-defined ridge-the Mid-Atlantic ridge-runs north and south between Africa and the two Americas and numerous other major irregularities diversify the Atlantic floor. Closely spaced soundings show that many parts of the oceanic floors are as rugged as mountainous regions of the continents. Use of the recently perfected method of submarine topography. During world war II great strides were made in mapping submarine surfaces, particularly in many parts of the vast Pacific basin.
Most of the continents stand on an average of 2870 feet above sea level. North America averages 2300 feet; Europe averages only 1150 feet; and Asia, the highest of the larger continental subdivisions, averages 3200 feet. Mount Everest, which is the highest point in the globe, is 29,000 feet above the sea; and as the greatest known depth in the sea is over 35,000 feet, the maximum relief (that is, the difference in altitude between the lowest and highest points) exceeds 64,000 feet, or exceeds 12 miles. The continental masses and the deep-sea basins are relief features of the first order; the deeps, ridges, and volcanic cones that diversify the sea floor, as well as the plains, plateaus, and mountains of the continents, are relief features of the second order. The lands are unendingly subject to a complex of activities summarized in the term erosion, which first sculptures them in great detail and then tends to reduce them ultimately to sea level. The modeling of the landscape by weather, running water, and other agents is apparent to the keenly observant eye and causes thinking people to speculate on what must be the final result of the ceaseless wearing down of the lands. Much before there was any recognizable science as geology, Shakespeare wrote "the revolution of the times makes mountains level."
6. The peripheral furrows or deeps are found
A. only in the pacific and Indian oceans
B. near earthquakes
C. near the shore
D. in the center of the ocean
E. to be 14,000 feet in depth in the pacific.
Ans : C
7. We may conclude from this passage that earth quakes
A. Occur more frequently in newly formed land or sea formations
B. Are caused by the weight of the water
C. Cause erosion
D. Occur in the deeps
E. Will ultimately "make mountains level".
Ans : A
8. The highest mountains are
A. oldest
B. in excess of 12 miles
C. near the deeps
D. relief features of the first order
E. of recent origin.
Ans : E
9. The highest point on North America is
A. 2870 feet above sea level
B. not mentioned in the passage
C. higher than the highest point in Europe
D. 2300 feet above sea level
E. in Mexico.
Ans : B
10. The deeps are subject to change caused by
A. erosion
B. soundings
C. earthquakes
D. waste
E. weathering
Ans : C
Directions for Questions 11-12:
Read each sentence to find if there is any grammatical error in it. If there is any error, it will be only one part of the sentence. The number or alphabet of that part is your answer.(Disregard punctuation errors if any)
11. I never have / visited / or intend to visit / foreign countries /
A B C D
Ans: C
12. The clothes / were neatly / hanged /on the cloth line.
A B C D
Ans:C
Directions for Questions 13-15:
One of the four sentences given in each question is grammatically wrong . Find the incorrect sentence.
13. A) Our followers are but a handful.
B) Neither he nor I was there.
C) Many a glorious deeds were done.
D) Every one of the boys loves to ride.
Ans: C
14. A) She had finished her work when I met her.
B) Do you believe in God?
C) He cut his hand with a knife.
D) He challenged me for a duel.
Ans: D
15. A) Sumit is my elder brother.
B) He is two years younger to me.
C) He is the eldest man of this village.
D) Ravi is five years older than me.
Ans: C
Directions for Questions 16-20:
In each of the following questions, some sentence are given which are on the same theme. decide which sentence is the most preferable with respect to grammar; meaning and usage, suitable for formal writing in English. Find the correct sentence.
16. A) From which train did you come?
B) A series of incidents have taken place.
C) It is a five men committee.
D) This pronunciation is peculiar to Bengalis.
Ans: D
17. A) They have placed order for books.
B) He has applied for lectureship.
C) The river has overflown its bank.
D) Give me rupees two and a half.
Ans: D
18. A) The proceeds of the charity show are for riot victims
B) He asked Ajay and I to go.
C) The weather of this place does not suit me.
D) Either Rajesh or his friends has done it.
Ans: A
19. A) It is far too hard an essay for me to attempt.
B) It is too far hard an essay to attempt for me.
C) Too far it is an essay hard for me to attempt.
D) It is too hard an essay for me to far attempt
Ans:D
20. A) Hoping to be hearing from you, I remain yours sincerely.
B) Hoping to hear from you, I remain yours sincerely.
C) Hoping to have heard from you, I sincerely remain yours.
D) Sincerely I remain yours hoping to be hearing from you.
Ans: B
Directions for Questions 21-25:
In each of the following questions, a paragraph or a sentence has been broken up into different parts. The parts have been scrambled and numbered as given below. Choose the correct order of these parts from the given alternatives.
21. 1) I 2)do 3) a 4) of 5) in 6) lot 7) reading 8) my 9) time 10) free
A. 1, 2, 3, 6, 4, 7, 5, 10, 8, 9
B. 1, 2, 6, 3, 4, 7, 5, 8, 10, 9
C. 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 4, 5, 8, 10, 9
D. 1, 2, 3, 6, 4, 7, 5, 8, 10, 9
Ans: D
22. 1) on to 2) seat 3) evening 4) Edinburgh 5)the 6) booked 7) flight 8) a 9) time 10)to
A. 9, 6, 8, 2, 1, 5, 3, 7, 10, 4
B. 9, 6, 8, 1, 2, 5, 3, 7, 10, 4
C. 9, 3, 8, 2, 1, 5, 6, 7, 10, 4
D. 9, 6, 1, 2, 5, 8, 3, 7, 10, 4
Ans: A
23. 1) I 2) my 3) leg 4) to 5)hire 6) gardener 7) when 8) a 9) had 10) I 11) broke
A. 1, 9, 4, 5, 8, 6, 7, 10, 11, 3, 2
B. 1, 9, 4, 5, 11, 6, 8, 10, 7, 2, 3
C. 1, 9, 4, 5, 8, 6, 7, 10, 11, 2, 3
D. 1, 4, 9, 5, 8, 6, 7, 10, 11, 2, 3
Ans: C
24. 1) She 2) trust 3) Don't 4) because 5)is 6) her 7) lying
A. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7
B. 3, 2, 6, 4, 1, 5, 7
C. 3, 2, 6, 4, 1, 5, 7
D. 3, 2, 6, 1, 4, 5, 7
Ans: B
25. 1) rent 2)a 3) has 4) room 5)in 6) house 7) she 8) to 9) rent
A. 7, 3, 2, 4, 1, 8, 5, 9, 6
B. 7, 3, 1, 4, 8, 2, 5, 9, 6
C. 7, 3, 2, 4, 8, 1, 5, 9, 6
D. 7, 3, 2, 4, 8, 1, 5, 6, 9
Ans: C
