NASSCOM Question-Bank Contributed by Erodu engg college updated on Apr 2019

Nasscom 2014 Nac Tech 2014Mechanical Engineering, Textile Engineering, Telecommunications, Chemical, IT, CS, Model Question papers. Nasscom 2014 Nac Tech 2014 technical Question papers of Bio Technology, Civil engineering Information Technology and aptitude Questions with answers.Nasscom Nac Tech 2014 previous years solved question papers placement papers Question bank of all subjects and streams
Nasscom 2014 Nac Tech 2014 Mechanical Engineering Model Question papers
1. Brinell hardness number is equal to
1.P/D-?D2-d2
2.2P/?D (D-?(D2-d2)
3.2P/D (D-?(D2-d2)
4.2P/D (D-?(D-d)
2. Technically, steel with carbon above 2% is known as

1. Ferrite

2. Pearlite

3. Cementite

4. Cast Iron
3. Bending moment M and torque T is applied on a shaft. The equivalent torque will be

1. M + T
2. 1/2? M 2 + T 2
3.1/2 (M+? M 2 + T 2)
4.? M 2 + T 2
4. A Mohrs circle reduces to a point when the body is subjected to

1. pure shear

2. uniaxial stress only

3. equal and opposite axial stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, the planes being free of shear

4. equal axial stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, the planes being free of shear

5. Choose the odd process out

1. TIG welding

2. Thermit welding

3. Resistance welding

4. Submerged arc welding
Nasscom 2014 Nac Tech 2014  Civil Engineering Model Question papers

1. The equilibrium super elevation required to contract the centrifugal force fully is given by:
V2/27.5R
2.0.75/127R
3.V2 /75R
4.V2 /127R
2. The mechanical extra widening required for pavement of width 10.5 m, on a horizontal curve of radius R metre is given by:
1. 12/2R
2.212/3R
3.12/R
4.312/R
3. In calculating the strength of a riveted joint in tearing, shearing and crushing, the

1. Actual diameter of the rivet is used

2. Actual diameter of hole drilled for rivet is used

3. Mean diameter of hole drilled for rivet is used

4. Smaller of the diameter and hole diameter is used

4. Archimedes principle of buoyancy states that when a body is totally or partially immersed in a fluid, it

is buoyed up by a force which is equal to:

1. Weight of the body

2. Weight of the fluid displaced by the body

3. Weight of the body and the fluid displaced by the body

4. Difference of weights of the fluid displaced and that of the body

5. If a water tank partially filled with water is being carried on a truck, moving with a constant horizontal acceleration, the level of the liquid will:

1. Rise on the front side of the tank

2. Fall on the back side of the tank

3. Remain the same at both side of the tank

4. Rise on the back side and fall on the front side
Nasscom 2014 Nac Tech 2014 Chemical Engineering Model Question papers

1. The characteristic equation of a system is S4 + 3S2 2S + 1 = 0. The system is

1. Stable

2. Unstable

3. Critically stable

4. Cannot say

2. Select the wrong statement.

Compared to Pt catalyst, V2O5 catalyst used in contact process for manufacture of H2SO4 because it is

1. Is immune to poisons

2. Requires low O2/SO2 to give economic conversion

3. Requires dilute SO2 input (7-10%)

4. Requires low initial investments and 5% replacement per year.

3. Fluid energy mill is used for

1. Ultrafine grinding

2. Cutting

3. Grinding

4. Crushing

4. The assumptions made in the derivation of Bernoullis equation are that the flow is

1. Incompressible, rotational and non-viscous

2. Incompressible, steady, non-viscous and irrotational

4. Incompressible, non-viscous and irrotational

5. In a textile mill, an evaporator concentrates a liquor containing solids of 6% by W/W to produce an output containing 30% by W/W. Calculate evaporation of water per 100kg of feed to the evaporator?

1. 80Kg

2. 100Kg

3. 60Kg

4. 90Kg
Nasscom 2014 Nac Tech 2014 Textile Engineering Model Question papers

1) Find the odd man out

1. Chain Stitch

2. Tricot Stitch

3. Railway Stitch

4. Cross Stitch

2) 10 kilometers of a cotton yarn with 7 RKM is wound up in a spool. 50 centimeters of the same yarn is then tied to the spool on one end and attached to a hook on the other end.

1. The 50 cm yarn would stretch by 2%

2. The 50 cm yarn would break under the weight of the spool

3. The 50 cm yarn would stretch by 7%

4. The 50 cm yarn would retain its original shape

3) Cellulose pulp is treated with Carbon-di-sulphide and dissolved in caustic soda again. The resultant yarn that is manufactured can be used for

1. PV fabrics

2. PC fabrics

3. PE fabrics

4. PVC fabrics

4) A fabric of dimension 50 cm by 30 cm, has a weight of 22500 mg. The density of the fabric is

1. 50 gsm

2. 100 gsm

3. 150 gsm

4. 200 gsm

5) 500 fabric banners using six-colour geometric graphics need to be produced. Which printing procedure would be most quick and accurate?

1. block

2. digital

3. roller

4. screen

Nasscom 2014 Nac Tech 2014 Bio-Technology Engineering Model Question papers

1. In Guinea pigs, black hair (B) is dominant over white (b), rough coat texture (R) is dominant over smooth (r), and short hair (S) is dominant over long hair (s). A cross between a homozygous black, rough, short-haired Guinea pig and a white, smooth, long-haired one and the F1 offsprings were crossed again. What would be the number of offsprings with the genotype BBR-Ss, if 160 offsprings were born? (Assume that these genes are on separate chromosomes)

1. 15

2. 24

3. 21

4. 27

2. The four elements making 99% of living system are

1. C, H, O, S

2. C, H, O, P

3. C, H, O, N

4. C, N, O, P

3. Facultative pyschrophiles have:

1. Optimal growth temperature between 200

2. Optimal growth temperature between 00

3. Optimal growth temperature below 50

4. None of the above

4. A sample was inoculated by 2 cell of a bacterium with a generation time of 15 minutes. What would be the number of bacterium after 4 hrs?

1. 128

2. 256

3. 512

4. 1024

5. The mixture of proteins (K, J, L, M, P) is separated from SDS  PAGE. The increasing order of their molecular size is L, M, K, P, J. The electrophoretic mobility in SDS PAGE gel would be in the order (increasing):

1. KPJML

2. LMKPJ

3. JPKML

4. Same for all
Nasscom 2014 Nac Tech 2014 Telecommunications Engineering Model Question papers

1. fm / fc is the

1. upper band frequency

2. lower band frequency

3. harmonity ratio

4. mid band frequency

2. Microwaves are electromagnetic waves with frequencies between

1. 300 MHz to 300 GHz

2. 50 Mhz to 600 MHz

3. 800 to 900 MHz

4. 1.8 to 1.95 GHz

3. Consider two channels.

Channel 1: Bandwidth = 4M HZ; S

1. Communication in channel 1 is faster than channel 2

2. Communication in channel 2 is faster than channel 1

3. Communication in equally fast in both channels

4. Insufficient data

4. A 5 bit ripple counter requires 100 n sec for change of state. The maximum propagation delay of each flip flop is

1. 20 ns

2. 10 ns

3. 50 ns

4. 5 ns

5. In a PCM system, number of bits are increased from n to n + 1. The quantization noise power

1. increases by 3dB

2. decreases by 3dB

3. decreases by 6dB

4. increases by 6dB
Part B (Answer any one part)

Information Technology

1. In a graph G there are 2n first 3 bits are similar. What are the number of connected components?

1. 1

2. 3

3. 8

4. 2n-3

2. Let x, y and z denote the first vertex visited in post-order, in-order and pre-order traversals respectively of a complete binary tree. Which of the following is always true?

1. x = y

2. x = z

3. y = z

4. None of these

3. Consider the following functions: f(n)= 3 n ? n  ; g(n) = 3 n ? n n log  3 ; h(n) = n! Which of the following is true?

1. h(n) is O (f(n))

2. h(n) is O (g(n))

3. f(n) is O (g(n))

4. g(n) is not O (f(n))

4. Consider the following program

n = b1b2b3.bm

int n, rev;

rev = 0;

while (n > 0) {

rev = rev * 10 + n %10;

n = n/10;

Which of the following is true at the end of the ith iteration?

1. n = b1b2bmi and rev = bm bm1.bmi+1

2. n= bmi+1.bm1bm and rev = bmib2b1

3. n= b1b2bm and rev = bmb2b1

4. none of these

5. A program c with 200 integers in the range 0  50 represents the scores of 200 students. It then prints the frequency of each score above 25. What would be the best way for c to store the frequency?

1. an array of 25 numbers

2. an array of 50 numbers

3. an array of 200 numbers

4. a dynamically allocated array of 250 numbers

vertices which correspond to n bit strings. Two nodes are connected iff the

Electrical Engineering

1. A 4 bit ripple counter uses RS flip flops. Determine the maximum propogation delay of each flip flop, if the clock frequency is 5 MHz

1. 100 ns

2. 60 ns

3. 30 ns

4. 50 ns

2. Determine the input displacement factor if the power factor = 0.6 and distortion factor = 3/µ

1. 0.6

2. 0.634

3. 0.628

4. 0.783

3. Assertion (A): If a diode is connected close to the SCR in a series resonant inverter, SCR does not turn off at all.

Reason (R): Diode reduces the reverse voltage of the thyristor.

1. A and R are true, A is correct explanation

2. A is true, R is false

3. A is false

4. A and R are true, R is not correct explanation

4. Determine which of the following is false with respect to PWM Inverter?

1. It has very good PF on the AC side

2. Very wide speed range of operation

3. Voltage is determined by switching frequency

4. Closed loop operation is possible

5. Which tool is best used to monitor the speed of moving vehicles in a city?

Electronics Engineering

1. Which of the following statement is true?

1. BJT is current controlled device with a high input impedance and high gain Bandwidth.

2. FET is a voltage controlled device with high input impedance and low gain Bandwidth.

3. FET cannot be used for Amplification.

4. All of the above.

2. A Base band video signal limited to 9MHz is transmitted using USB. The vestigial Bandwidth is 2MHz. The Bandwidth of the USB modulated signal is

1. 9 MHz

2. 11 MHz

3. 13 MHz

4. 20 MHz

3. Figure of merit of a Single tone AM receiver using Envelope detector if u = 0.5 is

1. 0.08

2. 0.11

3. 0.25

4. 1

4. In a 16-bit microprocessor, words are stored in two consecutive memory locations. Reading the entire word in a single operation is possible if

1. the first word is even

2. the last memory location is odd

3. the first memory location is odd

4. the first memory address is even

5. How many zeroes are present in the binary representation of 51 × 5?

1. 0

2. 1

3. 3

4. 5