IBPSGraminBankRRBs Question-Paper Contributed by Seethal updated on Apr 2019

 

1. ‘Captain’ is related to a ‘Team’ in the same way as ‘Director’ is related to
(1) Supervisor 
(2) Employee
(3) Organisation -Answer
(4) Union
(5) Customer


2. Find the odd one out of the following options
(1) Aunt 
(2) Child
(3) Father 
(4) Niece
(5) Relation -Answer

3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahesh, Ram said. “The father of his sister is the husband of my wife’s mother”. How is Ram related to Mahesh?
(1) Brother 
(2) Brother-in-law -Answer
(3) Father-in-law 
(4) Data not sufficient
(5) None of these

4. If ‘fork’ is called ‘plate’, ‘plate’ is called ‘knife’, ‘knife’ is called ‘jug’, ‘jug’ is called ‘glass’, ‘glass’ is called ‘cup’ and ‘cup’ is called ‘fork’, by what do we cut fruit?
(1) spoon 
(2) jug -Answer
(3) glass 
(4) saucer
(5) none of these

5. If ‘a’ is substituted by 26,’B’ by 25 and so on up to ‘Z’ which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word ‘XRAY’?
(1) 33 
(2) 40 -Answer
(3) 37 
(4) 73
(5) None of these

6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code?
(1) JOENQF 
(2) JMCPQD
(3) JOEPSF -Answer
(4) HMCNQD
(5) None of these

7. Geeta is elder to Seeta but not to Deepa. Gayatri is younger than Deepa. No one is elder to Fatima. Who is youngest of them all?
(1) Seeta 
(2) Geeta
(3) Gayatri 
(4) Data not sufficient -Answer
(5) None of these

8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry?
(1) Mahesh 
(2) Kamal -Answer
(3) Raman 
(4) Harry
(5) Cannot be determined

9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with ‘T’ and without repeating any letter?
(1) Three -Answer
(2) One
(3) Two 
(4) None
(5) None of these

Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence: A $ B # 9 G 3D K « M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y ? J

11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number?
(1) One 
(2) Two
(3) Three 
(4) Five -Answer
(5) None of these

12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed?
(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 7 -Answer
(4) 8
(5) None of these

13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol?
(1) Two 
(2) Five -Answer
(3) Four 
(4) Three
(5) None of these

14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement?
(1) # -Answer
(2) 7
(3) U 
(4) 9
(5) None of these

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) G$M 
(2) K9Q
(3) ?D7 
(4) 2MU
(5) PCI -Answer

16. In a certain code language’ In ba pe’ means ‘he has won’,'le ki ba’ means ‘she has lost’ and ‘in se pe’ means ‘he always won’. Which word in that language means ‘he’?
(1) in 
(2) pe
(3) se 
(4) Data not sufficient -Answer
(5) None of these

17. X is Y’s brother. S is T’s mother and X’s aunt. How is T related to X?
(1) Sister 
(2) Cousin -Answer
(3) Aunt 
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters?
(1) TNAVERSBO 
(2) TNVARESBO
(3) NTAVERSBO 
(4) VANTRESBO
(5) None of these -Answer

19. If 1 is coded as S, 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as «, 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671?
(1) ? + % « # S -Answer
(2) ? + % S # «
(3) ? + « % # S 
(4) S # « % + ?
(5) None of these

20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE?
(1) SWORN: NSOWR 
(2) FUNDS: FSDUN
(3) GLAZE : EGZAL 
(4) LOWER: RLEWO
(5) None of these -Answer

Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions: Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel.

(i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products.
(ii) Aman who visits ‘Go’ advertises neither soap nor computers.
(iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates.
(iv) No girl advertises soap.
(v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice

21. Who advertises watches?
(1) Deepa 
(2) Kamal
(3) Aman -Answer
(4) Priyanka
(5) None of these

22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect?
(1) Go-watch 
(2) Come-computer
(3) Go-soap 
(4) Come-soap -Answer
(5) Come-watch

23. Which channel does Kamal visit?
(1) Go -Answer
2) Fun
(3) Come 
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true?
(1) Jitu advertises soap 
(2) Jitu advertises watches -Answer
(3) Kamal advertises computers 
(4) Kamal works for Fun
(5) None of these

25. What will Jitu advertise?
(1) Chocolates 
(2) Watches
(3) Computers or watches -Answer
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar?
(1) 3 ½ hours -Answer
(2) 2 ½ hours
(3) 4 ½ hours 
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language?
(1) One 
(2) Two
(3) Four 
(4) Three -Answer
(5) None of these

28. Find the odd one out
(1) 2 -Answer
(2) 7 
(3) 11 
(4) 13 
(5) 9

29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters?
(1) BDHEKLQT 
(2) BDEHKLQT -Answer
(3) BDEHLKQT 
(4) BDEJMLQT
(5) None of these

30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers.
(1) 9 
(2) 21
(3) 17 
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these -Answer

Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. ‘None of these’.


Conditions:
(i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as S.
(ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %.
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as?


31. ENIMY
(1) 1%28 
(2) ?732?
(3) 17328 
(4) ?7328 -Answer
(5) None of these

32. GENIR
(1) ?173? 
(2) 6%39 -Answer
(3) 6%79 
(4) 61739
(5) None of these

33. QUERI
(1) 5%93
(2) ?413?
(3) ?4139 
(4) ?419? -Answer
(5) None of these

34. EINUM
(1) 1%72 
(2) 0%42
(3) 1374? 
(4) 1%43
(5) None of these -Answer

35. UNGRE
(1) S769 S -Answer
(2) 4769 S
(3) 47691 
(4) S7691
(5) None of these

Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow.


36. Statements: 
Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink
Conclusions:
I. Some ink are pencils.
II. All ink are lead.
Answer-1

37. Statements: 
Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs.
Conclusions:
I. Some ACs are ovens.
II. No. AC is oven.
Answer-3

38. Statements: 
All planes are birds. All birds are clouds.
Conclusions:
I. Some planes are clouds.
II. Some clouds are birds.
Answer-5

39. Statements: 
Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice.
Conclusions:
I.. Some sweets are spice.
II. No spice is salt.
Answer-2

40. Statements: 
Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes.
Conclusions:
I. Some plastics are clothes.
II. Some plastics are papers.
Answer-5
Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and:

Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.


41. How is ‘cricket’ written in a code language?
I. ‘Dinesh play cricket’ is written as ‘do si ha’.
II. ‘play cricket now’ is written as ‘ha si ma’.
Answer-4

42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P?
I. P is older than M and N but not O.
II. L is older than O.
Answer-5

43. When is Rahul’s birthday?
I. Rahul and Shivani are twins.
II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year.
Answer-2

44. What is the strength of the class?
I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last.
II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27th from the top.
Answer-1

45. How far does Shruti live from the school?
I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina’s house which is 4 kms. From thee school.
II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti’s house.
Answer-3

Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below: 972 526 487 359 251

46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order?
(1) 359 
(2) 972
(3) 526 
(4) 487
(5) 251
Answer-1

47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5?
(1) None 
(2) One
(3) Two 
(4) Three
(5) None of these
Answer-4

48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?
(1) None 
(2) Two
(3) One 
(4) Three
(5) All five
Answer-3

49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number?
(1) 251 
(2) 359
(3) 487 
(4) 526
(5) 972
Answer-3

50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest?
(1) 972
(2) 526
(3) 487
(4) 251
(5) 359
Answer-5

Directions—(Q. 1 to 15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Emperor’s brother-in-law was also his Prime Minister and his avourite courtier. He was not liked by the other courtiers as a result. Jealous of the Emperor’s brother-inlaw the courtiers once said, “Your Majesty, why don’t you appoint one of us as Prime Minister ? Subjectus to a test to see who is truly the right person to be Prime Minister.” At the time the Prime Minister was out hunting with another courtier. In pursuit of their prey they mistakenly rode into the neighbouring kingdom. As they were strangers and had weapons they were arrested as spies by the soldiers there and were certain to be sentenced to death by the ruler, King Amir.

The courtier was petrified and bowed his head in prayer. The Prime Minister pretending to be praying whispered something in his ear. The two of them then began arguing. “I should be the one to die first !” each of them said. Those present were astonished to hear their argument. The soldiers brought the two before King Amir. He was astonished to hear of their strange behaviour. “Tell me why you are so eager to die ?” Pretending to be reluctant to reveal the reason the Prime Minister bowed respectfully and said, “Sir, our Emperor has a secret wish of annexing your kingdom. If you kill us the Emperor can attack your kingdom on the pretext of avenging our deaths. The Emperor has also promised us a great reward for our sacrifice. We felt that in case you changed your mind and set one of us free to return home he would not get the reward.” King Amir was worried when he heard this. Concerned that the lives of his subjects would be lost in war, King Amir refused to kill either of the two and sent them home. When they heard about the incident the Emperor’s courtiers bowed their heads. They were ashamed. They realised the Emperor had made a wise choice in selecting his Prime Minister.

1.Why were the courtiers not on good terms with the Emperor’s brother-in-law ? 

(A) The Emperor used to only heed his brother-in-law’s advice 
(B) He was cleverer than they were and he would remind them of it 
(C) He was empowered to take decisions on behalf of the Emperor 
(D) He had more power and prestige and earned more than they did 
(E) None of these -Answer

2.Why did the Emperor’s two courtiers enter the neighbouring kingdom ? 

(A) The Emperor had asked them to deliver a message to its king 
(B) They wanted to spy on the neighbouring kingdom 
(C) They had accidentally wandered into neighbouring territory -Answer
(D) The other courtiers had set a trap for them 
(E) Their curiosity about the kingdom led them to enter it 

3. Why was the Emperor’s brotherin-law not afraid when faced with death ?

1. He felt that if he told King Amir the truth his life would be spared. -Answer
2. He was confident that he would be rescued. 
3. He had prayed fervently asking God to save them. 
(A) None 
(B) Only 1 
(C) Only 2 
(D) Both 2 and 3 
(E) Only 3 

4.Which of the following can be said about the Emperor ? 

(A) He reserved important posts for his family members 
(B) He had chosen a worthy Prime Minister -Answer
(C) He was ruthless and wanted to conquer the neighbouring kingdom 
(D) He treated all his courtiers shabbily except his brother-inlaw 
(E) He deliberately endangered the lives of his courtiers in order to test them 

5.Why did the two courtiers begin to argue with each other ? 

(A) They wanted to distract the soldiers so they could escape 
(B) It was a delaying tactics till they were rescued 
(C) They blamed each other for the predicament they were in 
(D) The Prime Minister wanted to stop the other courtier from divulging the Emperor’s plan to the enemy 
(E) None of these -Answer

6. What surprised King Amir about the courtiers’ behaviour ?

1. They were very respectful to him although he had condemned them to death. 
2. Each was volunteering to be killed first. 
3. They had managed to convince the soldiers to set them free. 
(A) Only 1 
(B) Both 1 and 2 -Answer
(C) Only 3 
(D) Only 2 
(E) None of these 

7. Why did King Amir set the two courtiers free ?

(A) He believed their story that the Emperor was planning to attack -Answer
(B) He had great respect for their courage 
(C) He had ascertained they were not spies so he set them free 
(D) He was impressed by the wisdom of the Emperor’s courtiers 
(E) None of these 

8. Which of the following does not describe the Emperor’s reaction to the courtiers’ request to appoint one of them as Prime Minister ?
1. He thought about asking his brother-in-law to resign. 
2. He tested his brother-in-law to prove he was best suited for the post of Prime Minister. 
3. He disregarded it completely and punished the courtiers. 
(A) Only 1 
(B) Only 3 
(C) Both 1 and 3 
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 
(E) None of these -Answer

9.Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage ? 

(A) King Amir was concerned about the welfare of his people 
(B) The Emperor’s brother-inlaw had enemies at court 
(C) King Amir set the Emperor’s brother-in-law free on account of his bravery -Answer
(D) The Emperor’s brother-inlaw was deserving of the post of Prime Minister 
(E) The Prime Minister was a quick thinker 

10.What was the courtiers’ reaction when they heard about the Prime Minister’s safe return ? 

(A) They were disappointed because their plan had failed 
(B) They were ashamed of their plot to kill him 
(C) They were upset to hear about his bad experience 
(D) They bowed in respect and praised his wisdom -Answer
(E) None of these 

Directions–(Q. 11 to 13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11.subject 

(A) topic 
(B) undergo -Answer
(C) expose 
(D) citizen 
(E) accountable 

12.pretext 

(A) excuse -Answer
(B) guess 
(C) crime 
(D) example 
(E) fraud 

13.petrified 

(A) panic 
(B) scared -Answer
(C) feared 
(D) alarming 
(E) terror 

Directions—(Q. 14 and 15) Choose the word which is most oppositein meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14.right 

(A) immoral 
(B) unsuitable -Answer
(C) inaccurate 
(D) inconvenient 
(E) error 

15.reveal 

(A) secret 
(B) darken 
(C) disclose 
(D) hide -Answer
(E) invisible 

Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

16. In these circumstances, they will not be able to meet the assign target to them.

(A) targeted assignment 
(B) assigned target -Answer
(C) assigning of target 
(D) target assigned 
(E) No correction required 

17.Banks must be ensured that 18 per cent of their loans is given to the agricultural sector. 

(A) are ensured 
(B) have to ensure -Answer
(C) being ensured 
(D) should be ensured 
(E) No correction required 

18.The government has announced several initiatives benefiting to factory workers. 

(A) beneficial -Answer
(B) for benefiting to 
(C) which will benefit 
(D) benefited to 
(E) No correction required 

19.A date for the committee meeting to discuss the details of the proposal has yet to be decided. 

(A) will be yet decided 
(B) is been decided yet 
(C) have not been still decided 
(D) is not yet been decided 
(E) No correction required -Answer

20.With the raining heavily the multi-storey office building was badly damaged and collapsed. 

(A) Owing to the heavy rains -Answer
(B) Because of raining heavily 
(C) Since heavily it rained 
(D) In raining heavily 
(E) No correction required 

Directions—(Q. 21 to 25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed inbold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. Since petroleum products are taxed (A) heavily they are a majar(B) source (C) of revenue (D) for the government. All correct (E) 
Answer-B

22. Even though the proposal appearrs (A) practical (B) the committee should discuss (C) it at length. (D) All correct (E)
Answer-A

23. The Indian stock market has been one of the well (A)performing (B) markets globally (C) during the current (D) year. All correct (E) 
Answer-E

24. Had the scheme been allowed (A) to continue (B) it would havegenerated (C) attracted (D) returns. All correct (E) 
Answer-d

25. People should constantly (A) upgrade their skills (B) in order to be effective (C) and efficient. (D) All correct (E) 

Answer-E
Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

1. With all this experimentation he incurred an expenditure of over a million dollars before success smiled on him. 
2. Edison invented the long lasting electric light bulb. 
3. To find a fibre to burn inside a bulb he experimented with over two thousand items. 
4. We thus owe the miracle of light as much to his perseverance as to his genius. 
5. However he did not invent it overnight. 
6. His friends too travelled all over the world from South America to India in search of a suitable fibre. 


26.Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ? 

(A) 1 
(B) 2 Answer
(C) 3 
(D) 4 
(E) 5 

27.Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ? 

(A) 2 
(B) 3 
(C) 4 
(D) 5 Answer
(E) 6 

28.Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ? 

(A) 1 
(B) 2 
(C) 3 Answer
(D) 4 
(E) 5 

29.Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ? 

(A) 2 
(B) 3 
(C) 4 
(D) 5 
(E) 6 Answer

30.Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ? 

(A) 2 
(B) 3 
(C) 4 Answer
(D) 5 
(E) 6 

Directions—(Q. 31 to 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. Senior citizens prefer (A) / banks which (B) /Answer branches are located (C) / near their homes. (D) No error (E) 
Answer-B
32. In the latest statistics (A) / China supplies more than (B) / ninety per cent of the (C) / steel imported by India. (D) No error (E)
Answer-A

33. We shall be calling a meeting (A) / next week to assess (B) / the causes of frequently (C) / delays in infrastructure projects. (D) No error (E) 
Answer-C

34. Although it has received (A) / clearance from RBI the bank (B) / has decided not to open (C) / their office in Hongkong. (D) No error (E) 
Answer-D

35. Most of the tribals (A) / in the region (B) / are depended on the forest (C) / to earn their livelihoods. (D) No error (E) 
Answer-C

36. After graduating from college (A) / having an engineering degree (B) / he received a job offer (C) / from a reputed American firm. (D) No error (E) 
Answer-B

37. In order for (A) / the scheme to be (B) / successful we require as (C) / much as twenty investors. (D) No error (E) 
Answer-D

38. The insurance company has plans (A) / to hire 30,000 agents (B) / at a time when (C) / most companies are cutting jobs. (D) No error (E) 
Answer-D

39. One of the important lesson (A) / he taught me was to save (B) / at least thirty per cent (C) / of my gross income. (D) No error (E) 
Answer-A

40. Due to the financial crisis (A) / the price of foodgrains (B) / has risen sharply (C) / over the past few months. (D) No error (E) 
Answer-A

Directions—(Q. 41 to 50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

One day an expert in time management was …(41)… to a group of business management students and to drive home a point he used and …(42)… they will never forget. As he stood in front of a group of brilliant students he said, “Okay it’s …(43)… for a quiz.” He then pulled out a one gallon jar and set it on the table in front of him. He also …(44)… a dozen fist sized rocks and carefully placed them one at a time into the jar. When the jar was filled to the top and …(45)… more rocks would fit inside, he asked, “Is the jar full ?” Everyone in the class …(46)… said ‘Yes!’

The professor said nothing. He then …(47)… under the table and pulled out a bucket of gravel. He dumped some gravel into the jar and shook it …(48)… pieces of gravel to work themselves down into the spaces between the big rocks. He asked the group once more, “Is the jar full ?” ‘Probably not.’ some answered. ‘Good !’ he said and began…(49)… sand to the contents in the jar. The sand fitted into the spaces between the rocks and gravel. He also poured water into the jar. “What was the point of this exercise ?” he asked. “The point is that no matter how busy your schedule is you can always manage to fit something in.” replied one student. ‘No’ said the professor, “The truth is if you don’t fit in the rocks which symbolize the …(50)…things in your life like your family and your dreams first, you’ll never have time for them.”

41.(A) addressing 
(B) conveying 
(C) speaking Answer
(D) discussing 
(E) expressing 

42(A) imagination 
(B) impression 
(C) expression 
(D)emblem 
(E)illustration 

43.(A) ready 
(B) usual 
(C) opportunity 
(D) time 
(E) scheduled 

44.A) made 
(B) produced 
(C) dug 
(D) constructed 
(E) ploughed 

45.(A) any 
(B) no 
(C) few 
(D) some 
(E) much 

46.(A) definite 
(B) forcibly 
(C) convince 
(D) positive 
(E) emphatically 

47(A) reached 
(B) hid 
(C) gone 
(D) searching 
(E) found 

48.(A) making 
(B) until 
(C) causing Answer
(D) while 
(E) resulting 

49.(A) filling 
(B) pushing 
(C) substituting 
(D) adding Answer
(E) stuffing 

50.(A) important Answer
(B) necessarily 
(C) vitally 
(D) ideal 
(E) expensive 

Agriculture : Solved Paper 
1. Which of the following crops is tolerant of soil on water salinity ?
(A) Date-palm-answer
(B) Cabbage
(C) Orange
(D) Grapes
(E) Peas 

2. How many minimum tractor hours per year of 40 H.P. power should be used approximately for purely agricultural use and not for custom service unit to become viable unit ?
(A) 500 hrs.
(B) 600 hrs.
(C) 1000 hrs.answer
(D) 1500 hrs.
(E) 2000 hrs.

3. Drip-irrigation has been most successful for……
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Berseem
(D) Lucerne
(E) Grape-answer

4. The percentage of Nitrogen (N) in DAP is……
(A) 46
(B) 26
(C) 18-answer
(D) 80
(E) 30

5. Contract farming consists of……
(A) hiring land by farmers on contract basis for cultivation
(B) supply of agreed quantity of produce to agreed price to the company
(C) company taking on lease basis farmers’ land for cultivation-answer
(D) processing cash crops, vegetables etc. by company and to give back to farmers
(E) providing inputs by company to farmers for improving quality of produce

6. Water held in the soil is not available to the plant, if it is held at tension……
(A) 1/3 atmosphere
(B) below 1/3 atmosphere
(C) 1-3 atmosphere
(D) 3-15 atmosphere
(E) above 15 atmosphere-answer

7. While starting cultivation of medicinal and aromatic plants, first it should be ensured……
(A) cultivation expenses
(B) medicinal value of plants
(C) availability of processing unit
(D) location of the farm
(E) availability of assured profitable market-answer

8. West Coast Tall (WCT) is a variety of……
(A) Paddy
(B) Cashew
(C) Coconut-answer
(D) Arecanut
(E) Coco

9. The phenomenon of Heterosis has been most commercially exploited first in……
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Maize-answer
(D) Sugarcane
(E) Tobacco

10. Processed meat and poultry products have good market. However, their export is mainly hampered due to……
(A) processing not as per demand
(B) breeds are not suitable for export
(C) no proper transport conditions
(D) unhygienic conditions of slaughter houses and animal diseases-answer
(E) domestic market is available easily

11. Arabica is a type of……
(A) flower-Answer
(B) horse
(C) coffee
(D) vegetable
(E) fodder

12. Vermicompost is prepared with the help of following……
(A) Bacteria
(B) Earthworms-Answer
(C) Ants
(D) Virus
(E) Fungus

13. The average carbon / nitrogen ratio of soils is generally……
(A) 25 : 1
(B) 5 : 1
(C) 30 : 1
(D) 14 : 1-Answer
(E) None of these

14. In case of Drip irrigation which of the following advantage is observed ?
(A) It saves water-Answer
(B) Root system of plant remains in upper layer of soil
(C) Plastic tubes are not harmed by rats
(D) Life of drip irrigation is very long
(E) Where there is lot of rainfall, there are no limitation to such system

15. If PE denotes monthly average value of potential evapo–transpiration and R stands for monthly average rainfall, the period having PE/4 greater than or equal to R, is designated as……
(A) Moist
(B) Humid-Answer
(C) Moderately Dry
(D) Severe Drought
(E) Dry

16. The National Agricultural Insurance Scheme in its first two years of operation envisaged to cover……
(A) all crops-grown by small and marginal farmers only
(B) all crops-cultivated with the help of crop loans only irrespective of the size of holding of the borrowers
(C) all food crops-cultivated by all types of farmers-Answer
(D) only horticultural crops
(E) only seven commercial crops-grown under contract farming system

17. Which one of the following breeds of sheep produces superior carpet wool in India ?
(A) Nellore
(B) Nilgiri
(C) Sonadi
(D) Dorset
(E) Jaisalmeri-Answer

18. Which one of the following is a European Species of honeybee successfully introduced in India ?
(A) Apis mellifera-Answer
(B) Apis florea
(C) Apis dorsata
(D) Apis cerana
(E) Apis melipona

19. Which one of the following Indian States/Union Territories accounts for the largest quantity of shrimp production per annum, among all the states of India ?
(A) West Bengal-Answer
(B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(C) Orissa
(D) Kerala
(E) None of these

20. The hybrid of which one of the following crops was evolved by India using modern DNA techniques and released in February 2005 ?
(A) Ricinus communis
(B) Solgum vulgare
(C) Pennisetum typhoides
(D) Arachis hypogaea
(E) India has not released any such hybrid so far-Answer

21. As per the WTO Uruguay Round Agreement the domestic support creating trade distorting effect on agricultural commodities are included in……
(A) Green Box
(B) Amber Box
(C) Pink Box
(D) Blue Box
(E) None of these-Answer

22. Which one of the following is the name of the nematode, which lives as internal parasite of buds and foliage of Chrysanthemum and strawberry and causes distortions and crinkling of foliage, and leaf spots ?
(A) Aphelenchoides besseyi
(B) Pratilenchus thornei
(C) Meloidogyne incognita
(D) Aphelenchoides ritzemabosi-Answer
(E) None of these

23. Which of the following materials do not fit into the list of the raw materials used for feeding the earthworms in the scientific management of Vermiculture ?
(A) Grass Clippings
(B) Curd-Answer
(C) Carrot tops
(D) Lettuce leaves
(E) All are useful

24. A small dairy farm daily produces 100 kilograms of average quality buffalo milk and sells it to an organised dairy at the rate of Rs. 100 per kilogram of total solids contained in the milk. How much would be the daily gross income of the farm from the sale of milk ?
(A) Between Rs. 2,000 and Rs. 2,200
(B) Between Rs. 1,250 and Rs. 1,400
(C) Between Rs. 700 and Rs. 825
(D) Between Rs. 1,000 and Rs. 1,100-Answer
(E) Between Rs. 1,650 and Rs. 1,850

25. What would be the most probable date of giving the delivery of one day old chicks by a hatchery farmer, who has put the fertile eggs of hen on his well unctioning incubator on First of January ?
(A) February 20
(B) February 5
(C) January 29
(D) January 22-Answer
(E) January 15

26. Which one of the following crops is sensitive to salt as well as boron in soil and water ?
(A) Grape
(B) Sugar beet
(C) Carrot-Answer
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these

27. Which one of the following ornamental plants is a native of India and has been introduced into several countries from India ?
(A) Gladiolus
(B) Orchids-Answer
(C) Bougainvillea
(D) Marigold
(E) None of these

28. How much area could be covered for giving one irrigation of 3" depth by a pumpset of one cusec output in the operation of 600 hours, if the water conveyance efficiency is 80 per cent ?
(A) 180 acres
(B) 320 acres
(C) 240 acres
(D) 160 acres-Answer
(E) None of these

29. If in a water tank, the water pressure is 5 kg/cm2, then, pressure head would be :
(A) 50 m-Answer
(B) 10 m
(C) 20 m
(D) 5 m
(E) None of these

30. Approximately how many eggs does a female silkworm lay in 24 hours after the proper copulation with the male moth in India ?
(A) 200
(B) 1200-Answer
(C) 100
(D) 400
(E) None of these

31. The causal organism of Ranikhet disease of fowls is……
(A) Pasteurella multocida
(B) Brucella melitensis
(C) Clorstridium chauvoei
(D) Sporoltrix schenkii
(E) None of these-Answer

32. Which one of the following is the name of self-fruitful variety of Prunus domestica grown in India ?
(A) Virginia Gold
(B) Santa Rosa-Answer
(C) Grand Duke
(D) Rome Beauty
(E) None of these

33. Other things being suitable, what level of temperature is considered ideal for optimum growth of banana crop ?
(A) 36°C
(B) 18°C-Answer
(C) 30°C
(D) 12°C
(E) 27°C

34. The deficiency of which one of the following vitamins in the ration of Poultry birds increases the Coagulation time of blood and creates the danger of aemorrhage ?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B1
(C) Vitamin K-Answer
(D) Vitamin D
(E) Vitamin B6

35. Which one of the following commodities does fall within the scope of the activities of National Horticulture Mission in India ?
(A) Tomato
(B) Arecanut
(C) Cashewnut
(D) Coconut
(E) All above horticultural crops-Answer

36. Which one of the following is a species of grasses suitable for soil conservation of ravine lands and the land affected by shifting cultivation ?
(A) Pennisetum polystachyon-Answer
(B) Cenchurus setigerus
(C) Eulalioposis binata
(D) Lasiurus sindicus
(E) Penicum antidotale

37. Which one of the following is the name of a dual purpose Indian cattle breed, which has been exported widely to Latin American countries in the past ?
(A) Gir
(B) Kankrej-Answer
(C) Tharparkar
(D) Nagauri
(E) None of these

38. Iodine deficiency in the Sow’s ratio during pregnancy would be reflected through the symptomof……
(A) Lactation failure
(B) Poor reproduction
(C) Birth of dead or weak piglets
(D) Birth of hairless piglets-Answer
(E) Birth of blind piglets

39. Which one of the following states has the largest area under Forest cover among all the states given in the list ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh-Answer
(B) Assam
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Mizoram
(E) Rajasthan
40. In the literature on the development of GMO crops, which one of the following crops is among those crops that have been designated as Orphan Crops ?
(A) Soybean
(B) Corn-Answer
(C) Cowpea
(D) Canola
(E) None of these

41. Which one of the following would be the probable date of kidding for a she-goat that has been successfully serviced on First of March ? (All dates belong to the same year)
(A) June 12
(B) July 29
(C) August 28-Answer
(D) September 15
(E) May 30

42. In India, which one of the following should be considered the right combination of the age in days and live body weight in kg for a lamb for its weaning ?
(A) 20 days to 30 days and 6 kg to 7 kg
(B) 45 days to 60 days and 8 kg to 10 kg
(C) 105 days to 120 days and 18 kg to 21 kg
(D) 75 days to 90 days and 12 kg to 15 kg-Answer
(E) 55 days to 70 days and 9 kg to 11 kg

43. What is the causal organism of Powdery mildew of Ricinus communis ?
(A) Sphacelotheca reiliana
(B) Claviceps microcephala
(C) Leveillula taurica-Answer
(D) Puccinia carthami
(E) Fusarium annuum

44. Which one of the following countries has been the largest importer of floriculture products; especially rose and lotus flowers in terms of value from India over last five years among all the countries given in the list ?
(A) Japan
(B) Italy
(C) Netherlands
(D) UAE
(E) USA-Answer

45. As a good management practice recommended for the growing cattle in India, what should be the 
daily requirement of TDN for a cattle of 200 kg live body weight ?
(A) 3•2 kg
(B) 1•8 kg-Answer
(C) 2•4 kg
(D) 4•0 kg
(E) 0•9 kg

46. Milk fever in cattle is caused due to the deficiency of :
(A) Ca-Answer
(B) Fe
(C) Vit. ‘D’
(D) N
(E) None of these

47. The cake of which one of the following materials prepared with the comparable processing technology, contains the largest percentage of ‘N’ plant nutrient among all the materials given in the list ?
(A) Coconut
(B) Neem-Answer
(C) Palm nut
(D) Mahua
(E) Karanj

48. In respect of total foodgrains production during 2007-08 in India, which is correct in production (million tonnes) ?
(A) 230•67-Answer
(B) 207•00
(C) 217•85
(D) 200•00
(E) None of these

49. Which one of the following feeding material is usually relished by the goats in India ?
(A) Hay prepared from forest grasses
(B) Straw of Sorghum vulgare
(C) Silage of Sorghum vulgare
(D) Straw of Phaseolus aureus-Answer
(E) None of these

50. During last five years, which of the following Institutions have extended the largest amount of fresh credit for agriculture in India among all the institutions given in the list ?
(A) NABARD (Direct credit)
(B) Commercial Banks
(C) Cooperative Banks
(D) Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
(E) Regional Rural Banks and Local Area Banks-Answer

Computer Questions for Bank Exams
1. RAM stands for :
(A) Read Access Memory
(B) Random Access Memory
(C) Random Assigned Memory
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

2. Data in RAM are :
(A) Volatile in nature
(B) Non-volatile in nature
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

3. BIOS stands for :
(A) Basic Input Output System
(B) Basic Instruction Output System
(C) Basic Interface Output System
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

4. RAM in its commercial forms are available as :
(A) SIMM
(B) DIMM
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) CPSB
(E) None of these

5. Which of the following requires refreshing during retaining the data?
(A) DRAM
(B) SRAM
(C) Virtual Memory
(D) FDD
(E) None of these

6. Refresh Rate of monitor is measured in :
(A) Hz
(B) Meter
(C) Volts
(D) Amp.
(E) None of these

7. Which of the following meaning is used between CPU & RAM to speed up the processing power of a CPU?
(A) Virtual Memory
(B) DRAM
(C) Flash Memory
(D) Cache Memory
(E) None of these

8. Which of the following is lowest in memory hierarchy?
(A) Cache memory
(B) Secondary memory
(C) Registers
(D) RAM
(E) None of these

9. Which of the following is an input device?
(A) Keyboard
(B) VDU
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Dvu
(E) None of these

10. CRT stands for :
(A) Character Ray Tube
(B) Cathode Ray Tube
(C) Colour Ray Tube
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these

11. Which of the following is a GUI device :
(A) Keyboard
(B) Mouse
(C) OMR
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

12. LCD stands for :
(A) Liquid Crystal Display
(B) Laser Crystal Display
(C) Light Crystal Display
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

13. Such types of printers, in which the printing head contacts with the paper in printing process, are called as :
(A) Impact Printer
(B) Non-Impact Printer
(C) Laser Printer
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

14. Which of the following is a type of optical media?
(A) FDD
(B) HDD
(C) CD
(D) Magnetic Tape
(E) None of these

15. DVD stands for :
(A) Digital Video Disk
(B) Digital Versatile Disk
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

16. Which of the following is an input device?
(A) VDU
(B) Printer
(C) Plotter
(D) MICR
(E) None of these

17. Identify the odd one :
(A) Storage tape memory
(B) Magnetic disc memory
(C) Optical disc memory
(D) Read only memory
(E) None of these

18. Nibble describes a bits combination of :
(A) 5 bits
(B) 6 bits
(C) 7 bits
(D) 4 bits
(E) None of these

19. A Byte constitutes of :
(A) 9 bits
(B) 8 bits
(C) 7 bits
(D) 4 bits
(E) None of these

20. Memory in a PC is addressable through :
(A) Bits
(B) Byte
(C) Nibble
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

21. One Kilo Byte represents :
(A) 1024 bytes
(B) 1000 bytes
(C) 100 bytes
(D) 1064 bytes
(E) None of these

22. Basic building block for a digital circuit is :
(A) Word
(B) Logic Gate
(C) Processor
(D) BUS
(E) None of these

23. Which of the following is a logic gate?
(A) AND
(B) OR
(C) CPU
(D) Both (A) & (B)
(E) None of these

24. The base of binary number is :
(A) 2
(B) 16
(C) 8
(D) 10
(E) None of these

25. ASCII stands for :
(A) American Standard Code for Institute Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(C) American Standard Code for Information Institute
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

Answers:
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (D) 19. (B)
20. (B) 21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (B)



1. Who is called as ‘‘Father of Computers’’?
(A) Charles Babage
(B) Blaise Pascal
(C) Hollirth
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

2. The first Digital Computer introduced, was named as :
(A) Univac
(B) Mark-I
(C) Eniac
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

3. How many generations, computer can be classified?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 6
(E) None of these

4. First Generation Computers contain :
(A) Transistors
(B) Vacume Tubes
(C) LSI
(D) VLSI
(E) None of these

5. II Generation Computers are made of :
(A) Vaccume Tubes
(B) Transistors
(C) LSI
(D) VLSI
(E) None of these

6. IV Generation Computers contain :
(A) LSI
(B) Vaccume Tubes
(C) All Technology
(D) Transistors
(E) None of these

7. Vth Generation Computers are based on:
(A) Artificial Intelligence
(B) Programming Intelligence
(C) System Knowledge
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

8. Computers, combine both measuring and counting, are called :
(A) Analog
(B) Digital
(C) Hybrid
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

9. In world today, most of the computers are :
(A) Digital
(B) Hybrid
(C) Analog
(D) Complex
(E) None of these

10. In any computer installation, how many elements consists?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 1
(E) None of these

11. Physical structure of computer is called :
(A) Software
(B) Hardware
(C) Humanware
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

12. A computer can perform, which of the following tasks?
(A) Computation
(B) Communication
(C) Processing
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

13. CPU stands for :
(A) Computer Processing Unit
(B) Central Processing Unit
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Communication Processing Unit
(E) None of these

14. In which type of computer, data are represented as discrete signals?
(A) Analog computer
(B) Digital computer
(C) both
(D) Digilog Computer
(E) None of these

15. Which of the following is available in the form of a PC now?
(A) Mainframe
(B) Microcomputer
(C) Minicomputer
(D) Both (B) & (C)
(E) None of these

16. PARAM is an example of :
(A) Super computer
(B) PC
(C) Laptop
(D) PDA
(E) None of these

17. Who developed the ‘analytical engine’?
(A) Jacquard loom
(B) Charles Babbage
(C) Shannon (D) IBM
(E) None of these

18. ENIAC stands for :
(A) Electrical Numerical Integrator and Calculator
(B) Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer
(C) Electronic Numerical Integrator and Calculator
(D) Electronic Number Integrator and Calculator
(E) None of these

19. First Generation of computer was based on which technology?
(A) Transistor
(B) Vacuum Tube
(C) LSI
(D) VLSI
(E) None of these

20. Microprocessor was introduced in which generation of computer?
(A) Second Generation
(B) Fourth Generation
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Third Generation
(E) All of the above

21. GUI stands for :
(A) Graphical User Interface
(B) Graph Use Interface
(C) Graphical Universal Interface
(D) None of these

22. The time taken by CPU to retrieve and interpret the instruction to be executed is called as :
(A) Instruction cycle
(B) Fetch cycle
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

23. Which of the following is responsible for all types of calculations?
(A) ALU
(B) Control Unit
(C) Registers
(D) BUS
(E) None of these

24. Internal memory in a CPU is nothing but :
(A) A set of registers-Answer
(B) A set of ALU
(C) Microprocessor
(D) BUS
(E) None of these

25. Which of the following is permanent memory?
(A) SRAM
(B) DRAM
(C) ROM-Answer
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

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