TJSB-Bank-Ltd Whole-Testpaper Contributed by Mukharjee updated on Apr 2019

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Bank based general awareness, Banking terms

1. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) Banks cannot accept demand and time deposits from public
(2) Banks can accept only demand deposits from public
(3) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public
(4) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public   -Answer
(5) Banks can accept demand and time deposits only from government


2. Which of the following is the correct statement?
(1) State Bank of India is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
(2) A nationalized bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
(3) A cooperative bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
(4) RBl is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India-Answer
(5) None of the above

3. Interest payable on savings bank accounts is
(1) not regulated by RBI
(2) regulated by Sate Governments
(3) regulated by Central Government
(4) regulated by RBI  -Answer(5) regulated by Finance Minister

4. The usual deposit accounts of banks are
(1) current accounts, electricity accounts and insurance premium accounts
(2) current accounts post office savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(3) loan accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(4) current accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts-Answer
(5) current bill accounts and term deposit accounts

5. Fixed deposits and recurring deposits are
(1) repayable after an agreed period-Answer
(2) repayable on demand 
(3) not repayable
(4) repayable after death of depositors
(5) repayable on demand or after an agreed period as per bank’s choice

6. Accounts are allowed to be operated by cheques in respect of
(1) both savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts
(2) savings bank accounts and current accounts-Answer
(3) both savings bank accounts and loan accounts
(4) both savings bank accounts and cash accounts only
(5) both Current accounts and fixed deposit accounts

7. Which of the following is correct statement?
(1) Normally no interest is paid on current deposit accounts-Answer
(2) Interest is paid on current accounts at the same rate as term deposit accounts
(3) The rate of interest on current account and savings account are the same
(4) No interest is paid on any deposit by the bank
(5) Savings deposits are the same as current deposits

8. Mortgage is a
(1) security on movable property for a loan given by a bank
(2) security on immovable property for a loan given by a bank-Answer
(3) concession on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
(4) facility on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
(5) security on immovable property for a deposit received by a bank

9. Which of the following is known as cross selling by banks?
(A) Sale of a debit card to a credit card holder.
(B) Sale of Insurance policy to a depositor.
(C) Insurance of cash against cheque presented by a third party.
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Only (C) (4) Both (A) and (C) (5) All (A), (B) and (C)-Answer


10. Financial inclusion means provision of
(1) financial services namely, payments, remittances, savings, loans and insurance at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same-Answer
(2) ration at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
(3) house at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
(4) food at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
(5) education at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same

11. When a bank returns a cheque unpaid, it is called
(1) payment of the cheque
(2) drawing of the cheque
(3) canceling of the cheque
(4) dishonour of the cheque-Answer
(5) taking of the cheque

12. NEFT means
(1) National Electronic Funds Transfer system-Answer
(2) Negotiated Efficient Fund Transfer system
(3) National Efficient Fund Transfer solution
(4) Non Effective Fund Transfer system
(5) Negotiated Electronic Foreign Transfer system

13. Upper limit prescribed for RTGS transaction is
(1) Rs. 1 lac (2) Rs. 2 lacs (3) Rs. 5 lacs (4) Rs. 50 lacs (5) No upper limit is prescribed-Answer

14. Distribution of insurance products and insurance policies by banks as corporate agents is known as
(1) General Insurance (2) Non-life Insurance (3) Bancassurance-Answer (4) Insurance Banking (5) Deposit Insurance

15. In order to attract more foreign exchange the Government of India decided to allow foreign investment in LLP firms. What is full form of ‘LLP’ as used in this reference?
(1) Local Labour Promotion
(2) Low Labour Projects
(3) Limited Loan Partnership
(4) Longer Liability Partnership
(5) Limited Liability Partnership-Answer

16. Interest on Saving bank account is now calculated by banks on
(1) minimum balance during the month
(2) minimum balance from 7th to last day of the month
(3) minimum balance from 10th to last day of the month
(4) maximum balance during the month
(5) daily product basis-Answer

17. Largest shareholder (in percentage shareholding) of a nationalized bank is
(1) RBI (2) NABARD (3) LICI (4) Government of India -Answer(5) IBA

18. When the rate of inflation increases
(1) purchasing power of money increases
(2) purchasing power of money decreases-Answer
(3) value of money increases
(4) purchasing power of money remains unaffected
(5) amount of money in circulation decreases

19. A centralized databases with online connectivity to branches, internet as  well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is own as
(1) Investment Banking (2) core Banking-Answer
(3) Mobile Banking (4) National Banking   
(5) Specialized Banking

20. The Unit Trust of India came into existence in
(1) 1960 (2) 1962 (3) 1964-Answer (4) 1966 (5) 1968

21. Which of the following is example of financial assets?
(1) National Saving Certificates
(2) Infrastructure Bonds (3) Indira Vikas Patra
(4) Krishi Vikas Patra (5) All of the above-Answer

22. Capital market is a market which deals in
(1) short-term funds (2) long-term funds-Answer (3) gilt-edge securities (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

23. Regional Rural Banks fall within supervisory purview of
(1) SBI (2) RBI -Answer(3) SEBI     4) IRDA (5) None of these

24. IRDA with its headquarters at ……… is the regulatory authority for all insurance companies in India including the Life Insurance Corporation of India.
(1) Hyderabad-Answer (2) Bengaluru (3) Mumbai     (4) Delhi (5) Chandigarh


25. Mutual Funds fall within 7 supervisory purview of
(1) SBI (2) RBI (3) SEBI -Answer(4) IRDA (5) None of these

26. Which of the following does not come under the category of Development Banks?
(1) Industrial Development Bank of India
(2) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(3) Industrial Investment Bank of India
(4) State Finance Corporation
(5) Export-import Bank-Answer

27. Main financial instruments of corporate sector are
(1) Shares (ii) Debentures (iii) Public Deposits
(iv) Loan from Institutions
Select the correct answer by using of the following codes
(1) i and ii  (2) ii and iii (3) iii and iv (4)1, ii and iv (5) All I, ii, iii and iv-Answer

28. Financial institutions
(1) promote savings (2) mobilise savings (3) allocate savings among different users
(4) All of the above -Answer(5) None of the above

29. Which of the following is not an / example of primary securities?
(1) Bills (2) Bonds (3) Shares (4) Book debts (5) New currency-Answer

30. Indian Financial System / comprises of
(1) Scheduled Commercial Banks
(2) Non-banking Financial Institutions
(3) Urban Cooperative Banks
(4) All of the above 
(5) None of the above-Answer

31. The Bombay Stock Exchange was 7 made functional as early as
(1) 1870 -Answer(2) 1901 (3) 1935 (4) 1951 (5) 1949

32.  The Unit Trust of India come into existence in
(1) 1964-Answer (2) 1970 (3) 1975 (4) 1980 (5) 1982

33. 19 July 1969, how commercial Banks were nationalised?
(1) 13 (2) 14 -Answer(3) 15 (4) 16 (5) 20


34. New Private Banks are being given licenses since
(1) 1991 (2) 1992 (3) 1993-Answer (4) 1995 (5) 2001

35. The gilt-edged market refers to the market for
(i) Government securities
(ii) Semi-government securities
(iii) Corporate securities   
Select the correct answer
(1) only i (2) i and ii -Answer(3) ii and iii (4) i, ii and iii (5) only iii

36. First share market in India established in
(1) Delhi (2) Mumbai-Answer (3) Kolkata (4) Chennai (5) None of these

37. Consider the following statements:
(i) Securities that have an original maturity that is greater than one year are traded in capital markets.
(ii) The best known capital market securities are stocks and bonds.
Select the correct answer
(1) (i) is true and (ii) is false (2) (i) is false and (ii) is true (3) Both are true-Answer (4) Both are false (5) None of the above

38. Consider the following statements:
(i) Securities that have an original maturity that is greater than one year are traded in money markets.
(ii) The best known money market securities are stocks and bonds.
(1) (i) is true and (ii) is false (2) (i) is false and (ii) is true (3) Both are true (4) Both are false-Answer (5) None of the above

39. The primary issuers of capital market securities include
(1) the Central Government (2) the local Government (3) corporations 4) the Central and Local Governments and corporations-Answer (5) Local Government and corporations

40. Which of the following is a / characteristic of a capital market instrument?
(a) Liquidity (b) Marketability (3) Long maturity (4) Liquidity premium 5) All of the above-Answer

41. Which one of the following is a money market instruments?
(1) A Treasury bill   
(2) A negotiable certificate of deposit was
(3) Commercial paper
(4) All of the above -Answer
(5) None of the above

42. T-bills are financial instruments initially sold by ________ to raise funds.
(1) Commercial Banks 
(2) the government-Answer
(3) corporations   
(4) agencies of the State Government
(5) None of the above

43. Commercial paper is a short-term security issued by ________ to raise funds.
(1) the Reserve Bank of India
(2) Commercial Banks
(3) large and well-known companies-Answer
(4) National Stock Exchange
(5) State and Local Governments

44. Which of the following statements is true regarding a corporate bond?
(1) A corporate callable bond gives the holder the right to exchange it for a specified number of the company’s common shares
(2) A corporate debenture is a secured /‘ bond
(3) A corporate indenture is a secured bond
(4) A corporate convertible bond gives the holder the right to exchange thebond for a specified number of the company’s common shares  -Answer
(5) Holders of corporate bonds have voting rights in the company

45. Which one of the following is not a money market instrument?
(1) A Treasury bill (2) A negotiable certificate of deposit (3) Commercial paper (4) Treasury bond-Answer (5) Repo

46. Money lend for 15 days or more in Inter-bank market is called
(1) call money (2) notice mone (3) term money-Answer (4) All of these (5) None of these

47. Money lent for one day is called
(1) call money -Answer(2) notice money (3) term money (4) All of these (5) None of these

48. Specified interest rate on a fixed maturity security fixed at the time of issue is called
(1) market rate of interest (2) call rate (3) repo rate (4) coupon rate -Answer5) discount rate

49. Lending of scheduled Commercial Banks, on a fortnightly average basis,  should not exceed — of their capital fund.
(1) 25 per cent -Answer(2) 35 per cent (3) 15 per cent (4) 50 per cent (5) None of these


50. A short-term credit investment created by a non-financial firm and  guaranteed by a bank to make payment is called
(1) bankers acceptance market-Answer (2) collateral loan market (3) treasury bill market (4) call money market (5) repo market

51.From the given options A to E , please find out the one which is not an objective of a central Bank of a country?
(A)The central Bank of a country aims at profit-Answer
(B)The central bank is given powers to control and regulate the working of the commercial banks
(C)Central Bank generally is a organ of the government and run by government officials
(D)Central Bank generally controls the credit
(E)Central bank is generally banker of the government

52.From the given options, bring out the one which is not a function / power of Reserve Bank of India:
(A)To assume the responsibility of meeting directly or indirectly all reasonable demands for accommodation
(B)To hold cash reserves of the commercial banks and make available financial accommodation to them
(C)To enjoy monopoly of the note issue
(D)To assume responsibility of all banking operations of the government
(E)To assume the responsibility of statistical analysis of data related to macro economy of India-Answer

53.Many a times we read in the newspapers about margin requirements. From the given options, find out the one which correctly indicates margin requirements:
(A)Margin requirements aim at the regulation of the volume of credit as well as flow of the credit
(B)Margin requirements imply that every bank has to keep certain minimum cash reserves with the reserve bank of India
(C)Margin requirements imply that every bank has to keep certain proportion of its total deposits in the form of cash with it self
(D)Margin requirements imply that RBI has certain rate at which it discounts the bills of exchange of the commercial bank
(E)Margin requirements imply to a cushion against the decline in the value of the security-Answer

54.What will be the impact on the cash reserves of commercial banks if RBI conducts a sale of securities ?
(A)Increase
(B)Decrease-Answer
(C)Remain constant
(D)Increase or decrease
(E)Increase if the securities are sold in open market operations

55.Which among the following is a major qualitative control measure in India ?
(A)Bank Rate Policy
(B)Open market Operations
(C)ways and means advances
(D)Reserve Ratio Requirements
(E)Margin Requirements-Answer

56.Many a times we read in the financial newspapers that Reserve bank of India is "Lender of Last Resort (LOLR) " In India. Which among the following statement gives the most correct definition of "Lender of Last Resort"?
(A)If a person or firm which is eligible to get a loan, does not get it from any commercial bank, may approach to Reserve Bank of India for loan.
(B)If the state governments are in crisis and need money for short term , they can approach RBI for this purpose
(C)If a commercial bank is in crisis, it may place its reasonable demand for accommodation to Reserve Bank of India-Answer
(D)A scheduled commercial bank meets all of its demands in all weathers from Reserve bank of India
(E)Whenever the government declares a debt relief, the RBI will have to bear the brunt of it.

57.(The figures in this questions are imaginary). We suppose that Cash Reserve Ratio in country's economy is 10%. The banking system wish a cash deposits of Rs. 1000 Crore, creates total deposits of Rs. 10,000 Crores. The reserve Bank wishes that bank should create more deposits. Which
among the following step will be taken by the Reserve Bank?
(A)It will lower the Cash Reserve Ratio-Answer
(B)It will raise the Cash Reserve Ratio
(C)It will increase the margin Requirements
(D)It will start selling Government securities
(E)It will start rationing of credit

58.Many a times we read in the newspapers that RBI takes certain steps to curb the menace of Inflation. In this context, which among the following will not help RBI in controlling the inflation in the country?
(A)An increase in the Bank Rate
(B)An increase in the Reserve Ratio Requirements
(C)A purchase of securities in the open market-Answer

(D)Rationing of the credit
(E)Increasing the Repo Rate

59.We suppose that Reserve Bank of India would like to increase the cash Reserves of the commercial Banks. Which among the following would be most appropriate action of the RBI to achieve this aim?
(A)RBI would release gold from its reserves
(B)RBI would raise the reserve ratio
(C)RBI would buy the bonds in the open market-Answer
(D)RBI will stop the transactions which involve the bills of exchange
(E)RBI will put more reserves in the International Monetary Fund

60.Which among the following is a incorrect statement:
(A)The Reserve Bank of India has the special powers to control and regulate the commercial banking system
(B)A rise in the bank rate is a strong anti-deflationary monetary tool-Answer
(C)Minimum Reserve Requirements are fixed to ensure the liquidity and solvency of individual commercial banks
(D)Reserve Ratio Requirement is a quicker method than bank rate and OMO (Open Market Operations) in general credit regulations
(E)Rationing of credit is a powerful qualitative monetary tool

61.Since which year, Reserve bank of India is using the Selective Credit Control measures to control the amount of bank advances against the commodities having limited supply ?
(A)1949
(B)1956-Answer
(C)1969
(D)1973
(E)1982

62.The "Service area Approach" was an strategy launched to improve which of the following?
(A)Micro, Small and medium Enterprising
(B)Unorganized Sector
(C)Rural lending-Answer
(D)Urban Industrial Lending
(E)A & B

63.Which among the following bank / banks in India have set up the Financial Literacy & Credit Counseling centers ?
(A)RBI
(B)Scheduled Commercial banks-Answer
(C)Foreign Banks working in India
(D)Regional Rural Banks
(E)All of above

64.Which of the following imaginary circumstances, the Reserve bank of India will opt to sell Government securities in the open market?
(A)When the Foreign funds inflow is meek
(B)When there is enormous Foreign Funds Inflow in the Indian Economy-Answer
(C)When banks have low liquidity and need liquidity
(D)When Government of India asks the RBI to sell securities
(E)None of the above

65.Which among the following is correct full form of CAS in context with banking markets in India ?
(A)Cash Authorization Scheme
(B)Credit Authorization Scheme-Answer
(C)Credit Access System
(D)Credit Arrangement System
(E)Cash Accreditation Scheme

TJSB Reasoning questions with answers

 Qn.1
SECTION-I-REASONING
In a code,if ‘-‘means ‘x’,’x’ means ‘+’,’+’means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘-‘ then find the value of the expression [9÷18x15+3-6x12] which is sritten in the code. 
 
24
30
33
42
48
Answer:24
Explanation:By converting the symbols according to the given definitions we get 9-18 ÷3x6+12 solving this by BODMAS rule we get the value as 33

Qn.2
In a certain code language,if the value of KNOWLEDGE=81 and INNOVATION=100 Then what is the value of INTERNATIONAL?
144
196
225
169
256
Answer:169
Explanation:KNOWLEDGE=81(9*9=81) INNOVATION=100(10*10=100) INTERNATIONAL=169(13*13=169)

Qn.3
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
Green
Yellow
Grey
Red
Blue
Answer:Grey
Explanation:Ans: c) GreyExpl:Except grey all other are different colours of a rainbow
.

Qn.4
My school is to the East of my bouse. My father’s office is to the South-West of my school. A park is to the South of my school. Towards which direction is my house located with respect to the park?
East
North-West
South-East
South
North-East
Answer:East
Explanation:As per the given data,we get Picture same as
MY house is towrds the North -West of the park

Qn.5
Which of the following has the same relation with “Circle’ as “Diagonal’with the ‘Square’?
Chord
Radius
Diameter
Tangent
Arch

Qn.6
Directions for questions 6 to 10 : These questions are based on following information. A group of digits,symbols and their respective letter codes are given below.

Conditions (i) If the second and the last elements of the group are digit and symbol respectively then code both of them as ‘j’
(ii) If both the first and the last elements of the group are symbols then code both of them as ‘D’
(iii) If third and fourth elements of the group are digit and symbol respectively then interchange thhhheir respective codes.
(iv) If both the last two elements are symbols then code both of them as ‘Z’
Find the codes for the groups of elements given below using digit/symbol and their respective codes according to the above conditions.
3 4 © 9 8 €
gjjdzn
gtdjzz
gjdjzj
dtdjzd
gtdjzn
Answer:gjdjzj
Explanation:The given group of elements of 3 4 © 9 8 € This group follows condition(i) Hence the code is g j d z j
.

 

TJSB english question for practice

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. 


The great sage once had a group of disciples. They were all very bright and eager students and the sage had all the reasons to be proud of them. One day the sage realized that he had imparted enough knowledge to his disciples. Now they were all very learned. There was only one thing the sage had not taught them, and that was the special verse that could bring the dead back to life. The sage knew that such knowledge was too wonderful and could prove to be a dangerous thing in the hands of someone who was not very wise. The sage pondered over this for a long time. But he also knew that if he did not pass on this secret verse, it could die with him. So, at last he called his cleverest disciple aside and said “I am going to teach you a very special verse. If you chant this you can bring to life a dead person or animal. Use only when you need it to and never misuse or test your powers vainly.” He then called all the disciples together and said, “I am sending you all into the forest for forty days. Go together and come back together. Each one of you has to guide one another and do good things.”So the disciples started out together into the forest. They were all united. But the clever disciple who knew the verse wanted to show he was better than the others. As they walked into the forest, they came across a dead tiger on the way. It was huge and looked wickedly fierce even when dead. The clever disciple stopped and said to the others. “Now I am going to show you what our teacher has taught me alone. He has taught me how to bring life back into the dead.” The others would not believe him and he said, “I would prove it to you by bringing this tiger back to life. “But other disciple said “do not do anything to prove your knowledge vainly. Moreover, if you put life into this tiger, it will only turn on us and kill us all. This will not be a wise thing to do.”But the clever disciple had decided to prove himself and prepared to recite the verse. But before he did so, the other disciples scrambled up to the topmost branches of a big tree nearby. The disciple then recited the magical verse. The tiger slowly began to breathe. “Its working” cried the disciple in excitement and joy. The tiger opened its eyes and saw him jumping and shouting in front of him. Roaring loudly, the tiger pounced on the poor disciple and killed him.The other disciples on the tree watched helplessly as the tiger threw down the dead body of the disciple and went away into the forest. After some time the disciples came down, took the body and went to the sage. The sage looked at them and said, “Now you see what can happen if you don’t use your learning wisely. Let this be a lesson for you.” With that, the sage uttered the magic verse and brought the dead disciple back to life. The sage then taught the verse to all his disciples and sent them into the world to do good. He was sure that after such a lesson, they would be wiser and use their knowledge and learning only for doing good.

Q1. Why did the other disciples climb the highest branches of the nearby tree ?
(A) To save their lives from the tiger
(B) They disliked the clever disciple and were hiding away from him
(C) To enjoy watching the tiger kill the disciple from a safe distance
(D) Because the sage had not taught the other disciples the secret verse
(E) None of these

Q2. Why did the sage send his disciples to the forest ?
(A) He wanted to get rid of them
(B) He had imparted all the knowledge he had and was left with nothing to teach
(C) He wanted them to be killed by a tiger so that he could test his secret verse
(D) So that the disciples could practice his secret verse on the wild animals
(E) None of these

Q3. Which of the following morals can be drawn from the above passage ?
(A) A teacher must pass on all his knowledge to others before he dies
(B) Advice of true friends should always be taken
(C) Teachers should always be impartial and should impart knowledge to all uniformly
(D) The knowledge and learning gained should never the misused
(E) None of these

Q4. Why did the sage decide to pass on his secret verse to his disciples ?
(A) So that the cleverest of the disciples may teach other disciples as well
(B) He did not want the verse to die with him
(C) So that the tiger may eat the cleverest disciple
(D) So that he could prove his genius to his disciples
(E) None of these

Q5. What did the sage say to his disciple while teaching his secret verse ?
(A) Never to misuse the power achieved with the help of the verse
(B) Not to use it on the wild animals
C) Not to share it with other disciples
(D) To practice it on animals before humans
(E) None of these

Q6. How did the other disciples react when the clever disciple decided to bring the tiger back to life ?
(A) They felt jealous of him
(B) They all felt that it was a wise thing to do
(C) They felt sorry for the tiger
(D) They tried to stop him as he could put their lives in danger
(E) None of these

Q7. Why was the sage proud of his disciples ?
(A) Because they had agreed to go to the forest for a long period of 40 days
(B) Because they had fought against the tiger very bravely
(C) Because they could bring the dead tiger back to life
(D) Because they were very bright and eager students
E) None of these

Q8. Who/what is described as wicked and fierce by the author ?
(A) The clever disciple
(B) The sage
(C) The tiger
(D) The forest
(E) None of these

Q9. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The clever disciple was brought back to life by the sage
(B) The sage wanted his disciples to use their learning only for doing good
(C) The sage was biased towards the clever disciple and disliked others
(D) The sage ultimately taught the secret verse to all his disciples
(E) All are true

Q10. Why did the clever disciple recite the verse to the dead tiger ?
(A) So that the other disciples may be eaten up by the tiger
(B) To flaunt the power of the verse to the other disciples
(C) Because the sage told him to do so
(D) So that he could himself to the sage
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING. 
Q11. pondered
(A) guessed
(B) puzzled
(C) studied
(D) thought
(E) attended

Q12. pounced 
(A) climbed
(B) looked
(C) roared
(D) plunged
(E) jumped

Q13. cried 
(A) wept
(B) screamed
(C) protested
(D) tearfu
l(E) saddened

Directions—(Q. 14 –15)
Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING. 
Q14. bright
(A) dim
(B) soft
(C) dull
(D) faint
(E) vague

Q15. fierce 
(A) timid
(B) emotiona
l(C) civilized
(D) pleased
(E) domesticated

Directions—(Q. 16 –20)
Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentences should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ?
If the sentence is correct as it is given and No Correction is Required, mark (E) as the answer.

Q16. He wants a start a new business but he did not have any money.
(A) Thought to start(B) Want to started(C) Wanted to start(D) Wants for start(E) No Correction Required

Q17. As Rohan was already late, he had his breakfast while walk down the road.
(A) walking down the(B) walking at the(C) walked on the(D) walked down the(E) No Correction Required

Q18. The poor bullock do not move since the cart was overloaded with heavy goods.
(A) can not move(B) unable to move(C) was not moved(D) could not move(E) No Correction Required

Q19. He covered the expensive furniture at sheet before he started painting the ceiling.
(A) with sheet ahead(B) with sheet before(C) in sheet prior(D) in sheet earlier(E) No Correction Required

Q20. The smoke if inhaled proves to be more fatal than the burn itself.
(A) be most fatal(B) kill more fatal(C) be additional fatal(D) be greater fatal(E) No Correction Required

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below a sentences with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four printed in bold may be either misspelt or inappropriatein the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

Q21. Indian peoples (A) invest (B) as much (C) in gold as in bank savings accounts. (D) All correct (E)

Q22. The issues (A) of hunger and poorty (B) are left behind (C) as we have progressed (D) in technology. All correct (E)

Q23. Rajan would (A) pick (B) up his children from (C) the school and superwise (D) their homework. All correct (E)

Q24. A good (A) leader is of prime (B) importance for develop (C) of any organisation. (D) All correct (E)

Q25. The milk vendor (A) studied hard (B) for four years before topped (C) the national level (D) exam. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—1. The emperor was impressed with me and rewarded me suitably.2. He then asked me to make it shorter without erasing its ends.3. One fine day the king decided to test my intelligence.4. By doing so, I could make the line shorter without erasing the ends.5. After thinking over it for some time, I drew longer lines on both the ends of the line that the emperor had drawn.6. He drew a line on the floor with the help of a chalk

Q26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 4(E) 5

Q27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2(B) 3(C) 4(D) 5(E) 6

Q28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 4(E) 5

Q29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2(B) 3(C) 4(D) 5(E) 6

Q30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 4(E) 5

Directions—(Q. 31– 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Q31. She considered herself (A) / very fortunate to (B) / have had a (C) / very good education. (D) No error (E)

Q32. A lot number of people (A) / donate money to the organisation (B) / at this time (C) / of the year. (D) No error (E)

Q33. The leader of the opposition (A) / is in the danger (B) / of lost his seat (C) / in the next elections. (D) No error (E)

Q34. He is the same (A) / ice-cream vendor (B) / which sold ice-creams (C) / when we were kids. (D) No error (E)

Q35. The police received (A) / tremendous support from (B) / the general public (C) / over that issue. (D) No error (E)

Q36. I have bought for my sister (A) / a bottle of perfume (B) / on her birthday (C) / and I hope she liked it. (D) No error (E)

Q37. Throughout his tenure (A) / at the office he (B) / have proven himself to be a (C) / talented and hard-working employee. (D) No error (E)

Q38. The committee did not (A) / approve the plan (B) / since it were (C) / neither practical nor efficient. (D) No error (E)

Q39. The bus driver drove rashly (A) / and we had (B) / a narrow escape (C) / on a number of occasions. (D) No error (E)

Q40. He never remember (A) / to pick up the (B) / milk bottles while (C) / picking up the newspaper. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Thesenumbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The visit to the planet earth museum is always exciting and teaches some interesting …(41)… about the world we live in.Forests are home to nearly half of the world’s plants and animals. Trees clean the air and …(42)… oxygen for us to breathe. Everyday we cut …(43)… trees and destroy more than 36 football fields of forests.Rivers collect rainwater and …(44)… it to the oceans. Farms and factories pollute the rivers with pesticides and chemicals. This is harmful to the marine animals and the humans …(45)… drink it. At the opposite ends of the worlds, Arctic and the Antarctic are freezing cold. So cold that they are …(46)… covered in ice. The fuel we use makes the climate …(47)… It melts the ice and the water level rises which …(48)… to floods. Out planet is …(49)…. We must conserve it by using as much renewable sources of energy as possible. Every individual must play his part to …(50)… to the protection of the environment.

Q41. (A) concept(B) observation(C) facts(D) experience(E) struggles

Q42. (A) take(B) acquire(C) display(D) filter(E) produce

Q43. (A) down(B) lots(C) much(D) through(E) thousands

Q44. (A) throw(B) dispenses(C) merges(D) carry(E) combines

Q45. (A) which(B) who(C) whom(D) that(E) those

Q46. (A) never(B) once(C) most(D) equally(E) always

Q47. (A) colder(B) uncomfortable(C) heated(D) warmer(E) burning

Q48. (A) leads(B) results(C) leading(D) grows(E) develop

Q49. (A) indestructible(B) intense(C) precious(D) expensive(E) lavish

Q50. (A) help(B) contribute(C) afford(D) result(E) leading

 

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