State Bank of India Whole-Testpaper Contributed by Yanthrik updated on Jun 2019

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1. Statement: Should all the profit making public sector units be sold to private companies?

Arguments:
Yes. This will help the government to augment its resources for implementing the development programmes.
No. The private companies will not be able to run these units effectively.
Yes. There will be a significant improvement in the quality of services.
No. There would not be job security for the employees at all the levels.
A. Only II and III are strong
B. All are strong
C. Only III and IV are strong
D. Only I, II and III are strong
E. Only II, III and IV are strong
Answer: Option C

Explanation:

The government cannot sell off public sector units just to pool up funds for development. Besides, if it does so, these units shall be handed over to private companies which are fully equipped to run these units effectively. So, neither I nor II holds strong. Privatization shall surely ensure better services, but private companies adopt hire and fire policy and they are free to terminate the services of any employee as and when they wish to. Thus, both III and IV hold strong.



Direction (for Q.No. 2):
In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.

2. Statement: The company has decided to increase the price of all its products to tackle the precarious financial position.

Assumptions:
The company may be able to wipe out the entire losses incurred earlier by this decision.
The buyers may continue to buy its products even after the increase.
The company has adequate resources to continue production for few more months.
A. Only I and III are implicit
B. Only II is implicit
C. Only II and III are implicit
D. None is implicit
E. None of these
Answer: Option A

Explanation:

It is mentioned that the company has taken the decision to make up for the financial deficit. So, I is implicit. The response of the buyers to the increased prices cannot be deduced from the statement. So, II is not implicit. Since the company seeks to improve its financial position by increasing the prices of its products, so III is also implicit.
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Direction (for Q.No. 3):
Translate from an imaginary language into English. Then, look for the word elements that appear both on the list and in the answer choices.

3. 
Here are some words translated from an artificial language.
gemolinea means fair warning
gerimitu means report card
gilageri means weather report
Which word could mean "fair weather"?
A. gemogila
B. gerigeme
C. gemomitu
D. gerimita
Answer: Option A

Explanation:

Gemo means fair; linea means warning; geri means report;mitumeans card; and gilameans weather. Thus, gemogila is the correct choice.
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Direction (for Q.No. 4):
Choose the picture that would go in the empty box so that the two bottom pictures are related in the same way as the top two are related.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Camera is to photograph as teakettle is to a cup of tea. The camera is used to make the photo; the teakettle is used to make the tea.


Direction (for Q.No. 5):
The logic problems in this set present you with three true statements: Fact 1, Fact 2, and Fact 3. Then, you are given three more statements (labeled I, II, and III), and you must determine which of these, if any, is also a fact. One or two of the statements could be true; all of the statements could be true; or none of the statements could be true. Choose your answer based solely on the information given in the first three facts.

5. Fact 1: Most stuffed toys are stuffed with beans.
Fact 2: There are stuffed bears and stuffed tigers.
Fact 3: Some chairs are stuffed with beans.
If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact?
I: Only children's chairs are stuffed with beans.
II: All stuffed tigers are stuffed with beans.
III: Stuffed monkeys are not stuffed with beans.
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. None of the statements is a known fact.
Answer: Option D

Explanation:

None of the three statements is supported by the known facts.


Direction (for Q.No. 6):
In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Give answer:

(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows and
(E) If both I and II follow.
6. 
Statements: Use "Kraft" colours. They add colour to our life. - An advertisement.

Conclusions:

Catchy slogans do not attract people.
People like dark colours.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow
Answer: Option D

Explanation:

The slogan given in the statement is definitely a catchy one which indicates that catchy slogans do attract people. So, I does not follow. Nothing about people's preference for colours can be deduced from the statement. Thus, II also does not follow.
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Direction (for Q.No. 7):
Choose the statement that is best supported by the information given in the question passage.

7. Close-up images of Mars by the Mariner 9 probe indicated networks of valleys that looked like the stream beds on Earth. These images also implied that Mars once had an atmosphere that was thick enough to trap the sun's heat. If this were true, something happened to Mars billions of years ago that stripped away the planet's atmosphere.
This paragraph best supports the statement that

A. Mars now has little or no atmosphere.
B. Mars once had a thicker atmosphere than Earth does.
C. the Mariner 9 probe took the first pictures of Mars.
D. Mars is closer to the sun than Earth is.
E. Mars is more mountainous than Earth is.
Answer: Option A

Explanation:

The paragraph states that Mars once had a thick atmosphere, but that it was stripped away. The other choices, true or not, cannot be found in the passage.
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Direction (for Q.No. 8):
In each of the following questions, three statements are given followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and TV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

8. Statements: All rods are bricks. Some bricks are ropes. All ropes are doors.

Conclusions:

Some rods are doors.
Some doors are bricks.
Some rods are not doors.
All doors are ropes.
A. Only I and II follow
B. Only I, II and III follow
C. Only either I or III, and II follow
D. Only either I or III, and IV follow
E. None of these
Answer: Option E

Explanation:

All rods are bricks. Some bricks are ropes.

Since the middle term 'bricks' is not distributed even once in the premises, no definite conclusion follows.

Some bricks are ropes. All ropes are doors.

Since one premise is particular, the conclusion must be particular and should not contain the middle term. So, it follows that 'Some bricks are doors'. II is the converse of this conclusion and so it holds.

All rods are bricks. Some bricks are doors.

Since the middle term 'bricks' is not distributed even once in the premises, no definite conclusion follows.

However, I and III involve the extreme terms. But, since they are not contradictory, they do not form a complementary pair.

Hence, only II follows.


Direction (for Q.No. 9):
Three of the words will be in the same classification, the remaining one will not be. Your answer will be the one word that does NOT belong in the same classification as the others.

9. Which word does NOT belong with the others?

A. 
branch
B. 
dirt
C. 
leaf
D. 
root
Answer: Option B

Explanation:

A branch, leaf, and root are all parts of a tree. The dirt underneath is not a part of the tree.
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Direction (for Q.No. 10):
In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the three given suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.

10. Statement: The Company X has rejected first lot of values supplied by Company A and has cancelled its entire huge order quoting use of inferior quality material and poor craftsmanship.

Courses of Action:

The Company A needs to investigate functioning of its purchase, production and quality control departments.
The Company A should inspect all the valves rejected by Company X.
The Company A should inform Company X that steps have been taken for improvement and renegotiate schedule of supply.
A. Only I and II follow
B. Only II follows
C. II, and either I or III follow
D. All I, II and III follow
E. 
None of these
Answer: Option A

Explanation:

First of all, company A should inspect the rejected valves to ensure if they are really sub-standard. If yes, it should scrutinise its working thoroughly and remove its lackenings, be it in the quality of raw material or craftsmanship. So, both I and II follow. III seems to be a far-off action which can be implemented only after the first two steps are put into practice. Thus, III does not follow,
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Direction (for Q.No. 11):
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Give answer

(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.
11. 
Statement: "Avon Cycles - Fast, easy to ride, impressive, reliable, crafted and up-to-date automation." - An advertisement.

Assumptions:

There is no other cycle with any of these features.
People do not bother about the cost.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit
Answer: Option D

Explanation:

The advertisement is for Avon cycles and nothing about the cost or the features of other brands of cycles, is mentioned. So, neither I nor II is implicit.
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Direction (for Q.Nos. 12 - 14):
In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.

12. Statement: The successful man has the ability to judge himself correctly.

Assumptions:

Inability to judge correctly causes failure.
To judge others is of no use to a successful man.
The successful man cannot make a wrong judgement.
A. None is implicit
B. All are implicit
C. Only I and II are implicit
D. Only II and III are implicit
E. 
Only I and III are implicit
Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Assumptions I and III directly follow from the statement and so both are implicit. Also, the basic quality of a successful man is that he can judge himself. This means that he need not judge others. So, II is also implicit.
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13. Statement: Quality of life of a person is not dependent only on his wealth.

Assumptions:

The aim of most people is just to acquire more wealth.
There are some factors other than wealth which contribute to the quality of life.
Wealth does not contribute to the quality of life at all.
A. Only I is implicit
B. Only I and II are implicit
C. Only II is implicit
D. Only II and III are implicit
E. Only I and III are implicit
Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Clearly, I does not follow from the statement. So, it is not implicit. The statement mentions that quality of life does not depend only on wealth. This means that there are some other factors as well, which govern the quality of life. But this does not imply that wealth does not contribute at all. So, II is implicit while III is not.
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14. Statement: Ravi decided to leave office at 4.00 p.m. to catch a flight to Bangalore departing at 6.00 p.m.

Assumptions:
The flight to Bangalore may be delayed.
He may be able to reach airport well before 6.00 p.m.
He may get adequate time to search for a vehicle to go to the airport.
A. None is implicit
B. Only II is implicit
C. Only II and III are implicit
D. All are implicit
E. None of these
Answer: Option C

Explanation:

I cannot be assumed from the given statement and so it is not implicit. Also, knowing that his flight is scheduled to depart at 6 p.m., Ravi would leave accordingly, keeping enough time to search for a vehicle and to reach the airport well before time. So, both II and III are implicit.
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Direction (for Q.No. 15):
In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Give answer:

(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows and
(E) If both I and II follow.

15. Statements: The XYZ Medical College has started a cell which will conduct counselling workshops in the field of stress management to patients and general public.

Conclusions:
The hospital has needed resources to start such activity.
Patients and general public feel a need to have such cell in the hospital.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow
Answer: Option E

Explanation:

Since the hospital has started the activity, it must have been well-equipped for the same. So, I follows. Also, any new activity is started keeping in mind the need for it. So, II also follows.


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Direction (for Q.No. 16):
In each of the following questions, a statement/group of statements is given followed by some conclusions. Without resolving anything yourself choose the conclusion which logically follows from the given statements).

16. Soldiers serve their country.

A. Men generally serve their country.
B. Those who serve their country are soldiers.
C. Some men who are soldiers serve their country.
D. Women do not serve their country because they are not soldiers.
Answer: Option C

Direction (for Q.No. 17):
Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.

Give answer:

(A) If only argument I is strong
(B) If only argument II is strong
(C) If either I or II is strong
(D) If neither I nor II is strong and
(E) If both I and II are strong.

17. Statement: Should higher education be restricted to only those who can bear the expenditure?

Arguments:

Yes. Higher education is very costly; hence it should not be given free.
No. There are a large number of brilliant students who cannot afford to pay and they should be given higher education.
A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. 
Both I and II are strong
Answer: Option B

Explanation:

For the all-round progress of the nation, all the students, especially the talented and intelligent ones, must avail of higher education, even if the government has to pay for it. So, only argument II holds.

Direction (for Q.No. 18):
A good way to figure out the relationship in a given question is to make up a sentence that describes the relationship between the first two words. Then, try to use the same sentence to find out which of the answer choices completes the same relationship with the third word.

18. Exercise is to gym as eating is to

A. food
B. dieting
C. fitness
D. restaurant
Answer: Option D

Explanation:

A gym is a place where people exercise. A restaurant is a place where people eat. Food (choice a) is not the answer because it is something people eat, not a place or location where they eat. The answer is not choice b or c because neither represents a place where people eat.


Direction (for Q.No. 19):
The words in the bottom row are related in the same way as the words in the top row. For each item, find the word that completes the bottom row of words.

19. 
apples fruit supermarket novel book ?
A. bookstore
B. magazine
C. vegetable
D. shopping
Answer: Option A

Explanation:

The relationship above the line is as follows; apples are a kind of fruit; fruit is sold in a supermarket. Below the line, the relationship is: a novel is a kind of book; books are sold in a bookstore.


Direction (for Q.No. 20):
Read the question carefully and choose the correct answer.

20. At the baseball game, Henry was sitting in seat 253. Marla was sitting to the right of Henry in seat 254. In the seat to the left of Henry was George. Inez was sitting to the left of George. Which seat is Inez sitting in?

A. 251
B. 254
C. 255
D. 256
Answer: Option A

Explanation:

If George is sitting at Henry's left, George's seat is 252. The next seat to the left, then, is 251.

1. Many a times we read in newspapers about a term ?dematerialization?. In context with the markets, what is dematerialization of securities?
Ans. Electronic holding of the shares replacing the paper securities

2. Name the identity cards which are being distributed to all persons above the age of 18 residing in the nine maritime states and four Union Territories under the national Population Register (NPR) scheme.
Ans. Resident Identity Card

3. What is the new disinvestment target set by the Union Budget for the fiscal year 2012-13 (in crores)?
Ans. 30,000

4. How much percentage of fund allocated to the priority sector lending by the commercial banks in India, as stipulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), goes to Agricultural sector?
Ans. 18%

5. The book titled ?The World Beneath His Feet? is the biography of which sportsman?
Ans. Pulela Gopichand

6. The Reserve Bank of India has introduced a new facility recently, via which the banks can dip below 1% of their statutory liquidity ratio to avail cash from this window. What is the name of this facility ?
Ans. Marginal Standing Facility

7. Name India?s first cruise missile that will travel at a sub-sonic speed developed by the Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO)?
Ans. Nirbhay

8. Which is the first private sector employer of India to introduce the National Pension Scheme for its employees?
Ans. Wipro

9. Which bank won the prestigious Asian Banker Achievement Award for being the strongest bank in Asia-Pacific region?
Ans. State Bank of India

10. The 5th edition of the World Energy Summit was held recently at:
Ans. Abudhabi

11. Daniel Shechtman from Israel is the Nobel Prize winner of 2011. Which field does he relate to?
Ans. Chemistry

12. Who is the author of the famous novel ?War and Peace??
Ans. Leo Tolstoy

13. The 35th National Games will be held in:
Ans. Kerala

14. Who is known as ?The Grand Old Man of India??
Ans. Dhada Bhai Naoroji

15. The currency of Myanmar is:
Ans. Kyat

16. Which of the following countries is not a member of South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?
a)China
b)India
c)Nepal
d)Bangladesh
Ans. China

17. How many public sector banks are currently there in India?
Ans. 27

18. Dhada Saheb Phalke awards are given by the Ministry of:
Ans. Information and Broadcasting

19. When milk is churned the cream from it is seperated by:
Ans. Centifugal force

20. Who is the cabinet minister of civil aviation department of the Union Government?
Ans. Ajith Singh
Computer General Awareness for Bank PO and Clerk
Computer General Awareness Sample Questions for Bank PO and Clerk

1. This ......... tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and provides access to data.
(a)Client
(b)Applications/Web server
(c)Enterprise server
(d)DBA
(e)None of these
Ans. Client

2. A polymorphic virus:
(a)modifies its program code each time it attaches itself to another program or file
(b)is a malicious-logic program that copies itself repeatedly in memory or on a disk drive until no memory or disk space remains
(c)a malicious logic program that hides within or looks like a legitimate program
(d)infects a program file, but still reports the size and creation date of the original, uninfected program
(e)None of these
Ans. modifies its program code each time it attaches itself to another program or file

3. The Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) specification :
(a)is a notice, issued and verified by a certificate authority, that guarantees a user or Website is legitimate
(b)provides private key encryption of all data that passes between a client and a server
(c)allows users to choose an encryption scheme for the data that passes between a client and a server
(d)uses a public key encryption to secure credit-card transaction systems
(e)None of these
Ans. Uses a public-key encryption to secure credit-card transaction systems

4. ......... allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and its services such as the Web and e-mail:
(a)TCP/IP
(b)Ethernet
(cWAP
(d)Token ring
(e)None of these
Ans. WAP

5. 'DOS' floppy disk does not have:
(a)A Boot Record
(b)A File Allocation Table
(c)A Root Directory
(d)Virtual Memory
(e)BIOS
Ans. Virtual Memory

6. A passive threat to computer security is:
(a)Malicious Intent
(b)Sabotage
(c)Accident Errors
(d)Espionage Agents
(e)None of these
Ans. Malicious Intent

7. All of the following are basic principles of net works, except:
(a)each computer must have a network card
(b)there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices
(c)there must be at least one connecting device
(d)each computer must have software that supports the movement of information
(e)None of these
Ans. there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices

8. 'MICR' technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to:
(a)Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
(b)Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition
(c)Magnetic Information Cable Recognition
(d)Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition
(e)None of these
Ans. Magnetic Ink Character Recognition

9. All the information collected during database development is stored in a:
(a)repository
(b)data warehouse
(c)RAD
(d)CASE
(e)None of these
Ans. data warehouse

10. The ......... component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database.
(a)data extraction
(b)end-user query tool
(c)end-user presentation tool
(d)data store
(e)None of these
Ans. end-user query tool
1. First Governor of RBI was:
(a)Hilton Young
(b)Paul Samuelson
(c)C.D.Deskmukh
(d)O.A Smith
Ans. (d) O.A Smith

2. At the time of nationalization who was the Governor of RBI:
(a)O.A Smith
(b)J.B Taylor
(c)C.D. Deshmukh
(d)K.C.Neogy
Ans. (c) C.D. Deshmukh

3. The RBI was nationalized in the year:
(a)1949
(b)1956
(c)1959
(d)1947
Ans. (a) 1949

4. The general superintendence and director of the bank is entrusted to central board of directors of:
(a)10 members
(b)20 members
(c)25 members
(d)30 members
Ans. (b) 20 members

5. Paper currencies of our country are issued by RBI under:
(a)Section 22 of the RBI act 1934
(b)Section 24 of the RBI act 1934
(c)Section 28 of the RBI act 1934
(d)None of these
Ans. (a) Section 22 of the RBI act 1934

6. One rupee currency notes bear the signature of:
(a)PM
(b)President of India
(c)Governor of RBI
(d)Finance Secretary of India
Ans. (d) Finance Secretary of India

7. Ten rupees notes bear the signature of:
(a)President
(b)Finance Minister
(c)Secretary of Ministry of finance
(d)Governor of RBI
Ans. (d) Governor of RBI

8. Which of the following is the banker of the banks:
(a)IDBI
(b)SBI
(c)RBI
(d)UTI
Ans. (c) RBI

9. In which of the following banks one can?t open a personal account:
(a)Co-Operative Banks
(b)Commercial banks
(c)Regional Rural Banks
(d)RBI
Ans. (d) RBI

10. Which of the following banks is the banker to the government:
(a)SBI
(b)SEBI
(c)RBI
(d)IRDA
Ans. (c) RBI
1. The term of office of an elected member shall be ......... years from the date of which he enters upon office.
Ans. 5

2. In a circle co-operative union reservation for women is ......... 
Ans. 1

3. The authority competent to reject a ballot paper shall be the ......... 
Ans. Returning Officer

4. Any dispute relating to the election of the circle co-operative union shall be referred to the ......... 
Ans. Registrar

5. The management of the affairs of the circle co-operative union shall vest in the body constituted under section ......... 
Ans. 88

6. Section ......... of KCS Act deals about the establishment of State Co-operative Union.
Ans. 89

7. The Audit of a State Co-operative Union is done by:
Ans. Director of Co-operative Audit

8. Approval of annual report, budget and audited accounts of the union is the duty of:
Ans. General body

9. The managing committee of the State Co-operative Union consist of ......... members.
Ans. 23

10. The number of Government nominees in the State Co-operative Union:
Ans. 2
1. Name the Co-operative institution which bagged ?Coffey International Award 2011? for providing unique mobile service empowering the farmers through timely information delivery:
(a) IFFCO Kissan Sanchar Ltd
(b) Krishak Bharati Cooperative Limited (KRIBHCO)
(c) MILMA
(d) None of these
Ans. IFFCO Kissan Sanchar Ltd

2. Who is considered to be the father of Co- operative movement in India?
(a) Robert Owen
(b) Frederic Nicholson
(c) Edward Law
(d) Dupernix
Ans. Frederic Nicholson

3. The Planning and co- ordination function of Co- operative education is conducted by:
(a) NCCF
(b) NCCT
(c) NCUI
(d) None of these
Ans. NCCT

4. One Hundred and Eleventh Constitution Amendment Bill is notable because:
(a) Which made right to property
(b) Which made right to freedom of religion
(c) Which made right to form cooperative societies as a fundamental right
(d) None of these
Ans. Which made right to form cooperative societies as a fundamental right

5. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED), a farmer?s co-operative was established in:
(a) 1990
(b) 1960
(c) 1979
(d) 1958
Ans. 1958

6. The first diary co-operative society formed was:
(a) Kaira
(b) Anand
(c) Gujarat
(d) Katra
Ans. Katra

7. The book ?Co- operative Movement in India? written by:
(a) C.R Fay
(b) E.M Hough
(c) G.D.H Cole
(d) S.S Puri
Ans. E.M Hough

8. Which Committee recommended the formation of State Bank of India?
(a) National Commission of Agriculture
(b) All India Rural Credit Survey Committee
(c) Gorwala Committee
(d) Maclagan Committee
Ans. All India Rural Credit Survey Committee

9. NCCF stands for:
(a) National Co operative Consumer Federation
(b) National Consumer Co operative Forum
(c) National Co operative Federation
(d) None of these
Ans. National Co operative Consumer Federation

10. The largest milk producing nation in 2010-11 was:
(a) India
(b) Japan
(c) Denmark
(d) Ireland
Ans. India
1. Which day is observed as World House Sparrow Day?
Ans. March 20

2. Which is the International Monetary Fund?s (IMF) unit of account?
Ans. SDR

3. The khandelwal committee to recommendations are related to the:
Ans. Banking sector

4. The 123rd birth anniversary of Muzzaffar Ahmed was observed in August 2011. Muzzaffar Ahmed was one of the founders of the:
Ans. Communist party

5. What is the India?s rank in the last National Security Index (NSI), 2011?
Ans. 5th

6. Who is the author of the book ?India on the Growth Tumpike??
Ans. Vijay Kelkar

7. Which of the following prizes is given to Mathematicians?
(a) Kluge Prize
(b) Kalinga Prize
(c) Abel Prize
(d) Pulitzer prize
Ans. Abel Prize

8. In August 2011 NASA launched the billion dollar solar powered spacecraft JUNO which is on a five year journey to:
Ans. Jupiter
1. PDF means:
Ans. Portable Document Format

2. ISDN stands for:
Ans. Integrated Services Digital Network

3. Which is a computer printing device for printing vector graphics?
Ans. Plotter

4. Which is the default mode of printing the documents?
Ans. Portrait

5. Which is the disk subsystem that increases performance or provides fault tolerance or both?
Ans. RAID
RAID stands for Redundant Array of Inexpensive (or sometimes "Independent") Disks.

6. Who is the person responsible for the design, implementation, maintenance and repair of an organization?s database?
Ans. DBA (Data Base Administrator)

7. Tab key is an abbreviation for:
Ans. Tabulator key

8. Which is the computer shortcut for undo the previous operation?
Ans. Ctrl+Z

9. Which is the lossy compressed music format that is very popular for digitizing music?
Ans. MP3

10. Which is the best method to move text from one page to a different page?
Ans. Cut and Paste
Marketing and Computer

1. Zero based Budgeting (ZBB) means:
Ans. Each year, budgeting starts from a scratch

2. The abbreviation ISP stands for :
Ans. Internet Service Provider

3. Acid-test of a brand is ?????..
Ans. Brand loyalty

4. In Banks ROA means ?????..
Ans. Return on assets

5. In the context of globalization, BPO means:
Ans. Business Process Outsourcing

6. SWOT analysis refers to:
Ans. Strategic planning for selling product

7. In banks, loans and advances are considered as ?????.
Ans. Assets

8. In the era of globalization of business, M & A means???????
Ans. Mergers & Acquisitions
Marketing and Computer

1. DOS and Windows 3.x support file names upto ????characters length.
Ans. Eight

2. In DOS the ?Label? command is used to
Ans. Display the label of the disk.

3. The subsystem of the kernel and hardware that cooperates to translate virtual to physical address comprises ????.
Ans. Memory Management Subsystem

4. A device operating at the physical layer is called a
Ans. Repeater

5. For separating channels in FDM, it is necessary to use
Ans. Time slots

6. Encryption and decryption are functions of
Ans. Session layer

7. Which type of switching uses the entire capacity of a dedicated link?
Ans. Datagram Packet switching

8. In ????? each packet of a message follows the same path from sender to receiver.
Ans. The datagram approach to packet switching
Marketing and Consumer Co-operatives

1. Which is the apex institution of marketing co-operatives?
Ans. Marketfed

2. Which is the national Apex institution in the field of Marketing Co-operatives
Ans. NAFED

3. Marketfed was established in ????..
Ans. 1960

4. To meet the losses due to outright purchase, marketing co-operatives keep a Fund called:
Ans. Price fluctuation fund

5. Committee on Co-operative Marketing was appointed in:
Ans. 1966

6. NAFED means?????
Ans. National Agricultural Federation

7. The headquarters of NAFED:
Ans. New Delhi

8. The Bio-fertilizer plant of NAFED is situated at:
Ans. Indore

9. National Horticulture Research and Development Foundation (NHRDF) was established in:
Ans. 1977

10. First Co-operative Marketing society in India is:
Ans. Hubli
1. The first European bank in India which was established in 1771.
a)Bank of England
b)State Bank of India
c)Bank of Bengal
d)None of these

2. With the approval of the parliament in 1806 the directors of the East India Company established the first presidency bank known as:
a)Bank of Bengal
b)Bank of Madras
c)Bank of Bombay
d)Bank of Maharashtra

3. Bank of Bombay was the second presidency bank established in ???. With a capital of Rs. 52,25,000.
a)1840
b)1854
c)1862
d)1880

4. Which one of the following is not a presidency bank?
a)Bank of Bengal
b)Bank of Madras
c)Bank of Sourastra
d)Bank of Bombay

5. Which one of the following joint stock banks were established during the period of swadeshi movement.
a)Allahabad bank in 1870
b)Oudh Commercial Banks in 1881
c)Punjab National Bank in 1895
d)All of these

6. Imperial Bank of India Act was passed in:
a)1919
b)1920
c)1921
d)1922

7. ????.. are the private banks organized on a joint stock system, run basically with profit motive and specialize in financing short and long term needs of trade, industry and commerce.
a)Schedule Bank
b)Non Schedule Banks
c)Commercial Banks
d)Industrial Banks

8. Which one of the following is not a primary function of commercial banks?
a)Accepting deposit
b)Advancing loan
c)Discounting bills of exchange
d)Agency services

9.The greatest advantage of ????? deposits are that the customers can remit any amount to the bank and withdraw unlimited quality of money without any notice to the banker.
a)Savings
b)Current
c)Fixed
d)Recurring

10. Which of the following is an agency service of Commercial banks?
a)Buying and selling of securities for customers
b)Making periodical payments of insurance premium, collection of interest and dividends
c)Collection of cheques, draft, bill of exchange
d)All of these

11. Which of the following is not a secondary function of commercial bank?
a)Accept current deposit
b)Accept fixed deposit
c)Advancing loans
d)General utility services

12. Time deposits are otherwise called:
a)Fixed deposit
b)Savings deposit
c)Current deposit
d)Recurring deposit


13. ?A commercial bank is not merely purveyors of money, but also in an important sense, manufacturers of money.?- who said this statement?
a)J.M Keynes
b)J.B Say
c)Sayers
d)Crowther

14. ?If loans are the children of deposits, deposits are also the children of loan? said :
a)J.M Keynes
b)J.B Say
c)John Paget
d)Crowther

15. Bank Money is created by ????.
a)RBI
b)Government
c)Monetary authority
d)Commercial bank

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