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IBPS Placement-Paper : 43668
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : IBPS Exam AnlysisUpdated Date : Nov 8, 2013

IBPS Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

IBPS recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

IBPS CWE clerical PO,MT Examinations procedure previous years solved question papers and analysis 2013-2014  Analysis of IBPS PO CWE 2013 -Exam held on 19th /20th Oct 2013


IBPS CWE New examination notifications upcoming recruitments through IBPS CWE Clericals, PO,MT Specialists officers new jobs, careers news IBPS CWE PO MT Clerical SPL officers RRBs new examination procedure and IBPS Previous Years free solved question papers with detailed explanations IBPS CWE common written examination aptitude, reasoning, bank based general knowledge, computer awareness, latest current affairs RBI latest updations  in formations Here you can find a comprehensive and detailed analysis of IBPS solved question papers learn and practice largest collection of ibps sample model previous years questions with answers  

IBPS Bank CWE New and latest Examinations recruitment notifications for all over India Public sector banks, nationalised, co-operative banks and other private banks IBPS has been conducting inter-scale promotion assessments for both Generalist and Specialist cadre employees across levels of the organizations. If you are looking for a career in the Human Resource related matter we offer opportunities for employment either in our organization or any other organization who has been utilizing our services in the area of recruitment, placement, promotion and related research. IBPS Personnel offer employment opportunities to all professionals by assessing their potential in a scientific method. IBPS-Bank financial Competitive Admission Testing Learning Skill India Exercise Technology Banking Recruitment Talent Computer Educational Behavioural

 

IBPS careers in banking exams

IBPS CWE -All details regarding IBPS common written examinations (CWE Exam) for various jobs positions in banks
Every years IBPS conducts on line common written examination for clerks, PO-Probationary officers, Management trainees-MT, Specialists officers SPL -in India IBPS started the CWE exam in the year 2011,before that the recruitment /selection procedure in each bank was done by the bank itself. In the latest bank careers news and experts in India says that in the next five years about 7.5 lakh people have to be recruitment  to the banks because of the retirement of existing employees an the opening of different new branches. Being a part of the IBPS team can really be a breakthrough journey for professionals as they get an opportunity to enrich their career experience. With the selection process, the Institute helps its clients in succession planning their manpower, thereby providing opportunities for the employees to grow and develop. 

 

IBPS CWE-Common Written Examination Clerical recruitment notifications IBPS CWE clerical previous years solved questions answers for referring upcoming latest recruitment of IBPS Common Written Examination for Clerical Cadre 2013-2014

 

IBPS recruits clerk once in every year .through on line exam with 200 questions in 120 minutes.1/4th of the marks penalized for each wrong answers in objective tests. Each section 40 questions 40 marks.  You must pass each section for qualifying examination. But not just qualifying examination, candidates should score more than 160 marks out of 200

 

IBPS Expected Date of clerical cadre examination date is December 

 

IBPS CWE PO-MT Probationary Officers, Management Trainee Specialists Officers Examination Procedure 

IBPS conducts recruitment for the Probationary officers, management trainee once in a years In the Year 2012 PO was not on line. but now it is also an on line exam IBPS Po MT Spl officers exam contains 50 questions 50 marks for each sections such as reasoning aptitude, english, computer knowledge ..For the PO recruitment along with these test a test for english composition is there which includes letter writing, essay, precis etc with maximum marks of 25 and for a time of one hour

 

IBPS RRB's regional rural banks exam, specialists officer recruitment and all other recruitment officer scale I,II,III Nabard RBI,SBI SBT all examinations almost same pattern and structure the difference is number questions and marks time etc For Crack IBPS CWE exam speed in calculations is the important factor.Practice all banks IBPS SBI RBI on line mock tests. Refer and practice previous years solved question papers of IBPS CWE PO RRBs Management trainees, probationary officers clerical ..Update your current affairs 


Analysis Examination details regarding  IBPS PO CWE 2013 (Exam held on 19th /20th Oct 2013)


The IBPS P.O. On-line Exam, one of the most reputed exams in the Indian banking sector, was held on the 19th (Saturday) and 20th (Sunday) of October 2013. The next set of dates for the exam are 26th/27th of Oct 2013 and 9th/10th of Nov 2013. It has been ascertained from students' assessment that overall, the examination was moderate, comparatively easier than the one held last year.

 

Duration of the Examination 120 Minutes
Number of sections 5
Negative Marking 0.25 of marks assigned to the question
Total Questions 200
Quantitative Aptitude 50 questions
Reasoning 50 questions
English Language 40 questions
General Awareness 40 questions
Computer Knowledge 20 questions

 

IBPS CWE Exam sectional analysis is as follows : 

IBPS PO CWE  Quantitative Aptitude : 

In general, the difficulty level of this section can be pegged at moderate to difficult. It was reported that there were no questions on Simplifications and Approximations. This was something unexpected and caught students off-guard. Since the above were replaced by questions from various topics of Arithmetic, which usually take more time to solve, this section was time-consuming. 
The break-up of the 50 questions of this section is as : 
Data Interpretation – 20 
Number series – 5 
Quadratic Equations (Comparisons) – 5
Questions from individual topics of Arithmetic – 15
Data Sufficiency – 5

IBPS  CWE  Reasoning : 

According to the feedback received from candidates who have appeared for this exam, the difficulty level of this section can be termed as more or less moderate. As has been the pattern ever since the exam has gone on-line, this time too non-verbal questions were conspicuous by their absence. 
The break-up of the 50 questions in this section is as : 
Deductions – 5 
Data Sufficiency – 5 
Input/output – 5 
Decision Making – 5 
Puzzles – 15 
Other topics – 15 ( Symb & Not based Conclusions, Assumptions / Inferences / Cause and effect, Direction sense / Word digit formation / ranking etc.) 

IBPS CWE  General Awareness : 

It was reported by students that most of the 40 questions in this section were from Banking Awareness and Indian Economy. Current affairs also formed the basis for a few questions. The difficulty level can be stated as easy to moderate. 

IBPS CWE English Language: 

As reported, this section can be called a difficult one, as the Comprehension questions, which students dread, dominated this section. In one of the slots on the 19th of October, there were two passages with 15 questions and in one of the slots of the other day, the two RC passages had 10 questions each. 
Earlier, when the exam used to have 50 questions in this section, this kind of pattern was common. But with almost half of this section dominated by questions on reading comprehension, students found it very lengthy and exhaustive. Had these questions been substituted by those of verbal ability, it could have become easy for candidates to work on this section with greater speed. The break-up of the 40 questions is as : 
Reading Comprehension – 15 -20
Cloze Test – 10
Para formation Questions – 5 (with six sentences to sequence)
Grammar – 5 - 10

IBPS CWE Computer Knowledge : 

The questions in this section were reported to be easy. No great preparation was needed to tick these multiple choice questions. In fact, answers to a few questions could be worked out by looking at the various choices that each of these questions had. As compared to other IBPS exams, this section presented very little challenge to students. 
This section was reported to be easy in all the slots on 19th and 20th Oct 2013. 


In short all students opinion that the 2013 IBPS CWE examination was moderate difficulty level.  Question paper lengthy and time consuming

Syntel Placement-Paper : 45531
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : prathibhaUpdated Date : Jul 31, 2014

Syntel Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

Syntel recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

Syntel Selection Pattern

 

a) Online Test

  1. Logical Reasoning
  2. General Maths
  3. Verbal

Each Section has 30 questions and each sections has time limit of 20 minutes.

 

b) Group Discussion

c) Technical Interview 

  

Technical Interview Questions Generally Asked:

  1. What is your project. Can you describe in detail.
  2. You have used oracle10g in your project?
  3. Can you design some tables in that project?
  4. He selected some output from those tables and asked to write a query.
  5. How many joins in a SQL?
  6. Can you write a query for each of those joins?
  7. Can you write a program of swapping 2 no.s without using 3rd variable. (Prepare all basic algo. like Fibonacci series, prime nos., Factorial (with recursion), swapping of 2 nos. etc.)
  8. Which access specifiers and can you explain them?
  9. What is the difference between abstract class and interface?

4. HR Interview

  1. Describe yourself (Tell about both your educational and other qualifications).
  2. Considering your educational performance how many ranks you will give yourself out of 5?
  3. How are you as a team player?
  4. If you are in a team and there is a conflict between 2 people then how you will solve it?
  5. We have branches in so and so places. Are you ready to go there?
  6. Are you ready to work in any technology?
  7. Told the salary and bond. and asked that are you OK with this?

Syntel Frequently Asked Sample Questions with Solution

 

Directions : Study the information given below to answer these questions. Mark your answer as:

(i) If both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.

(ii) If both A and R are correct and R explains A.

(iii) If A is correct but R is wrong.

(iv) If A wrong but R is correct.

 

1) Assertion (A): A saltwater fish drinks sea water where a fresh water fish never drinks water.

Reason (R): A saltwater fish is hyper tonic to its environment while a freshwater fish is hypotonic to its environment.

Answer: iv

 

2) Assertion (A): The territory of India is larger than the territories of the States taken together. Reason    (R): India is a Union of States.

Answer:  i

 

3) Assertion (A): Alcohol rather than mercury is used in a thermometer to measure a temperature of         60o C.

     Reason (R): Alcohol has a lower freezing point then mercury.

Answer: iii

 

4) 38% of 4500 - 25% of ? = 1640

 

(1) 260

(2) 270

(3) 280

(4) 290

(5) None of these

Answer: 3

Explanations : 4500 * 38/100 - x * 25/100 = 1640 ⇒ 1710 - 1640 = x/4 ⇒ x/4 = 70 ⇒ x = 280

 

5) (?)2 + 152 - 332 = 97

 

(1) 33

(2) 32

(3) 34

(4) 30

(5) None of these

Answer: 5

 Explanations : x2 + 152 - 332 = 97 ⇒ x2 = 97 + 1089 - 725 ⇒ x2 = 1186 - 225 = 961 ⇒ x = 31

 

6) (7921 + 178) - 5.5 = √?

 

(1) 1512

(2) 1521 

(3) 1251

(4) 1531

(5) None of these

Answer: 3

Explanations : 7921 / 178 - 5.5 = √x 44.5 - 5.5 = = √x ⇒ 39.0 = √x ⇒ x = 1521

 

7) 4 9/10 + 3/11 + 7/15 = ?

 

(1) 1 217/330

(2) 1 221/330

(3) 1 211/330

(4) 1 197/330

(5) None of these

Answer: 3

Explanations : 9 + 3 + 7 = 297 + 90 + 154 = 541 10 11 15 330 330 = 1 211 330

 

8) 1/4th of 1/2 of 3/4th of 52000 = ?

 

(1) 4875

(2) 4857

(3) 4785

(4) 4877

(5) None of these

Answer: 1

Explanations : 52000 * 3/4 * 1/2 * 1/4 = 4875

 

9) 57/67 * 32/171 * 45/128 = ?

 

(1) 15/262

(2) 15/268

(3) 15/266

(4) 17/268

(5) None of these

Answer: 2

Explanations : 57/67 * 32/171 * 45/128 = 15/268

 

10) 283 * 56 + 252 = 20 * ?

 

(1) 805

(2) 803

(3) 807

(4) 809

(5) None of these

Answer: 1

Explanations : 283 * 56 + 252 = 20*x ⇒ 15848 + 252 = 20*x ⇒ x = 16100/20 ⇒ x = 805

 

11) (5863 - √2704) * 0.5 = ?

 

(1) 2955.5

(2) 2905.5

(3) 2590.5

(4) 2909.5

(5) None of these

Answer: 2

Explanations : (5863 - √2704) * 0.5 = 2905.5

 

12) 3√42875 - ? = 21

(1) 18

(2) 13

(3) 15

(4) 11

(5) None of these

Answer: 5

Explanations : √42875 - x = 21 35 - x = 21 x = 14

 

13) 10 25639 - 5252 - 3232 = ?

(1) 17255

(2) 17551

(3) 17515

(4) 17155 

(5) None of these

Answer: 4

Explanations : 25639 - 5252 - 3232 - 25639 -8484 = 17155

 

14) Milk : Emulsion : : Butter : ?

 

(1) Aerosol

(2) Suspension

(3) Sol

(4)Gel

Answer : 4

 

15) Haemoglobin : Iron : : Chlorophyll : ?

 

(1) Copper

(2) Magnesium

(3) Cobalt

(4) Calcium

Answer : 2 

 

16) Forecast : Future : : Regret : ?

 

(1) Present

(2) Atone

(3) Past

(4) Sins

 Answer : 3

SBI Placement-Paper : 45530
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : sijiUpdated Date : Jul 30, 2014

SBI Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

SBI recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

SBI Clerk Exam Model  Question Paper with Answers

 

SBI Clerk Exam pattern Exam 2014: 

 

  1. General Awareness: 40 points.
  2. Quantitative Aptitude: 40 points.
  3. Reasoning ability: 40 points.
  4. General English: 40 points.
  5. Computer Knowledge / Marketing: 40 points.

 

A) Quantitative Aptitude Questions with Answers

 

1) If a:b = 2:3 and b:c = 4:3, then find a:b:c

 

a) 8:12:9

b) 2:3:8

c) 2:3:9

d) 2:3:12

Answer:  a

Explanation: a:b=2:3b:c=4:3=(4∗34:3∗34)=3:94a:b:c=2:3:94=8:12:9

 

2) The average age of 20 students in a class is 20. When the age of their class teacher commuted with the total age of students, their average age, including the class teacher's raises to 21. If so, what is the age of the class teacher?

 

a) 40

b) 36

c) 41

d) 44

Answer: c 

 

3) Rajan travels from Kannur to Kozhikode by a car at speed of 60 Km/hour and returns back by hiring a gipsy at a speed of 50 Km/ hour. Then what will be the average speed of his vehicles throughout their to and fro journey.

 

a) 54-6/11 km/hour

b) 57 km/hour

c) 55-6/11 Km/hour

d) 54-5/11 Km/hour

Answer: a 

 

4) Mr. X complete a piece of work within 8 hours and whereas Mr. Y complete the same piece of work in 6 hours. If both Mr. X & Y operate the same work jointly, in how many hours they complete the same work?

 

a) 7/14 Hrs

b) 24/7 Hrs

c) 5 hours

d)Not given

Answer: b 

 

5) if x:y = 1:3, then find the value of (7x+3y):(2x+y)

a) 14:5

b) 15:5

c) 16:5

d) 17:5

 

Answer: Option C

Explanation: let x = 1k and y = 3k, so =7(k)+3(3k)2(k)+1(3k)=16k5k=16:5

 

6) Raman & Krishnan will complete a job in 6 days and 12 days respectively according to their capacity. Govindan will complete the same of piece of work in a single day that which Raman & Krishnan both do in a single day. If Krishnan and Govindan wishes to complete the same work, in how many days they take to finish the work?

 

a) 5 days

b) 3 days

c) 4 days

d) 4.5 days

Answer: b 

 

7) A and B together have Rs. 1210. If 4/15 of A's amount is equal to 2/5 of B's amount. How much amount B have.

 

a) Rs 484

b) Rs. 480

c) Rs 478

d) Rs 470

Answer: a

 

8) A train running in 90Km/hour, having 100 meters long, crosses a train running in another track in opposite direction with speed of 54 Km per hours having 140 meters. How many seconds will take the trains to cross each other fully?

 

a) 6 seconds

b) 9 seconds

c) 8 seconds

d) Not given

Answer: a

 

B) General English Questions with Answers

 

Read the passage carefully then answer the questions:
   

Now the question arises, what is the secret of the longevity and imperishability of Indian culture? Why is it that such great empires and nations is Babylion, Assyria, Greece, Rome and Persia, could not last more than the footprints of a camel m the shifting sands of the desert, while India which faced the same ups and downs, the same mighty and cruel hand of time, is still alive and with the same halo of glory and splendour ? The answer is given by Prof. J. B. Pratt of America. According to him Hindu religion is the only religion in the world which is 'self-perpetuating and self-renewing.' Unlike other religions 'not death, but development' has been the fate of Hinduism. Not only Hindu religion but the whole culture of the Hindus has been growing changing and developing in accordance with the needs of time and circumstance without losing its essential and imperishable spirit. The culture of the vedic ages, of the ages of the Upanishads, the philosophical systems, the Mahabharata, the Smirities, the Puranas, the commentators, the medieval ^aints and of the age of the modern reformers is the same in Spirit and yet very different in form. Its basic principles are so broad based that they can be adapted to almost any environment of development.

1) The author has compared India with all the following except-


a) Greece    
b) Rome
c) Babylon
d) Assyria
e) Egypt

Answer: e    


2)  In what respect is India implied to be superior to all other nations and empires ?


a) Material development
b) Cultural advancement
c) Military strength
d) Territorial expansion
e) Empire building

Answer: b 

 

3) What, according to J. B. Pratt, is the secret of the longevity and imperishability of Indian culture ?


a) It has its origin in the remote past
b) It issues from the minds and hearts of its sages
c) It is self-perpetuating and self-renewing
d) It is founded on religion
e) It is founded on morality

Answer:c

 

4)  What changes has the spirit of Indian culture undergone during its long history right from the vedic age down to the present times ?


a) The precedence of moral values was eclipsed at certain periods of time
b) Materialism was the hall-mark of Indian culture during certain periods of time
c) During certain periods military development was the be-all and end-all of Indian culture
d) There is no such thing as any spirit of Indian culture
e) The spirit of Indian culture has practically been the same from the ancient times down to the present

Answer: e     

5)  What according to the author has always characterised the Hindu religion ?
a) Development
b) Stagnation
c) Sometimes development and sometimes stagnation
d) Lack of moral values
e) 1 Precedence of material over moral values

Answer: a

 

6) Which other religion has been mentioned in the passage as self-developing and self-renewing as Hindu religion ?


a) Christianity         
b) Islam
c) Buddhism
d) Jainism
e)  None of these

Answer: e 

 

7)  "Could not last more than the footprints of a camel on the shifting sands of the desert." What does it mean ?


a) It lost itself in deserts
b) It was transient
c) It lacked solidity
d) It was limited only to desert areas
e) It lacked cohesion

Answer: b

 

Pick out the most appropriate equivalent (synonym) of the following words taken from the above passage:

 

8)  Longevity :


a) Living long
b) Diseased life
c) Depressed spirit
d) The period of living
e) Misery

Answer: a     

 

9)  Shifting:


a) Piercing 
b) Penetrating 
c) Changing 
d) Mincing
e) Obstructing

Answer:c

 

Pick out the most appropriate word exactly opposite in meaning of the following words taken from the above passage:

 

10) Last:


a) End 
b) Grow 
c) Diminish 
d) Increase
e) Finish

Answer: a

  

11) Mighty:


a) Forcible 
b) Forceful 
c) Weak 
d) Tough
e) Haughty

Answer: c  

 

12) Glory:


a) Splendour
b) Notoriety 
c) Fame
d) Reputation
e) Debasement

Answer: e     

 

C) General Awareness Questions with Answers 

 

1) Maximum number of factories in India are located in __?

 

a) Gujarat

b) West Bengal

c) Tamil Nadu

c) Maharashtra Tamil Nadu
Answer: c

 

2) Which of the following entities has been recently granted banking license by the Reserve Bank of India?

 

a) Bajaj Finance and IFCI

b) Bandhan Financial Services Pvt Ltd and IDFC

c) India Infoline and INMAC

d) JM Finance and LIC Housing Finance Bandhan Financial Services and IDFC
answer: b

 

3) According to RBI guidelines, what fraction of the branches are mandatory to be opened in rural areas by newly licensed banks?

 

a) 15

b) 25

c) 35

d) 45

Answer: b

 

4) RBI’s guidelines on setting up new banks require new banks to hold minimum capital of Rs.500 crore. RBI has made it mandatory for new banks to open at least 25% of branches in rural centres. 5. Who among the following has been appointed as next Prime Minister of France?

 

a) Manuel Valls

b) Marine Le Pen

c) Anne Hidalgo

d) Jean Claude 

Answer: a

 

5) Lee Kun-hee, who ris facing an arrest warrant in a 1.4 million dollar cheating case is chairman of ___?

 

a) Nokia

b) Samsung

c) LG

d) IBM

Answer: b

 

6) The World Autism Awareness Day is observed every year on ___?

 

a) March 28

b) March 30

c) April 1

d) April 2

Answer: d

 

7) Who among the following has become the first Indian piston shooter to be rank no.1 in the world ranking, recently?

 

a) Heena Sidhu

b) Anjali Bhagwat

c) Rani Sarnobat

d) Annu Raj Singh 

Answer: a

 

D) Marketing Questions with Answers 

 

1) Market research is useful for ____?

 

a) Deciding proper marketing strategies

b) Deciding the selling price

c) choosing the right products

d) choosing the sales person

e) All of these

Answer: e

 

2) A call means:

 

a) shout out to somebody

b) profession or business

c) visiting friends

d) visiting prospective customers

e) after-sales service

Answer: d 

 

3) Conversion means:

 

a) meeting a prospective client

b) interacting with a prospective client

c) converting an employer into an employee

d) converting a seller into a buyer

e) converting a prospective client into a buyer

Answer: e 

 

4. Customization means:

 

a) acquiring more customers

b) regulating customers

c) special products to suit each customer

d) more products per customer

d) All of these

Answer: c 

 

5) Modern style of marketing include

 

a) digital marketing

b) tele-marketing

c) e-commerce

d) e-mails solicitation

e) All of these

Answer: e

 

6. E-Marketing is the same as

 

a) virtual marketing

b) digital marketing

c) real time marketing

d) all of these

e) None of these

Answer: d 

 

7. Value-added services means

 

a) costlier products

b) large number of products

c) additional services

d) at par services

e) None of these

Answer: c

 

8) Efficient Marketing styles require

a) proper planning

b) good communication skills

c) team work

d) knowledge of products

e) All of these

Answer: e 

 

9) The performance of a salesperson depends on

a) salary paid

b) sales incentive paid

c) sizes of the sales team

d) ability and willingness of the salesperson

e) team leader aggressiveness

Answer: d

 

10) Lead generation means

a) tips for selling tactics

b) tips for better production

c) generating leaders

d) likely sources for prospective clients

e) All of these

Answer: d

 

 

E) Reasoning ability Questions with Answers 

 

1) If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how can CANDLE be written in that code?

 

a) DEQJQM

b) DCQHQK

c) EDRIRL

d) ESJFME

Answer : c 

In the code, the first letter is the second alphabet, the second letter is the third alphabet, the third letter is the fourth alphabet and so on after the corresponding letter in the word.

 

2) In a certain code ADVENTURES is written as TRDESAUVEN. How is PRODUCED written in that code ?

 

a) IUIPGSSRNP

b) IUIPGSRSNR

c) IUINGSSRRP

d) IRIPGSSNRR

Answer : a 

The first and sixth, third and eighth, fifth and tenth letters of the word interchange places in the code.

 

3) If FRAGRANCE is written as SBHSBODFG, how can IMPOSING be written?

a) NQPTJHOJ

b) NQPTJOHJ

c) NQTPJOHJ

d) NQPTJOHI

Answer : d

Each letter in the word is moved one step forward and the first letter of the group. so obtained is put at the end, to obtain the code.

 

4) If ROBUST is coded as QNATRS in a certain language, which word would be coded as ZXCMP?

 

a) AWDLQ

b) AYDNQ

c) BZEOR

d) YYBNO

Answer : b

Each letter of the word is one step ahead of the corresponding letter of the code.

 

5) If PALE is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590, how can is PEARL be coded in that language?

 

a) 25430

b) 29530

c) 25413

d) 24153

 Answer : d

The letters are coded accordingly P as 2, E as 4, A as 1, R as 5 and L as 3. So PEARL is coded as 24153.

 

6) If in a certain code, GLAMOUR is written as IJCNMWP and MISRULE is written as OGUSSNC, then how will TOPICAL be written in that code?

 

a) VMRJECN

b) VMRHAGJ

c) VMRJACJ

d) VNRJABJ

Answer : c

The first, third and sixth letters of the word are each moved two steps forward, the second, fifth and seventh letters are each are moved two steps backward, while the fourth letter is moved one step forward.

 

7) If 'eraser' is called 'box', 'box' is called 'pencil', 'pencil' is called 'sharpener', and 'sharpener' is called 'bag', what will a child write with?

 

a) Eraser

b) Bag

c) Pencil

d) Sharpener

Answer : d

A child will write with a 'pencil', and pencil is called 'sharpener'. So, a child will write with a 'sharpener'.

 

8) A told B that C is his father's nephew. D is A's cousin but not the brother of C. What relationship is there between D and C ?

 

a) Father

c) Sisters

c) Aunt

d) Mother

Answer : d.

A has two cousins C and D. Since C is male, D must be female. And, both are the nephew and niece of A's father.

 

9) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of four adults and three children, two of whom, F and G are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child. Who is C ?

 

a) E's daughter

b) F's father

c) G's brother

d) A's son

Answer : d

E is married to A or D. But B is married to D. Thus, E is married to A. Thus, A, B, D, E are the four adults and C, F, G are the three children in the family. B and D have a child G. A and E have two children. They are C and F. Now, only F and G are girls. So, C is a boy. Thus, C is A's or E's son.

 

10) lion: animal : : flower : ___________ 

 

a) plant

b) roots

c) grass

d) rose

Answer : a 

 

F) Computer KnowledgeQuestions with Answers 

 

1) WWW stands for ?

 

a) World Whole Web

b) Wide World Web

c) Web World Wide

d) World Wide Web

Answer:  d 

 

2) Which of the following are components of Central Processing Unit (CPU) ?

 

a) Arithmetic logic unit,

b) Mouse Arithmetic logic unit,

c) Control unit Arithmetic logic unit,

d) Integrated Circuits Control Unit,

e) Monitor

Answer: b 

 

3) Where is RAM located ?

 

a) Expansion Board

b) External Drive

c) Mother Board

d) All of above

 

Answer:C

 

4) If a computer provides database services to other, then it will be known as ?

 

a) Web server

b) Application server

c) Database server

d) FTP server

Answer: C

 

5) Full form of URL is ?

 

a) Uniform Resource Locator

b) Uniform Resource

c) Link Uniform

d) Registered Link

e) Unified Resource Link

Answer: a

 

6) ____________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users can interact with the computer.

 

a) The operating system

b) The motherboard

c) The platform

d) Application software

Answer : a 

 

7) The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this access is known as the:

 

a) digital divide.

b) Internet divide.

c) Web divide.

d) cyberway divide.

Answer : a.

 

8) Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a:

a) mainframe

b) supercomputer

c) network

d) client

Answer :c 

 

RBI Placement-Paper : 45372
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : AiswaryaUpdated Date : Jul 23, 2014

RBI Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

RBI recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

RBI Assistant Exam Questions and Answers

 

Section: Reasoning

 

1. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters PCYO using all the letters, but each letter only once in each word?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

5) More than three

Answer:2

 

2. The positions of the first and fifth letter of the word SUITABLE are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of second and sixth letter, third and seventh letter, and fourth and eighth letter are interchanged. In the New arrangement, how many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the alphabet which is third from the left end and the alphabet which is second from the right end?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Four

5) More than four Directions

Answer:3

 

Directions :(Q.3-4): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow. Among A,B,C,D and E, each scored different marks in an examination. only one person scored more than C. E scored more than A but less than D. D did not score the highest marks. The one who scored the second lowest scored 71% marks. C scored 92% marks.

 

3. Who among the following is most likely to have scored 87% marks?

1) A

2) B

3) D

4) E

5) Either A or D

Answer:3

 

4.  Which of the following percentages is most likely to be B's percentage in the exam?

1) 68%

2) 71%

3) 84%

4) 76%

5) 97%

Answer:5

 

5. Each vowel of the word SAVOURY is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series. If the new alphabets thus formed are arranged in alphabetical order (from left to right), which of the following will be fifth from the right?

1) U

2) R

3) Q

4) P

5) X

Answer:2

 

6.  Point P is 10m to the West of Point A. Point B is 2m to the South of Point P. Point Q is 6m to the East of Point B. Point C is 2m to the North of Point Q. Which of the following three points fall in a straight line?

1) A,C,P

2) B, C,P

3) Q,C,A

4) A,B,Q

5) A,B,C

Answer:4

 

Directions (Q. 6-10): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statement. The statements are following by two conclusions. Give answer

1) if only conclusion I is true

2) if only conclusion II is true

3) if either conclusion I or II is true

4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true

5) if both conclusions I and II are true

 

6.  Statements: H I = J. K L

      Conclusions: I. K < H II. L > I

Answer: 1

7.  Statements: S > C O; P < C

      Conclusions: I. O < P II. S > p

Answer: 2

8.  Statements: A = B C; A > R

      Conclusions: I. B > R II. R < C

Answer: 4

9 .  Statements: D > E F; J < F

      Conclusions: I. D > J II. E < J

Answer: 5

10.  Statements: P < Q > T; R Q

       Conclusions: I. R > P II. T < R

Answer: 5

 

Directions :(Q. 11-15): Study the following information to answer the given questions. Eight People are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, A,B C and D are sitting (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing North. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are sitting (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing South. Therefore, in the given section arrangement, each member sitting in a row faces another member of the other row. S sits second to left of Q. A faces the immediate neighbour of S. Only one person sits between A and C. P does not face A. B is not an immediate neighbour of A.

 

11. Which of the following is true regarding D?

1) D sits an one of the extreme ends of the line.

2) A sits on the immediate left D.

3) Q faces D.

4) C is an immediate neighbour of D.

5) No immediate neighbour of D faces R.

Answer: 4

 

12. Who among the following faces C?

1) P

2) Q

3) R

4) S

5) Cannot be determined

Answer: 1

 

13. Who among the following sits on the immediate right of the person who faces C?

1) P

2) Q

3) R

4) S

5) Cannot be determined

Answer: 2

 

14.  Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

1) A

2) Q

3) R

4) B

5) S

Answer: 5

 

15.  Who among the following faces R?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) Cannot be determined

Answer: 1

 

Directions:(Q. 16-18): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer

1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. 4) if the data neither in statement I nor in statement II are sufficient to answer the question statement 5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

 

16.  On which date of the month was Parul born?

I. Her mother correctly remembers that she was born after 15th but before 21st of April.

II. Her father correctly remembers that she was born after 18th but before 24th of April.

Answer: 4

 

17.  How many brothers does Meghna have? Meghna is a girl.

I. Kishore, the father of Meghna, is the only child of Kamal. Kamal has only two grandchildren.

II. Jyoti, the daughter-in-law of Kamal, has son and a daughter.

Answer: 5

 

18)  Among P, Q, R, S and T, sitting in a straight line, facing North, who sits exactly in the middle of the line?

I. S sits third to the left of Q. S is an immediate neighbour of both P and T.

II. Two people sit between T and R. R does not sit at either of the extreme ends. P sits second to the right of T.

Answer: 2

 

Section: English

 

Directions :(19-2): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate while answering some of the questions.

 

The importance of communication skills cannot be underestimated, especially so, in the teaching - learning process. Teaching is generally considered as only fifty percent knowledge and fifty percent interpersonal or communication skills. For a teacher, it is not just important to give a lecture rich in content that provides abundant information about the subject or topic in question, but a successful teacher develops an affinity with, an understanding of, and a harmonious interrelationship with her pupils. Building rapport becomes her primary task in the classroom. But what exactly is rapport? Rapport is a sympathetic relationship or understanding that allows you to look at the world from someone else's perspective. Making other people feel that you understand them creates a strong bond. Building rapport is the first step to better communication - the primary goal of all true educators. Communication skills for teachers are thus as important as their in-depth knowledge of the particular subject which they teach. To a surprising degree, how one communicates determines one's effectiveness as a teacher. A study on communication styles suggests that 7% of communication takes place through words, 38% through voice intonation and 55% through body language. Much of teaching is about sending and receiving messages. The process of communication is composed of three elements : the source (sender, speaker, transmitter or instructor), the symbol used in composing and transmitting of the message (words or signs), and the receiver (listener, reader or student). The three elements are dynamically interrelated since each element is dependent on the others for effective communication to take place. Effective communication is all about conveying your message to the other people clearly and unambiguously. It's also about receiving information the others are sending to you, with as little distortion as possible. Doing this involves effort from both the sender and the receiver. And it's a process that can be fraught with error, with messages muddled by the sender, or misinterpreted by the reciepent. When this isn't detected it can cause tremendous confusion, wasted effort and missed opportunity. Good communication skills are a prerequisite for those in the teaching profession. Carefully planned and skillfully delivered messages can issue invitations to students that school is a place to share ideas, investigate and collaborate with others. Effective communication is essential for a wellrun classroom. A teacher who is able to communicate well with students can inspire them to learn and participate in class and encourage them to come forth with their views, thus creating a proper rapport. Although this sounds simple and obvious, it requires much more than a teacher saying something out loud to a student. They must also realise that all students have different levels of strengths and weaknesses.

 

Directions (Q. 19-28): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

 

19. Abundant

1) Small

2) Little

3) False

4) Sufficient

5) Rare

Answer: 2

 

20. Muddled

1) Skillfully organised

2) Strongly controlled

3) Clearly conveyed

4) Isolated

5) Complicated

Answer: 3

 

Directions (Q. 21-22): Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

 

21. Sounds

1) Seems

2) Corrects

3) Noises

4) Takes

5) Silences.

Answer: 1

 

22. Affinity

1) Partnership

2) Partiality

3) Weakness

4) Compatibility

5) Discord

Answer: 4

 

23. Degree

1) Extent

2) Goal

3) Affect

4) Situation

5) Direction

Answer: 1

 

24. Which of the following is/are essential for effective communication?

(A) Conveying the message clearly

(B) Not to waste effort and opportunity

(C) Receiving the information with as little distortion as possible.

 

1) Only (A) and (C)

2) Only (B)

3) Only

(A) 4) Only (C)

5) Only (B) and (C)

Answer: 1

 

25. Which of the following is true about 'rapport' as per the passage?

(A) It is a sympathetic relationship.

(B) It is based on understanding of other people's frame of reference.

(C) It helps in creating a strong bond.

(D) It is important for teachers to build rapport with students.

 

1) Only (A) and (B)

2) Only (B) and (D)

3) Only (A), (B) and (D)

4) Only (A), (B) and (C)

5) All are true

Answer: 1

 

26. Which of the following must the teachers keep in mind to facilitate learning in student as per the passage?

1) To control the students such that they do not share ideas with others within the lecture hours.

2) To maintain rapport with students and compromise on the course content.

3) To realise hat all students have different levels of strengths and weaknesses.

4) Only to keep the lecture rich in course content.

5) To ensure that students adhere to her views only.

Answer: 5

 

27. Which of the following are the three elements of communication as per the passage?

1) Source, Signs and Students

2) Source, Sender and Speaker

3) Signs, Words and Students

4) Instructor, Listener and Reader

5) Transmitter, Students and Receiver

Answer: 3

 

28. Which of the following is the finding of the study on communication styles?

1) The body language and gestures account for 38% of communication and outweighs the voice intonation.

2) Only 9% communication is about content whereas the rest is about our tone and body language.

3) The tone of our voice accounts for 55% of what we communicate and outweighs the body language. 4) More than 90% of our communication is not about content but about our tone and body language.

5) Teaching is fifty percent knowledge and fifty per cent interpersonal for communication skills.

Answer: 1

 

Directions (Q.29-38): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

 

The latest technology (66) put to use or about to arrive in market must be (67) to all entrepreneurs. The reason is that it may have an (68) effect on business. Valve radio's gave way to transistor radios and with micro chips, technology is giving way to digital equipment. Business has (69) the same but the technology has kept changing. A notable feature is that the size of the receivers decreased (70) so did the use of its material and consequently its price. The traditional flour mills are losing business (71) customers now buy flour (72) from the market. As a result of this, the business is (73) Following the same lines as technology, the social trends also go on changing and influence the market. The Indian sarees are being taken (74) by readymade stitched clothes. Every entrepreneur must note such changes in the environment and also the technology and plan in (75) with these to ensure the success of his endeavour.

 

29.

1) to

2) needed

3) decided

4) besides

5) being

Answer: 5

 

30.

1) hoped

2) welcome

3) released

4) Known

5) aware

Answer: 4

 

31.

1) approximate 

2) huge

3) uniform

4) excellence

5) enormous

Answer: 5

 

32.

1) maintained

2) remained

3) often

4) mentioned

5) become

Answer: 2

 

33.

1) mainly

2) and

3) how

4) also

5) some

Answer: 2

 

34.

1) reason

2) due

3) young

4) as

5) old

Answer: 2

 

35.

1) knowingly

2) ease

3) cheap

4) directly

5) forcefully

Answer: 4

 

36.

1) shrinking

2) blooming

3) returned

4) same

5) small

Answer: 4

 

37.

1) against

2) to

3) over

4) up

5) for

Answer: 1

 

38.

1) lines

2) relativity

3) accordance

4) proper

5) toning

Answer: 3

 

Section: Quantitative Aptitude 

 

Directions (Q. 39-40): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

39.  ? 000.5 0024 = 5652

1) 171.75

2) 117.25

3) 171.25

4) 117.75

5) None of these

Answer: 4

 

 

40. 65% of 654 - ? % of 860 = 210.1

1) 25

2) 15

3) 20

4) 30

5) None of these

Answer: 1

 

41 12 men alone can complete a piece of work in six days, whereas 10 men and 21
women take three days to complete the same piece of work. In how many days
can 12 women alone complete the same piece of work?
1) 10

2) 9

3) 11
4) 8

5) None of these

Answer: 1


42. The owner of an electronic store charges his customer 11% more than the cost
price. If a customer paid Rs. 1,33,200 for an LED TV, what was the original
price of the TV?
1) `1,20,000

2) `1,14,500

3) ` 1,22,500
4) ` 1,18,000

5) None of these

Answer: 1


43. The average age of a woman and her daughter is 19 years. The ratio of their
ages is 16 : 3. What is the age of the daughter?
1) 9 years

2) 3 years

3) 12 years
4) 6 years

5) None of these

Answer: 4


44. A car covers a certain distance in three hours at the speed of 124 Km/hr. What
is the average speed of a truck which travels a distance of 120 Km less than the car
in the same time?
1) 88 km/hr

2) 84 km/hr

3) 78 km/hr
4) 73 km/hr

5) None of these

Answer: 2


45. The cost of four calculators and two stencils is ` 6,200 what is the cost of ten
calculators and five stencils?
1) `15,500

2) `14,875

3) ` 16,200
4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

Answer: 1


46. Find the average of the following set of scores: 214, 351, 109, 333, 752, 614,
456, 547
1) 482

2) 428

3) 444
4) 424

5) None of these

Answer: 5

 

47. The average of four consecutive odd numbers A, B, C and D is 54. What is
the product of A and C?

1) 2907

2) 2805

3) 2703
4) 2915

5) None of these

Answer: 2


48. The sum of 55% of a number and 40% of the same number is 180.5. What is
80% of that number?

1) 134

2) 152

3) 148
4) 166

5) None of these

Answer: 2


49. There are 950 employees in an organisation, out of which 28% got promoted.
Find the number of employees who got promoted.
1) 226

2) 256

3) 266
4) 216

5) None of these

Answer: 


50. What is the least number to be added to 3000 to make it a perfect square?
1) 191

2) 136

3) 25
4) 84

5) None of these

Answer: 3


51. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of ` 7,640 at the
rate of 15 pcpa after two years?
1) `2,634.9

2) `2,643.9

3) ` 2,364.9
4) ` 2,463.9

5) None of these

Answer: 4


52. In an examination it is required to get 65% of the aggregate marks to pass. A
student gets 874 marks and is declared failed by 10% marks. What is the maximum
aggregate marks a student can get?
1) 1450

2) 1640

3) 1500
4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

Answer: 5


53. A juice centre requires 35 dozen guavas for 28 days. How many dozen guavas
will it require for 36 days?
1) 50

2) 52

3) 40
4) 45

5) None of these

Answer: 4


54. Mohan sold an item for ` 4,510 and incurred a loss of 45%. At what price
should he have sold the item to have earned a profit of 45%?
1) `10,900

2) ` 12,620

3) ` 11,890
4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

Answer: 2


55. What would be the circumference of a circle whose area is 745.36 sq cm?
1) 94.4 cm

2) 88.8 cm

3) 96.3 cm
4) 87.4 cm

5) None of these

Answer: 5


 

Section: General Awareness


56. USA has asked India to reduce its dependence on crude oil supply from which
of the following countries which is also a member of OPEC?
1) Venezuela

2) Iraq

3) Libya
4) Iran

5) Nigeria

Answer: 4

 

56. Which of the following is the most essential financial service which should be
provided to the poor people to bring them into the network of financial inclusion?
1) Insurance for life
2) Investment plan for future
3) Pension for old age
4) A bank account where he/she can save small amount
5) Health insurance for minor illnesses and hospitalisation in case of need

Answer: 4

 

57. Who among the following is the president of a country at present?
1) Rupert Murdoch

2) Ban ki-moon

3) Yoshihiko Noda
4) Nicolas Sarkozy

5) None of these

Answer: 4

 

58. What does tha letter F denote in 'NBFCs', a term seen very frequently in
banking
world these days?
1) Formal

2) Fiscal

3) Federal
4) Functional

5) Financial

Answer: 5

 

59. Which of the following services products of banks is specially designed and
launched to help students?
1) Personal loan

2) Corporate loan

3) Business loan
4) Medical loan

5) Education loan

Answer: 5

 

60. Which of the following terms is not directly associated with the functioning of
RBI?
1) Open Market Operations

2) Cash Reserve Ratio

3) SENSEX
4) Liquidity Adjustment Facility

5) Public Debt Office

Answer: 3

 

61. The 59th National Film Award for Best Actress was given to
1) Vidya Balan

2) Kareena Kapoor
3) Priyanka Chopra

4) Lara Dutta

5) Roopa Ganguly

Answer: 1

 

62. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the body/ agency set up to
boost foreign investments in India?
1) FORE

2) FCCB

3) FIPB
4) FEMA

5) AITAF

Answer: 3

 

63. Which of the following is not considered infrastructural sector of the
economy?
1) Electricity

2) Textile Sector

3) Telecom
4) Cement

5) Road and Railways

Answer: 2

 

64. Sachin Tendulkar made his 100th century in the match played between India
and
1) Pakistan

2) England

3) Australia
4) Bangladesh

5) Sri Lanka

Answer: 4


65. Who among the following was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 2012?
1) TV Rajeswar

2) Aruna Irani

3) AR Rahman
4) Shabana Azmi

5) Anup Jalota

Answer: 5


66. Which of the following countries is a member of BRICs?
1) Bhutan

2) Iran

3) Romania
4) Sudan

5) South Africa

Answer: 5


67.  Which of the following countries has recently placed its first space lab
'Tiangong-1' into orbit?

1) North Korea

2) Japan

3) India
4) France

5) China

Answer: 5


68. Who among the following is the Solicitor General of India at present?
1) Jacob Mathew

2) Rohinton Nariman
3) Gopal Subramaniam

4) Ashok Chawla

5) None of these

Answer: 2


69. Which of the following schemes has been launched by the Govt of India to
motivate
school children to attend school regularly?
1) Kutir Jyoti

2) Mid-Day Meal

3) MGNREGA
4) RAY

5) Bharat Nirman

Answer: 2

 

70. Seychelles, where China is going to set up its new military base, is a country
in the
1) Bay of Bengal

2) China Sea

3) Indian Ocean
4) Red Sea

5) Caspian Sea

Answer: 3


71. Which of the following terms is used in the field of economics?
1) Absolute Zero

2) Molecular Equation

3) Zero Point Energy
4) Balance of Payment

5) Mass Defect
Answer: 4

Section: Computer Knowledge

72. The legal right to use software based on specific restrictions is granted via a
1) software privacy policy

2) software license
3) software password manager

4) software log
5) None of these

Answer: 2

73. Which of the following is the type of software that controls the internal operations in the computer and controls how the computer works with all its parts?
1) Shareware

2) Public domain software
3) Application software

4) Operating system software

5) None of these.

Answer: 4


74. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes.
1) data redundancy

2) information overload
3) duplicate data

4) data consistency

5) data inconsistency

Answer: 5

75. To view information on the Web you must have a
1) cable modem

2) Web browser

3) domain name server
4) hypertext viewer

5) None of these

Answer: 1

 

76. A file is often referred to as a
1) Wizard

2) document

3) pane
4) device

5) documentation

Answer: 2

 

77. To protect yourself from computer hacker intrusions you should install a
1) firewall

2) mailer

3) macro
4) script

5) None of these

Answer: 2

78. Which of the following software applications would be the most appropriate
for performing numerical and statistical calculations?
1) Database

2) Document processor

3) Graphics package
4) Spreadsheet

5) Power Point

Answer: 4

 

79. A .......... is used to read hand written or printed text to make a digital image
that is stored in memory.
1) printer

2) laser beam

3) scanner
4) touchpad

5) None of these

Answer: 3

 

80 A................. is pre-designed document that already has coordinating fonts, a
layout, and a background.
1) guide

2) model

3) ruler
4) template

5) design-plate

Answer: 4

81. Removing and replacing devices without turning off your computer is referred
to as
1) Hot swapping

2) Plug-n-Play

3) Bay swap
4) USB swapping

5) None of these.

Answer: 2

 

82. Specialised programs that assist users in locating information on the Web are
called.
1) information engines

2) locator engines

3) web browsers
4) resource locators

5) search engines

Answer: 5


83. Expansion cards are inserted into
1) slots

2) peripheral devices

3) the CPU
4) the back of the computer

5) None of these

Answer: 1

84. A program designed to destroy data on your computer which can travel to
"infect" other computers is called a
1) disease

2) torpedo

3) hurricane
4) virus

5) infector
Answer: 4

85. A collection of interrelated records is called a
1) utility file

2) management information system
3) database

4) spreadsheet

5) datasheet

Answer: 3

BEL Placement-Paper : 45368
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : greeshmaUpdated Date : Jul 23, 2014

BEL Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

BEL recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

BEL Latest Probationary Engineers Test Pattern 

 

A. BEL Test Pattern for Probationary Engineers(PE)

 

Total Noumber of Questions:150

Test Duration:150 min

 

Divison Of marks:

 

No of Aptitude Qestions: 30

No of Technical Qestions:120

Correct answer :1 mars

Wrong answer  : -0.25

 

1. Aptitude section

  1. A paragraph is given followed by 5 questions
  2. Some bits regarding grammar are given
  3. Data Interpretation questions are given(They're a bit time taking)
  4. Statements and Arguments and whether arguments are supporting the given statement or not
  5. One question related to blood relations etc..

2. Technical Section

  1. For this you have to prepare the GATE Syllabus, The questions mainly appeared from subjects like DLD,TOC,Discrete Mathematics,DBMS,OS,CN etc..
  2. Other important point to note is that more preference is also given to maths and almost 20 questions came from it..mainly from Numerical Methods..

 

B. BEL Basic Civil engineering objective type questions with answers

 

1)  Define civil engineering?

 

Answer: Civil engineering is a professional engineering discipline that deals with the design, construction, and maintenance of the physical and naturally built environment, including works like roads, bridges, canals, dams, and buildings.Civil engineering is the oldest engineering discipline after military engineering, and it was defined to distinguish non-military engineering from military engineering.

 

2)  Define duty and delta?

 

Answer:

Duty: Duty represents the irrigating capacity of a unit water. It relation between the area of a crop irrigated and the quantity of irrigation water required during crop growth. For example: If 5 cumec of water is required for a crop sown in an area of 5000 hectares, The duty will be 5000/5=1000 hectares/cumec.

Delta: It is total depth of water required for a crop during the entire period the crop is in the field and is denoted by Δ. The unit of delta is days.

 

3) Difference between pre-tensioning and post-tensioning?

 

Answer: The prestress in a structure is influenced by either of the two processes:

  1. Pre-tensioning
  2. Post-tensioning

Pre-tensioning:

 

Pre-tensioning is accomplished by stressing wires or strands, called tendons, to predetermined amount by stretching them between two anchorages prior to placing concrete. the concrete is then placed and tendons become bounded to concrete throughout their length. After concrete has hardened, the tendons are released by cutting them at the anchorages. The tendons tend to regain their original length by shortening and in this process transfer through bond a compressive stress to the concrete. The tendons are usually stressed by the use of hydraulic jacks. The stress in tendons is maintained during the placing and curing of concrete by anchoring the ends of the tendons to abutments that may be as much as 200m apart. The abutments and other formwork used in this procedure are called prestressing bench or bed. Section for Pre-tensioning Fig.1: Section for Pre-tensioning Most of the pre-tensioning construction techniques are patented although the basic principle used in all of them is common and is well known.

 

Post-tensioning:

 

The alternative to pre-tensioning is post-tensioning. In a post-tensioned beam, the tendons are stressed and each end is anchored to the concrete section after the concrete has been cast and has attained sufficient strength to safely withstand the prestressing force. 

 

4)  What is piping failure?

 

Answer: Water that percolates through earth dams and their foundations can carry soil particles that are free to migrate. The seepage forces tend to cause the erodible soil or soft rock to move towards the downstream face of the dam. That is if the seepage forces are large enough and the pore spaces in the material are large enough. Along the unprotected discharge face AB, the soil will heave if the gradients are large enough. Every seepage discharge surface, both internal and external, which could be susceptible to piping or heave must be covered with filters that permit water to pass but will hold the soil particles firmly in place.

 

5)  How many express ways are there in India?

 

Answer: 23

 

6)  How can you measure the amount of rainfall?

 

Answer: Rainfall is usually measured by first collecting it in a rain gauge. These special drums are then used to record the depth of the water inside. Rain gauges are usually about 50 cm tall and are placed on the ground just high enough to avoid splashes. Rain water that is caught in a funnel on top, runs down into a measuring cylinder below – where it can be recorded.

 

7)  What are the diffent types of pile foundation?

 

Answer: Types of piles based on the mechanism of Load Transfer:End/Point Bearing Piles, Friction Piles, Friction cum end bearing pile Classification of Piles according to the Method of Installation of piles : Driven or displacement piles, Driven or displacement pile Classification of Piles according to Materials :Timber piles, Steel piles, Concrete Piles , Composite piles.

 

8)  What is quick sand?

 

Answer: Quicksand is a colloid hydrogel consisting of fine granular material (such as sand or silt), clay, and water. Quicksand forms in saturated loose sand when the sand is suddenly agitated. When water in the sand cannot escape, it creates a liquefied soil that loses strength and cannot support weight.

 

9)  What is the difference between bitumen and tar?

 

Answer: Bitumen is a mixture of organic liquids that are highly viscous, black, sticky, entirely soluble in carbon disulfide, and composed primarily of highly condensed polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons. Bitumen is the residual (bottom) fraction obtained by fractional distillation of crude oil. It is the heaviest fraction and the one with the highest boiling point. Tar is a viscous black liquid derived from the destructive distillation of organic matter. Most tar is produced from coal as a byproduct of coke production, but it can also be produced from petroleum, peat or wood. In British English, the word 'asphalt' refers to a mixture of mineral aggregate and bitumen (or tarmac in common parlance). The word 'tar' refers to the black viscous material obtained from the destructive distillation of coal and is chemically distinct from bitumen. In American English, bitumen is referred to as 'asphalt' or 'asphalt cement' in engineering jargon. In Australian English, bitumen is sometimes used as the generic term for road surfaces. Most bitumens contain sulphur and several heavy metals such as nickel, vanadium, lead, chromium, mercury and also arsenic, selenium and other toxic elements. Bitumens can provide good preservation of plants and animal fossils

 

10)  What is N-value?

 

Answer: A term commonly referred to as work hardening exponent derived from the relationship between true stress and true strain. Also called work strengthening exponent. What is hydraulic jump? A hydraulic jump is a phenomenon in the science of hydraulics which is frequently observed in open channel flow such as rivers and spillways. When liquid at high velocity discharges into a zone of lower velocity, a rather abrupt rise occurs in the liquid surface.

 

11)  What is Reynolds’s number?

 

Answer: A dimensionless number used in fluid mechanics to indicate whether fluid flow past a body or in a duct is steady or turbulent.

 

12) What is differential settlement?

 

Some settlement is quite normal after construction has been completed, but unequal (differential) settlement may cause significant problems for buildings. 

Infosys Placement-Paper : 45343
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : Greeshma GopiUpdated Date : Jul 16, 2014

Infosys Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

Infosys recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

Infosys Latest Selection Procedures

 

Infosys Selection Process consists of 2 sections:

  1. Online Test 

  2. Technical / HR Interview

1. Online Test 

 

It Consists of two parts:

(a) Aptitude Test:

Questions: 30

Duration: 40 minutes.

The Aptitude reasoning test pattern is distributed into 6 different topics with 5 questions each as:

(i)Picture Reasoning :

 In this section, a series of pictures are given which may consist of picture series, picture analogy or picture classification.

No of Questions: 5

(ii)Statement Reasoning:

In this section, sequence questions like seating arrangement or money distribution or height arrangement are given. A set of five questions are based directly on the statements given.

No of Questions: 5

(iii)Data Sufficiency: Here a set of two statements are given followed by 5 options which satisfy the answer for the statements. You have to decide which option best suits the answer.

No of Questions: 5

(iv)Data Interpretation: This section consists of a direct sequence of 5 questions based on the data which is provided in the form of table charts, bar charts, pie charts or line charts.

No of Questions: 5

(v)Relation Problem: This section consists of questions which are similar to the sets and relations like students with biology, maths, physics and chemistry, maths and biology, only physics, etc., and questions related as such.

No of Questions: 5

(vi)Syllogism: This section consists of statement followed by two conclusions. We need to pick out from 5 options which suits the best answer.

No of Questions: 5

(b) Verbal Ability:

Questions: 40

Duration: 35 minutes.

The Verbal Ability test pattern is distributed into 5 different topics as:

(i)Sentence Correction:

Among 4 sentences the correct one should be detected.

No of Questions: 8 

(ii)Insert Correect Phrase:

Underline a part of sentence and asked to insert correct phrase in it from given four options.

No of Questions: 8

(iii)Fill In The Blanks 

No of Questions: 8

(iv)Theme Detection

No of Questions: 6

(v)Two Reading Comprehensions

No of Questions: 10

> The key is to score well in this online test because it acts as a filter in the case of the Infosys Selection Process.

 

2. Interview:

  1. The key for interview is to maintain your calm, be confident, justify everything written in your resume in a positive way and yeah wear a sweet but not an annoying smile during interaction with the interviewer.

  2. At first, they asked us to submit our year wise mark sheets of the degree, 10th and 12th. The application form and the resume were stapled together with them to create a well formed application to be presented before the interviewer.

  3. The students were then divided into several groups and were allotted several panels by the volunteers.

  4. HR asked several queries like which language we have used, what was your task in the project and which server was used to run the scripts.

TCS Placement-Paper : 45341
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TCS Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

TCS recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

TCS Latest Technical and Aptitude Questions 2014

 

TCS Selection Procedures:

 

TCS Eligibility Criteria

The candidate should have a minimum of 60% in class 10th and 12th. Also, the academic gap should be less than 2 years. During some placement visits, TCS offers direct interview chances to those having 85% and above marks throughout their study period (10th, 12th and graduation).

 

Procedure for TCS campus placement

There are totally 3 rounds in TCS placement drive, they are :

Written test

It consists of questions from quantitative aptitude, verbal section and reasoning ability. Regular practice before the placement and time management during the written test is the key to get selected in TCS. Usually, 35 questions have to be solved in 60 minutes. From the last year (2013) onwards TCS tests have included negative marking for every wrong answer. A deduction of 1/3rd marks is done for each question answered wrongly. So, the students should choose wisely and answer only those questions of which they are 100% sure. The quants section of written test contains questions on equations, time and distance, number system, time and work, ratio and proportion and a few questions on probability. The verbal part has the usual antonyms, synonyms, word usage and similar vocabulary based questions. Lastly, the reasoning section has questions based on blood relations, truth and lies, arrangement of objects and number puzzles. Generally the results are given within 2-3 hours, and successful aspirants are called on for the technical interview.

Technical Interview

In this round, students are asked questions based on the technical subjects that they have studied during their graduation. Make sure that you are thorough with all your subjects of all semesters, since the interviewer can ask you anything from anywhere. You should be prepared to face any question and answer it confidently. If you are lucky, the interviewer might ask you to pick your favorite subject from where you want them to ask you questions. Finally, the college project is queried about and questions are asked on it.

HR Interview

The last round is the HR Interview round where your communication skills and conversation ability are tested. Only those students who have cleared the technical interview round are allowed to go forward to the HR round. The HR Manager of the company will firstly ask you to give a brief introduction of yourself and then similar questions will follow. You can prepare yourself using the frequently asked HR Interview questions list.

 

Technical Questions

 

1.   What is false about the following — A compound statement is

(a) A set of simple statments

(b) Demarcated on either side by curly brackets

(c) Can be used in place of simple statement

(d) A C function is not a compound statement.

2.  Write one statement equivalent to the following two statements x=sqr(a); return(x); Choose from one of the alternatives

(a) return(sqr(a));

(b) printf(“sqr(a)”);

(c) return(a*a*a);

(d) printf(“%d”,sqr(a));

3.  What is the value of y in the following code? x=7; y=0; if(x=6) y=7; else y=1;

(a) 7

(b) 0

(c) 1

(d) 6

4.  What does the following function print? func(int i) { if(i%2)return 0; else return 1;} main() { int =3; i=func(i); i=func(i); printf(“%d”,i); }

(a) 3

(b) 1

(c) 0

(d) 2

5  How does the C compiler interpret the following two statements p=p+x; q=q+y;

(a)p=p+x; q=q+y

(b)p=p+xq=q+y

(c)p=p+xq;

(d)q=q+y

 

Verbal Reasoning Questions

 

1. Effrontery : Extreme rudeness and lack of ability to understand that your behavior is not acceptable to other people.

2. Voluble : Speaking a lot, with confidence and enthusiasm.

3. Terse : Using few words, sometimes in a way that seems rude or unfriendly.

4. Wily : (of a person) clever, having a very good understanding of situations, possibilities and people, and often willing to use tricks to achieve an aim:- a wily politician

5. Antithesis : the exact opposite.

 

Quantitative Aptitude questinos

 

1.  If n is the sum of two consecutive odd integers and less than 100, what is greatest possibility of n?

(a) 98

(b) 94

(c) 96

(d) 99

Answer : c 

2. There are 4 boxes colored red, yellow, green and blue. If 2 boxes are selected, how many combinations are there for at least one green box or one red box to be selected?

(a)1

(b)6

(c)9

(d)5

Answer: d 

3.  In base 7, a number is written only using the digits 0, 1, 2, .....6. The number 135 in base 7 is 1 x 72 + 3 x 7 + 5 = 75 in base 10. What is the sum of the base 7 numbers 1234 and 6543 in base 7.

(a)11101

(b)11110

(c)10111

(d)11011

Answer: b

4.  A, B, C and D go for a picnic. When A stands on a weighing machine, B also climbs on, and the weight shown was 132 kg. When B stands, C also climbs on, and the machine shows 130 kg. Similarly the weight of C and D is found as 102 kg and that of B and D is 116 kg. What is D‘s weight

(a)58kg

(b)78 kg

(c)44 kg

(d)None

Answer : c

5.  In a rectanglular coordinate system, what is the area of a triangle whose vertices whose vertices have the coordinates (4,0), (6, 3) adn (6 , -3)

(a)6

(b)7

(c)7.5

(d)6.5

Answer: a

6. Two full tanks one shaped like the cylinder and the other like a cone contain liquid fuel the cylindrical tank held 500 lts more then the conolical tank After 200 lts of fuel is pumped out from each tank the cylindrical tank now contains twice the amount of fuel in the canonical tank How many lts of fuel did the cylindrical tank have when it was full?

(a)1000

(b)1500

(c)1200

(d)1800

Answer: c

7.  If f(1)=4 and f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)+7xy+4,then f(2)+f(5)=?

(a)120

(b) 60

(c)150

(d)125

Answer: d

8 If f(f(n))+f(n)=2n+3 and f(0)=1, what is the value of f(2012)?

(a) 2011

(b) 2012

(c) 2013

(d) 4095

Answer:c

9. A two digit number is 18 less than the sum of the squares of its digits. How many such numbers are there?

(a)1

(b)2

(c)3

(d)4

Answer: b

10. Find the number of ways a batsman can score a double century only in terms of 4's & 6's?

(a)15

(b)16

(c)17

(d)19

Answer:c

TCS Placement-Paper : 45272
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : Rajarshi BhattacharyyaUpdated Date : Jul 10, 2014

TCS Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

TCS recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

TCS Recruitment procedure is as follows:

  1. Aptitude
  2. Technical + HR Interview

TCS Aptitude (New pattern)

 

The new aptitude test will consist of 2 tests:

  1. Letter Writing
  2. Aptitude General

The Letter Writing will consist of words, frames to write a formal letter. The words given have to be used in the letter in the exact tense. There will be 10 minutes for this test.

Example:

Call-Mother-grandfather-pass away-urgent-leave-pending-10 days.

Write a letter to your boss to grant leave for you.

(This might look simple and short, but the actual test will have more words and the letter will have much more requirements.)

Note: This is the major eliminating test; most of the students will be rejected at this stage.

What you need to do?

  1. Be very direct and to the point.
  2. Don’t add unnecessary words.
  3. Proper grammatical usage.
  4. Simple English but proper business English.
  5. Proper Letter writing Format.
  6. Letter should be around 70 words (+/- 10 words).
  7. Adjust time, take 3-4 minutes to think of how to frame the letter. Next 5-6 minutes to type and correct the letter and in the last minute do a recheck of spelling, grammar.
  8. Do don’t include any word in between the phrase given.
  9. Don’t miss any word, phrase given in the letter.

Aptitude General:

This section will consist of 30 MCQ Aptitude Questions (Quantitative Aptitude + Reasoning).Time given for this test will be 60 minutes-80 minutes. I can’t remember the exact time duration.

Do’s and Don’t’s:

  1. Never for practice this test from R.S.Agarwal and associated books. This test will seriously deal with logical and analytical abilities of your mind.
  2. Choose any CAT Preparation material
  3. 1. Career Launcher
    2. TIME/Vistamind
    3. IMS

    4. BooksQuantum CAT by Sarvesh Verma, Arun Sharma (I personally feel  Sarvesh Verma book is much better than Arun Sharma only because it is short and sweet. It has all the important things that need to be known, all tricks, all samples, all formulae’s, just everything in a precise manner whereas Arun Sharma is also the same but has an enormous explanation to every topic.)
    5. One important book that I need to mention is Number System for the CAT by Nishit K. Sinha. This book only deals with Number System. This book will not only help you for TCS Prep but also for CAT prep if you think for a long run. This is because every aptitude exam will try to play a gamble between the student and the Number System Questions. This is the most unpredictable chapter in Aptitude and can have real tricky, awesome, difficult questions if you are not through with the basics. After reading this book you will analyze how less you knew before.

  4. This was all about preparing. You don’t need to solve all the problems from these books. But get through all the formulas and tricks given in the book, each and every especially in Number System and Geometry. Try to solve Level – 1 Questions from each chapter at first. If time permits go through the Level-2 Questions.
  5. Next and very important is to solve all possible TCS Questions from m4maths.com. It will have more than 3000 problems with varied difficulties. Take a day off, copy all the questions to MS Word, take a print out and solve them one by one. See the solutions. Most of us have uploaded the answers while we were preparing. ;)
  6. Don’t mug up questions, answers (It’s a request). Just know the flow in which the questions have to be solved and the pattern to solve the questions. Everything (the problem solving procedure) has to be at your fingertips on the D-Day.
  7. On the D-Day, be calm as much as possible. Just calm as ice. Don’t think of anything.

TCS Aptitude preparation requires time guys, so I tell all of you to take 3 months time and solve everything you can. TCS now recruits very less. I could clear the aptitude tests only because I forgot to be a human being for those three months. Could sleep for only 3-4 hours maximum and had to solve around 10k+ problems each day. Last but not the least I succeeded because on the D-Day for the first time in my life I was as chill as ice. We had 69 students in our department, and I was the only one to clear from my department. In my life I won’t forget the night, when the results were declared. We had 350 + students appearing from our college and only 52 could clear the tests.

So Keep Calm! Word Hard! Everything is Possible.

 

Tech + HR:

As I am from Electrical Engineering background, the technical interview was more based on projects, industrial trainings and so on. They asked a few C questions (Sorting) and few DBMS programs (Join Operation programs) so on and so forth. The HR asked me to do my SWOT analysis. Some questions on TCS’s background. Why I want to join an IT firm being from Electrical.

       It was one of the best interviews I ever gave but unfortunately got rejected, later I got placed in a better company. So, don’t get dejected at any time during the process. It all about believing in yourself and persevering the tough situations.

 

Good luck!! 

 

 

APGENCO Placement-Paper : 45228
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : BILLA JAGADEESHUpdated Date : Jul 1, 2014

APGENCO Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

APGENCO recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

ONGC Placement-Paper : 45187
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ONGC Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

ONGC recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

ONGC Graduate Engineer Trainess 2014 Exam paper for Domain - Human Resources.