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IBPS Placement-Paper : 43668
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : IBPS Exam AnlysisUpdated Date : Aug 2, 2014

IBPS Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

IBPS recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

IBPS CWE clerical PO,MT Examinations procedure previous years solved question papers and analysis 2013-2014  Analysis of IBPS PO CWE 2013 -Exam held on 19th /20th Oct 2013


IBPS CWE New examination notifications upcoming recruitments through IBPS CWE Clericals, PO,MT Specialists officers new jobs, careers news IBPS CWE PO MT Clerical SPL officers RRBs new examination procedure and IBPS Previous Years free solved question papers with detailed explanations IBPS CWE common written examination aptitude, reasoning, bank based general knowledge, computer awareness, latest current affairs RBI latest updations  in formations Here you can find a comprehensive and detailed analysis of IBPS solved question papers learn and practice largest collection of ibps sample model previous years questions with answers  

IBPS Bank CWE New and latest Examinations recruitment notifications for all over India Public sector banks, nationalised, co-operative banks and other private banks IBPS has been conducting inter-scale promotion assessments for both Generalist and Specialist cadre employees across levels of the organizations. If you are looking for a career in the Human Resource related matter we offer opportunities for employment either in our organization or any other organization who has been utilizing our services in the area of recruitment, placement, promotion and related research. IBPS Personnel offer employment opportunities to all professionals by assessing their potential in a scientific method. IBPS-Bank financial Competitive Admission Testing Learning Skill India Exercise Technology Banking Recruitment Talent Computer Educational Behavioural

 

IBPS careers in banking exams

IBPS CWE -All details regarding IBPS common written examinations (CWE Exam) for various jobs positions in banks
Every years IBPS conducts on line common written examination for clerks, PO-Probationary officers, Management trainees-MT, Specialists officers SPL -in India IBPS started the CWE exam in the year 2011,before that the recruitment /selection procedure in each bank was done by the bank itself. In the latest bank careers news and experts in India says that in the next five years about 7.5 lakh people have to be recruitment  to the banks because of the retirement of existing employees an the opening of different new branches. Being a part of the IBPS team can really be a breakthrough journey for professionals as they get an opportunity to enrich their career experience. With the selection process, the Institute helps its clients in succession planning their manpower, thereby providing opportunities for the employees to grow and develop. 

 

IBPS CWE-Common Written Examination Clerical recruitment notifications IBPS CWE clerical previous years solved questions answers for referring upcoming latest recruitment of IBPS Common Written Examination for Clerical Cadre 2013-2014

 

IBPS recruits clerk once in every year .through on line exam with 200 questions in 120 minutes.1/4th of the marks penalized for each wrong answers in objective tests. Each section 40 questions 40 marks.  You must pass each section for qualifying examination. But not just qualifying examination, candidates should score more than 160 marks out of 200

 

IBPS Expected Date of clerical cadre examination date is December 

 

IBPS CWE PO-MT Probationary Officers, Management Trainee Specialists Officers Examination Procedure 

IBPS conducts recruitment for the Probationary officers, management trainee once in a years In the Year 2012 PO was not on line. but now it is also an on line exam IBPS Po MT Spl officers exam contains 50 questions 50 marks for each sections such as reasoning aptitude, english, computer knowledge ..For the PO recruitment along with these test a test for english composition is there which includes letter writing, essay, precis etc with maximum marks of 25 and for a time of one hour

 

IBPS RRB's regional rural banks exam, specialists officer recruitment and all other recruitment officer scale I,II,III Nabard RBI,SBI SBT all examinations almost same pattern and structure the difference is number questions and marks time etc For Crack IBPS CWE exam speed in calculations is the important factor.Practice all banks IBPS SBI RBI on line mock tests. Refer and practice previous years solved question papers of IBPS CWE PO RRBs Management trainees, probationary officers clerical ..Update your current affairs 


Analysis Examination details regarding  IBPS PO CWE 2013 (Exam held on 19th /20th Oct 2013)


The IBPS P.O. On-line Exam, one of the most reputed exams in the Indian banking sector, was held on the 19th (Saturday) and 20th (Sunday) of October 2013. The next set of dates for the exam are 26th/27th of Oct 2013 and 9th/10th of Nov 2013. It has been ascertained from students' assessment that overall, the examination was moderate, comparatively easier than the one held last year.

 

Duration of the Examination 120 Minutes
Number of sections 5
Negative Marking 0.25 of marks assigned to the question
Total Questions 200
Quantitative Aptitude 50 questions
Reasoning 50 questions
English Language 40 questions
General Awareness 40 questions
Computer Knowledge 20 questions

 

IBPS CWE Exam sectional analysis is as follows : 

IBPS PO CWE  Quantitative Aptitude : 

In general, the difficulty level of this section can be pegged at moderate to difficult. It was reported that there were no questions on Simplifications and Approximations. This was something unexpected and caught students off-guard. Since the above were replaced by questions from various topics of Arithmetic, which usually take more time to solve, this section was time-consuming. 
The break-up of the 50 questions of this section is as : 
Data Interpretation – 20 
Number series – 5 
Quadratic Equations (Comparisons) – 5
Questions from individual topics of Arithmetic – 15
Data Sufficiency – 5

IBPS  CWE  Reasoning : 

According to the feedback received from candidates who have appeared for this exam, the difficulty level of this section can be termed as more or less moderate. As has been the pattern ever since the exam has gone on-line, this time too non-verbal questions were conspicuous by their absence. 
The break-up of the 50 questions in this section is as : 
Deductions – 5 
Data Sufficiency – 5 
Input/output – 5 
Decision Making – 5 
Puzzles – 15 
Other topics – 15 ( Symb & Not based Conclusions, Assumptions / Inferences / Cause and effect, Direction sense / Word digit formation / ranking etc.) 

IBPS CWE  General Awareness : 

It was reported by students that most of the 40 questions in this section were from Banking Awareness and Indian Economy. Current affairs also formed the basis for a few questions. The difficulty level can be stated as easy to moderate. 

IBPS CWE English Language: 

As reported, this section can be called a difficult one, as the Comprehension questions, which students dread, dominated this section. In one of the slots on the 19th of October, there were two passages with 15 questions and in one of the slots of the other day, the two RC passages had 10 questions each. 
Earlier, when the exam used to have 50 questions in this section, this kind of pattern was common. But with almost half of this section dominated by questions on reading comprehension, students found it very lengthy and exhaustive. Had these questions been substituted by those of verbal ability, it could have become easy for candidates to work on this section with greater speed. The break-up of the 40 questions is as : 
Reading Comprehension – 15 -20
Cloze Test – 10
Para formation Questions – 5 (with six sentences to sequence)
Grammar – 5 - 10

IBPS CWE Computer Knowledge : 

The questions in this section were reported to be easy. No great preparation was needed to tick these multiple choice questions. In fact, answers to a few questions could be worked out by looking at the various choices that each of these questions had. As compared to other IBPS exams, this section presented very little challenge to students. 
This section was reported to be easy in all the slots on 19th and 20th Oct 2013. 


In short all students opinion that the 2013 IBPS CWE examination was moderate difficulty level.  Question paper lengthy and time consuming

HP Placement-Paper : 45654
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : EbrahimUpdated Date : Aug 2, 2014

HP Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

HP recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

HP Model Questions

 

This section consist of some aptitude and technical questions generally asked in written test:

 

a) Aptitude Questins with Answers

 

1. Lucia is a wonderful grandmother. Her age is between 50 and 70.Each of her sons have as many sons as they have brothers. Their combined number gives Lucia’s age. What is the age?

 

a) 60

b) 65

c) 64

d) 66

 

Answer: c

Explanation:
Let the no. of Lucia’s sons = n
No. of brothers for each son = n-1
No. of sons for each of Lucia’s son = n-1
Lucia’s age  = n-1 * n-1
    = a perfect square between 50 and 70
    = 64

 

2. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds is:


a) 1 : 3
b) 3 : 2
c) 3 : 4
d) None of these


Answer: b

3. A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the platform?


a) 240 m
b) 120 m
c) 300 m
d) None of these


Answer: a

 

4. A can do a work in 15 days and B in 20 days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then the fraction of the work that is left is:


a) 1/4
b) 1/10
c) 7/15
d) 8/15


Answer: d


5. On selling 17 balls at Rs. 720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball is:


a) Rs. 45
b) Rs. 50
c) Rs. 55
d) Rs. 60


Answer: d

 

6. Grass in lawn grows equally thick and in a uniform rate.It takes 40 days for 40 cows and 60 days for 30 cows to eat the whole of the grass.How many days does it take for 20 cows to do the same?

 

a) 125

b) 110

c) 120

d) 130

 

Answer: c

Explanation:
g - grass at the beginning
r - rate at which grass grows, per day
y - rate at which one cow eats grass, per day
n - no of cows to eat the grass in 96 days
   g + 40*r = 40 * 40 * y------- 1
   g + 60*r = 30 * 60 * y------- 2
   g + n*r = 20 * n * y-------- 3
   from 1 and 2
   r=10y g=120r
   from 3
   nr=120r
   Solving, n = 120


7. When a plot is sold for Rs. 18,700, the owner loses 15%. At what price must that plot be sold in order to gain 15%?


a) Rs. 21,000
b) Rs. 22,500
c) Rs. 25,300
d) Rs. 25,800


Answer: c

 

8. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?


a) 12 days
b) 15 days
c) 16 days
d) 18 days


Answer: 2

 

b) Technical Questions wih Answers

 

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DISTURB, each one has as many letters between its two letters in the word as there are between them in the English alphabet?

 

a) 4
b) 5
c) 3
d) 2
e) None of these

Answer: a


2. What are the types of linkages?


a) Internal and External
b) External, Internal and None
c) External and None
d) Internal


Answer: b


3. Which of the following is not a type of constructor?


a) Copy constructor
b) Friend constructor
c) Default constructor
d) Parameterized constructor


Answer: b

 

4. If C and G interchange their positions, which of the following will indicate A’s position?


a) To the immediate right of G
b) 4th to the right of C
c) 2nd to the left of G
d) to the immediate left of C
e) none of these

Answer: d

 

5. Which of the following statements should be used to obtain a remainder after dividing 3.14 by 2.1?


a) rem = 3.14 % 2.1;
b) rem = modf(3.14, 2.1);
c) rem = fmod(3.14, 2.1);
d) Remainder cannot be obtain in floating point division.


Answer: c

6. main( )
{
unsigned int i=3; freshersworld.com
while( i >=0)
printf( “%d”, i–);
}
how many times will the printf stmt be executed?


a) 0

b)3

c)4

d)infinite

 

Answer: d

7.  Which of the following type of class allows only one object of it to be created?


a) Virtual class
b) Abstract class
c) Singleton class
d) Friend class


Answer: c

 

8. Which of the following stores pictures or graphics?

a) Frame Buffer
b) Sdram
c) Mbr
d) Mar

9. Choose the odd man out

a) IDM
b) SIM
c) GSM
d) GPRS

10. Find the output of the following C program.

Main
{int x,j,k;
J=k=6;x=2;
X=j*k;
Printf(“%d”,x);

 

11. Which of the following is the correct size of a long integer?

a) Compiler dependent
b) 8 bytes
c) 4 bytes
d) 2 bytes

 

12. From the below mentioned option, which is not an IM client?

a) MSN
b) AOL
c) XINGC
d) JABBER

13. How much space does an IP Address occupies?

a) 8 bytes
b) 6 bytes
c) 16 bytes
d) 4 bytes

14. Choose the correct option, which cannot be used across Files?

a) Static
b) Volatile
c) Constant
d) Extern

 

15. Choose the odd man out:

a) TOMCAT
b) JBOSS
c) BLUESTONE
d) WEBSPHERE

 

c) Verbal Aptitude Questions

 

1. Choose the correct antonym of: ADEPT

a) Incompetent
b) Dexterous
c) Whiz
d) Savvy

2. Choose the correct synonym of : EDACITY


a) Aversion 
b) Gluttony
c) Voraciousness
d) Relish

 

3. Choose the correct option which will be compulsory a part of the below given word. 

Language

a) Words
b) Tongue
c) Writing
d) Slang

 

4. Complete the following series

CMM, EOO, GQQ, ? KUU

a) ITT
b) GRR
c) ISS
d) GSS

 

5. Express the following as rate percent.

1. 6 
2. 0.004
3. 23/46

How many times should you role a dice to get the probability of number 4 and 6 being faced on the dices is divided at the same time?

a) 7/18
b) 6/19
c) 2/14
d) 1/15

 

6. How much loss will you incur if you bought a radio for 490 rupees and sold it for 465.50 rupees?

a) -5%
b) 5%
c) .5%
d) 0.5%

 

7. Find the average of 40 natural numbers that come first.

a) 15.5
b) 19.5
c) 19
d) 20.5

 

8. choose the correct option that represents the meaning of the proverb:

To cry wolf

a) To turn pale
b) To listen eagerly
c) To give false alarm
d) To keep off starvation

HAL  Placement-Paper : 45652
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : KajalUpdated Date : Aug 2, 2014

HAL Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

HAL recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

HAL Model Questions 

 

In HAL written test the first section contains Aptitude questions and the next section contains Technical questions. The aptitude consists of multiple choice questions. Here are a few questions asked in the Aptitude section and Technical section of HAL written test:

 

1. Aptitude Questions with Answers

 

1. 35% of 160 +?% of 180 = 50% of 310

 

(a) 35

(b) 55

(c) 65

(d) 45

(e) None of these

 

Answer: b

 

2. A man complete a journey in 10 hours. He travels first half of the journey at the rate of 21 km/hr and second half at the rate of 24 km/hr. Find the total journey in km.


(a) 220 km
(b) 224 km
(c) 230 km
(d) 234 km

 

Answer: b

 

3. √3781 x 5.36 = ?

 

(a) 350

(b) 330

(c) 240

(d) 280

(e) None of these

 

Answer: b 

 

4. Find the wrong number in the sequence 1,2,6,15,31,56,91

 

(a) 15
(b) 6
(c) 56
(d) 91
 

Answer: d

 

5. If (26)2 is subtract from square of a number, the answer so obtained is 549. What is the number ?

 

(a) 35

(b) 33

(c) 29

(d) 41

(e) None of these

 

Answer: a

 

6. A man is facing south. He turns 90o in the clockwise direction and then 135o in the same direction. Which direction is he facing now?

 

(a) North-East
(b) North-West
(c) South-East
(d) South-West

 

Answer: a

 

7. [(4)3 x (5)4 ] ÷ (4)5 = ?

 

(a) 30.0925

(b) 39.0625

(c) 35.6015

(d) 29.0825

(e) None of these

 

Answer: b

 

8. (8.2% 365) – (1.75% of 108) = ?

(a) 16.02 (b) 28.04 (c) 42.34 (d) 53.76 (e) None of these

b

 

 

9. (739% of 383) ÷ 628 ≈ ?

 

(a) 10.00

(b) 4.50

(c) 15.75

(d) 19.25

(e) 24.15

 

Answer: b

 

10. 94.5% of 550 = ?

 

(a) 506.45

(b) 521.65

(c) 518.55

(d) 519.75

(e) None of these

 

Answer: d

 

11.  ………….. is the part of the computer that does the arithmetical calculations.

 

(a) Memory

(b) OS

(c) CPU

(d) ALU

(e) None of these

 

Answer:d

 

12. A rectangular park 60 m long and 40 m wide has two concrete crossroads running in the middle of the park and rest of the park has been used as a lawn. If the area of the lawn is 2109 sq. m, then what is the width of the road?

 

(a) 3 m
(b) 2.91 m
(c) 5.82 m
(d) None of these

 

Answer: a

 

13. The CPU, also called the …………… when talking about Pcs, does the vast majority of the processing for a computer.

 

(a) macroprocessor

(b) RAM

(c) Memory System

(d) microprocessor

(e) None of these

 

Answer:d

 

14. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 37 1/2 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Both pipes are opened. The cistern will be filled in just half an hour, if the B is turned off after:

 

(a) 5 min
(b) 10 min
(c) 9 min
(d) 15 min
 

Answer: c

 

15. A computer’s type, processor, and operating system define its.

 

(a) brand

(b) size

(c) platform

(d) speed

(e) None of these

 

Answer: d

 

16. The part of the Central processing unit (CPU) that accesses and decodes program instructions and coordinates the flow of data among various system components is the

 

(a) ALU

(b) control unit

(c) megahertz

(d) motherboard

(e) None of these

 

Answer: b

 

17. What is the difference between a CD-ROM (Read Only Memory) and a CD-RW?

 

(a) They are the same-just two different terms used by different manufacturers.

(b) A CD-ROM can be written to and a CD-RW cannot

(c) A CD-RW can be written to, but a CD-ROM can only be read from

(d) A CD-ROM holds more information than a CD-RW.

(e) None of these

 

Answer: c

 

18. When a product is sold at certain price, it gives 20% gain. What is the gain when it is sold at thrice the price ?

 

(a) 250
(b) 260
(c) 270
(d) 280
 

Answer: b

 

19. Find the next number in the sequence 1,2,4,7,11,___

 

(a) 15
(b) 18
(c) 16
(d) 12
 

Answer: c

 

20. A disk’s content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is-

 

(a) memory-only

(b) write-only

(c) read-only

(d) run-only

(e) None of these

 

Answer: c

 

21.The sum of two digit number and its reverse number is 99. How many such numbers are possible ?

 

(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 16
(d) 100
 

Answer: b

 

22. What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it  a perfect square ?

 

(a) 118

(b) 95

(c) 110

(d) 100

(e) None of these

Answer: c

 

23. 137% of 12345≈ ?

 

(a) 17000

(b) 15000

(c) 1500

(d) 14300

(e) 900

 

Answer: a

 

24. The average weight of two groups consisting of 70 and 30 members are 70 and 30 respectively. What is the total average weight ?

 

(a) 61
(b) 58
(c) 49
(d) 52
 

Answer: b

 

2. Technical questions

 

a) Electronics and Electrical questions


The HAL Electronics and Electrical written test is an online test, in which objective type of questions are asked with a time limit of mostly 2 ½ hours.Here are a few questions asked in the Electronics and Electrical section of HAL written test:

 

1. The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine is

 

(a) to reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
(b) to spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux density
(c) to support the field coil
(d) to discharge all the above functions

2. In the case of lap winding resultant pitch is

 

(a) multiplication of front and back pitches
(b) division of front pitch by back pitch
(c) sum of front and back pitches
(d) difference of front and back pitches

3. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be

 

(a) imperfect contact
(b) rough commutator surface
(c) severe sparking 
(d) any of the above

4. In lap winding, how many numbers of brushes are used always?

 

(a) two
(b) same as the number of poles
(c) half the number of poles
(d) double the number of poles

5. What are Laminations of core are made of generally?
(a) carbon 
(b) silicon steel
(c) cast iron
(d) stainless steel

 

6. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of armature conductors is fixed, then which winding will give the higher e.m.f.?

 

(a) Wave winding 
(b) Lap winding
(c) Either of (a) and (b) above
(d) Depends on other features of design

7. Which of the following could be lamina-proximately the thickness of laminations of a D.C. machine?

 

(a) 5 m
(b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 0.005 mm

 

8. Why are Copper brushes in D.C. machine used?

 

(a) where low voltage and high currents are involved
(b) where high voltage and small cur-rents are involved
(c) in both of the above cases
(d) in none of the above cases

9. How is a separately excited generator as compared to a self-excited generator better?

 

(a) is amenable to better voltage control
(b) is more stable
(c) has exciting current independent of load current
(d) has all above features

10. Why is the armature of D.C. generator laminated?

 

(a) provide the bulk
(b) reduce the bulk
(c) insulate the core
(d) reduce eddy current loss

11. On what does the resistance of armature winding depends?

 

(a) cross-sectional area of the conductor 
(b) length of conductor
(c) number of conductors
(d) all of the above

12. What are the field coils of D.C. generator usually made of?

 

(a) Copper
(b) Mica
(c) Cast iron 
(d) Carbon

13. The commutator segments are connected to the armature conductors by means of

 

(a) resistance wires
(b) copper lugs 
(c) insulation pads
(d) brazing

14.In a commutator, what is harder

 

(a) copper is harder than mica
(b) mica and copper are equally hard
(c) mica is harder than copper
(d) none of the above

15. In D.C. generators how are the pole shoes are fastened to the pole core by

 

(a) brazing 
(b) counter sunk screws
(c) rivets
(d) welding

16. According to Fleming's right-hand rule for finding the direction of induced e.m.f., when middle finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction of

 

(a) lines of force
(b) motion of conductor
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above

 

17. What is the material used in commutator brushes?

 

(a) carbon 
(b) copper
(c) cast iron 
(d) Mica

18. What is the insulating material used between the commutator segment is?

 

(a) Graphite 
(b) mica
(c) paper 
(d) insulating varnish

19. What does the Fleming's right-hand rule regarding direction of induced e.m.f correlates to

 

(a) magnetic field strength, induced voltage and current
(b) magnetic flux, direction of motion and the direction of e.m.f. induced
(c) magnetic flux, direction of current flow and resultant force
(d) magnetic flux, direction of force and direction of motion of conductor

20. While applying Fleming's right-hand rule to And the direction of induced e.m.f., the thumb points towards

 

(a) direction of induced e.m.f.
(b) direction of flux
(c) direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger points in the direction of generated e.m.f.
(d) direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points along the lines of flux

21. In a four-pole D.C. machine

 

(a) all the four poles are north poles
(b) alternate poles are north and south
(c) two north poles follow two south poles
(d) all the four poles are south poles

22. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are primary function of

 

(a) speed 
(b) voltage
(c) current
(d) friction

23. What are the Brushes of D.C. machines made of?

 

(a) soft copper
(b) carbon
(c) hard copper 
(d) all of above

24. If B is the flux density, I the length of conductor and v the velocity of conductor, then induced e.m.f. is given by

 

(a)Bl2v 
(b)Blv2
(c)Blv 
(d)Bl2v2

25. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap winding with sixteen coils, the pole pitch will be

 

(a) 8 
(b) 4
(c) 32
(d) 16

26. In D.C. generators, the brushes on commutator remain in contact with conductors which

 

(a) lie under south pole
(b) lie under north pole
(c) are farthest from the poles
(d) lie under interpolar region

27. Which of the following statement about D.C. generators is false ?

 

(a) Compensating winding in a D.C. machine helps in commutation
(b) In a D. C. generator interpoles winding is connected in series with the armature winding
(c) Back pitch and front pitch are both odd and approximately equal to the pole pitch
(d) Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel running of D.C. shunt generators

 

28. In a D.C. generator, how are the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated reduced by?

 

(a) using conductor of annealed copper
(b) using commutator with large number of segments
(c) using carbon brushes of superior quality
(d) using equiliser rings

29. Magnetic field in a D.C. generator is produced by

 

(a) electromagnets
(b) permanent magnets
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

30. On what does the number of brushes in a commutator depends on?

 

(a) speed of armature
(b) voltage 
(c) type of winding 
(d) amount of current to be collected

 

b) Current Affairs Question
 

Here are a few questions asked in the HAL written test of current affairs:

1. Who was the Miss World 2013?

 

(a) Megan Young 

(b) Marine Lorphelin
(c) Naa Okailey
(d) Laura Jane Corker

 

2. Who had discovered oxygen?


(a) Carl Scheele and Joseph Priestley
(b) Carl Scheele and Charles Babbage
(c) Charles Babbage

(d) Benjamin Franklin


3. How many Major Mountain Ranges in India?


(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 5
(d) 9

4. Which automobile company became first automaker to participate in Greenhouse Gas Reporting Programme in India on 23 July 2013?


(a) Ford Motor Company
(b) General Motors
(c) Maruti Suzuki
(d) Mahindra and Mahindra Limited

 

5. When was battle of Plessey fought? 


(a) 1757
(b) 1751

(c) 1752
(d) 1758

6. What does Ophidiophobia means?

 

(a) Fear of Height
(b) Fear of water
(c) Fear of snakes
(d) Fear of darkness

7. Which country won the first Fifa world cup?


(a) Spain 
(b) Germany 
(c) France

(d) England

8. Who has written the autobiography "my life".

 

(a) Bill Clinton

(b) Queen Elizabeth
(c) Prince Charles

(d) Barack Obama

 

9. Who is the Winner of Saraswati Samman Award 2013?

 

(a) Sugathakumari

(b) Rani Jaisingh
(c) Palashi Yuddha
(d) Rani Sugatha

10. According to the recent satellite images, deforestation has dropped down by around one-third since 2000 in which rainforests of Africa?

 

(a) Congo Basin

(b) Zaire Basin
(c) Amazon Rainforest

(d) Tropical Region

11. INSAT-3D was launched successfully by the European rocket from the spaceport of Kourou in French Guiana on 26 July 2013. What is the purpose of INSAT-3D?

 

(a) To provide technological experience in building and operating a satellite system
(b) To provide experience in building and operating a payload experiment three-axis stabilised communication satellite
(c) For multipurpose communication: business communication, developmental communication, and mobile communication
(d) Meteorological Satellite with advanced weather monitoring payloads

12. In Olympics when did India won first ever gold medal?

 

(a) 1920
(b) 1900

(c) 1925
(d) 1921

13. The Supreme Court of India on 24 July 2013 slapped contempt notices on two Sahara firms for not complying with its order of refunding around 19000 crore rupees to investors. Which body filed the contempt petition against Sahara firms?

 

(a) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Aulthority (PFRDA)
(b) The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA)
(d) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(e) Forward Markets Commission (FMC)

14. What is the technical name of Northern Lights?

 

(a) Aurora borealis

(b) Geometric Storm
(c) Solar Wind
(d) Substorm

 

15. What are Uber Cup, sudiman Cup tournaments are related to?

 

(a) Cricket
(b) Badminton.
(c) Hockey
(d) Football

16. Tallinn is a capital city of.
(a) Romania
(b) Estonia

(c) Gaza
(d) Lithuania


17. Zend Avesta is a holy book of which religion?

 

(a) Buddhism 
(b) Scientology 
(c) Zoroastrianism 
(d) Jainism

18. Who is the painter of the Famous painting "sun flower" ?


(a) Edgar Degas
(b) Vincent van Gogh
(c) Edward Munch
(d) Frida Kahlo

 

19. The President of India, Pranab Mukherjee inaugurated the first?

 

(a) First Engineers Conclave-2013 on 17 September 2013
(b) First Engineers Conclave-2013 on 17 October 2013
(c) First Engineers Conclave-2013 on 17 December 2013
(d) First Engineers Conclave-2013 on 17 March 2013


20. Which of these are associated with cricket stadium or ground?
(a) Pavilion end
(b) Nursery end
(c) St. Johns Road

(d) End Road
 

c) Chemical Engineering Questions


Here are few questions asked in the HAL written test of Chemical Engineering section. 

 

1. How is Bleaching of paper pulp done?


(a) bromine
(b) activated clay
(c) chlorine or chlorine dioxide 
(d) magnesium sulphite


2. Why is Plasticisers added to paints?


(a) make it corrosion resistant.
(b) give elasticity & prevent cracking of the film. 
(c) increase atmospheric oxidation.
(d) make glossy surface

3. What is the function of thinner in paint?


(a) accelerate the oxidation of oil.
(b) prevent gelling of the paint. 
(c) from a protective film.
(d) suspend pigments & dissolve film forming materials.

 

4. From the following which is a high grade pulp?


(a) Sulphate pulp
(b) Mechanical pulp
(c) Rag pulp 
(d) Sulphite pulp

5. Why are enamels used?


(a) are same as varnish. 
(b) give good glossy finish.
(c) are prepared from non-drying oil.
(d) do not contain pigment.


6. What does Bond crushing law states?


(a) calls for relatively less energy for the smaller product particles, than does the Rittinger law. 
(b) is less realistic in estimating the power requirements of commercial crushers.
(c) state that the work required to form particle of any size from very large feed is proportional to the square root of the volume to surface ratio of the product.
(d) states that the work required for the crushing is proportional to the new surface created.


7. What varnish does not contain?


(a) anti-skimming agent. 
(b) thinner
(c) dryer
(d) pigment

8. Which of the following is the starting material for the production of Molasses?


(a) massecuite 
(b) essential oil
(c) fatty acids
(d) Alcohol

9. What is the Shape factor for a cylinder whose length equals its diameter?


(a) 1.0
(b) 0.5
(c) 1.5
(d) 2.0

10. What is the ratio of the actual mesh dimension of Taylor series to that of the next smaller screen?


(a) 1
(b) v2 
(c) 1.5
(d) 3

11. What is the opening of a 200 mesh screen Taylor series?


(a) 0.0047 cm 
(b) 0.0074 mm
(c) 0.0074 cm 
(d) 74 mili-microns

12. What is the ratio of the area of openings in one screen to that of the openings in the next smaller screen?


(a) 1.5
(b) 1
(c) 1.7
(d) none of these 

 

13. What is the enzyme which converts starch into the disaccharides maltose?


(a) yeast 
(b) maltase
(c) diastase
(d) none of these

14. The equivalent diameter of a particle is the diameter of the sphere having the same


(a) ratio of surface to volume as the actual volume. 
(b) ratio of volume to surface as the particle.
(c) volume as the particle.
(d) none of these

15. What is used for the coarse reduction of hard solids?


(a) compression 
(b) attrition
(c) impact 
(d) cutting

16. What is made of Soft & non-abrasive materials into fines?


(a) attrition 
(b) compression
(c) cutting
(d) none of these

 

17. What is Cooking liquor in case of sulphite process?


(a) sodium sulphite and sodium bisulphite. 
(b) magnesium sulphite and free SO2 in acid medium.
(c) magnesium sulphate and magnessium bicarbonate.
(d) none of these


18. What is the ratio of Crushing efficiency?


(a) surface energy created by crushing to the energy absorbed by the solid.
(b) energy absorbed by the solid to that fed to the machine.
(c) energy created by crushing.
(d) energy absorbed by the solid to the surface energy created by crushing.

19. What does the Rittinger's crushing law states?


(a) work required to form a particle of any size is proportional to the square of the surface to volume ratio of the product.
(b) work required to form a particle of a particular size is proportional to the square root of the surface to volume ratio of the product.
(c) work required in crushing is proportional to the new surface created. 
(d) for a given machine and feed, crushing efficiency is dependent on the size of the feed & product.

 

20. Why is SO2 bubbled through hot sugar cane juice?


(a) increase the crystal size. 
(b) increase its concentration.
(c) increase the amount of molasses. 
(d) act as an acidifying agent.


21. How does work index defined?


(a) gross energy (k Wh/ton of feed) needed to reduce very large feed to such a size that 80% of the product passes through a 100 micron screen. 
(b) energy needed to crush one tonne of feed to 200 microns.
(c) energy (k Wh/ton of feed) needed to crush small feed to such a size that 80% of the product passes a 200 mesh screen.
(d) energy needed to crush one ton of feed to 100 microns.

 

22. Which oil is preferred for manufacturing paint?


(a) Saturated oil 
(b) Non-drying oil
(c) Semi-drying oil
(d) Drying oil

23. What is a fluid energy mill used for?


(a) cutting
(b) grinding
(c) ultragrinding 
(d) crushing

 

24. The Cumulative analysis for determining surface is more precise than differential analysis, because of the


(a) assumption that all particles in a single fraction are equal in size.
(b) fact that screening is more effective.
(c) assumption that all particles in a single fraction are equal in size.
(d) assumption that all particles in a single fraction are equal in size, is not needed.

25. The ideal pulp for the manufacture of paper should have high content of which material?
(a) ellulose 
(b) lignin
(c) Lignin and ellulose
(d) none of these

26. Comparing sulphate process with sulphite process, what do we find in the later.


(a) both temperature & pressure in the former is less than that
(b) both temperature & pressure in the former is more than that 
(c) temperature is more in the former whereas pressure is more
(d) pressure is more in the former whereas temperature is less

 

27. What does Wet grinding in a revolving mill do as compared to dry grinding?


(a) gives less wear on chamber walls
(b) requires more energy
(c) increases capacity 
(d) decreses handling of the product

 

28. The operating speed of a ball mill should be ......... the critical speed.


(a) much more than 
(b) less than
(c) at least equal to
(d) slightly more than


29. During manufacturing which of the following paper does not require filler?


(a) Blotting paper
(b) Writing paper
(c) Bond paper 
(d) Coloured paper

 

30. White cooking liquor consists of caustic soda, in Kraft process of paper manufacture


(a) sodium sulphide & sodium carbonate. 
(b) sodium sulphite & sodium carbonate.
(c) sodium sulphite & sodium sulphide.
(d) All of the three

 

d) Computer Science Questions


Here are few questions asked in the HAL written test of Computer Science Engineering section. 

1. Which is the most significant difference between a simple desk calculator and computer? Choose from the following (note that some of the following may not even be true). 


(a) One has to know the method of calculation while using a calculator but a computer user can depend upon the computer to choose the method automatically. 
(b) the computer is useful in business applications while the desk calculator is not 
(c) the computer can print its results, while the desk calculator can only show it on a display 
(d) the computer is controlled by a program stored in its memory while calculator require step-by-step manual control 

2. Why is RAM used as a short memory?


(a) is volatile 
(b) is very expensive 
(c) has small capacity 
(d) None of the above

3. A computer derives its basic strength from 


(a) speed 
(b) accuracy
(c) memory 
(d) all of the above 

4. A term associated with the comparison of processing speeds of different computer systems is : 


(a) MIPS
(b) MPG 
(c) EFTS 
(d) CPS

5. The use of computer for business applications is attractive because of its 


(a) accuracy 
(b) reliability 
(c) speed 
(d) All of the above 

 

6. Modern computers compared to earlier computers are 


(a) faster and smaller
(b) less reliable 
(c) larger and stronger 
(d) slower but more reliable


7. A computer is capable of performing almost any task, provided that it can be 


(a) reduced to a series of logical steps
(b) memorized 
(c) analyzed 
(d) coded

 

8. Pick up the false statement 


(a) the space in the primary storage section is divided into four areas: input, working, storage, output and program storage.
(b) computer errors can usually be traced to faulty programs or inaccurate input data 
(c) the facts or informational raw materials represented by numeric and non-numeric symbols are called information 
(d) computer can manipulate both numeric and non-numeric symbols

9. A computer has very high speed, accuracy and reliability. Its intelligence quotient could be of the order of 


(a) 0
(b) 01 
(c) 50
(d) 200

10. A Computer can not do anything without?


(a) program 
(b) memory
(c) output device 
(d) chip

11. How does a computer possess information? 


(a) as directed by the operator 
(b) gradually
(c) at once 
(d) automatically

12. What does the processors of all computers, whether micro, mini or mainframe has?


(a) Control Unit 
(b) primary storage 
(c) ALU
(d) all of the above 

13. What is a correct statement about computers 


(a) Computers have the built-in ability to obey different types of instructions. 
(b) all comparisons are made in the control section 
(c) the arithmetic-logic section of the CPU selects, interprets and executes the program steps. 
(d) the secondary storage devices are usually connected on line to the CPU but for accepting data from them or returning data to them, human intervention is required 

14. Real time computing is possible because of the following characteristic of computer 


(a) storage capability 
(b) high speed 
(c) automatic in execution
(d) versatility 

15. What is not true about modern computer systems 


(a) these are simple and easy to take care of 
(b) even beginners, untrained persons can safely handle them 
(c) they require a highly disciplined approach 
(d) the negligent use of a computer system will almost always introduce time bombs into the system. 

 

17. What is false about microcomputers, mini-computers, etc.? 


(a) most micros use rigid disk storage devices rather than floppy disk drives
(b) a minicomputer can have more processing capability than a mainframe model 
(c) a microcomputer chip performs the arithmetic-logic and control functions of a microcomputer 
(d) ROM chips may be used in micros; to permanently store program instruction 

18. What does a collection of eight bits called? 


(a) byte 
(b) word 
(c) record 
(d) file 

19. What does a group of instructions that directs a computer called ?


(a) storage 
(b) memory 
(c) logic 
(d) None of the above

 

20. What does BIT represents? 


(a) binary digit 
(b) octal digit 
(c) decimal digit 
(d) hexa decimal digit 

21. Which of the following does not describe one or more characteristics of a computer?


(a) electronic 
(b) external storage 
(c) program modification at execution
(d) All of the above are characteristics. 

22. What is the general purpose of computers that can be adapted to countless uses simply by changing its? 


(a) keyboard 
(b) program 
(c) printer 
(d) None of the above

23. Which is the computer memory that does not forget?


(a) RAM 
(b) ROM
(c) PROM 
(d) None of the above 

24. Why is the Santa Clara Valley near Palo Alto, California popularly known as Silicon Valley of America?


(a) huge deposits of silicon are found there 
(b) many silicon chip manufacturing firms are located there 
(c) it is full of large grain sand
(d) Santa Claus visits it every Christmas

25. Computers are incapable of emotional feelings. However, some people attribute humanlike emotions to imitate objects including computers. What is it called?


(a) anthropogenesis 
(b) anthropomorphism 
(c) anthroolatory 
(d) cybernetics 

26. The most common binary code in use today is the 8 bit ASCII code. What do the letters ASCII stand for?


(a) American Scientific Code for Information Interchange 
(b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange 
(c) American Standard Code for Intelligence interchange 
(d) None of the 

 

27. In order to trace the incorrect input data or unreliable programs this of the following acronym recognizes the fact that “computer errors?" 


(a) IGO 
(b) ROM
(c) LIFO
(d) DASD

28. What is the Control Unit of a digital computer called? 
(a) Lock 
(b) Nerve centre 
(c) ICs 
(d) None of the above 

 

TechMahindra Placement-Paper : 45569
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : SeethuUpdated Date : Aug 2, 2014

TechMahindra Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

TechMahindra recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

Tech Mahindra- Test Pattern with Questions and Answers

 

Latest paper pattern of Tech Mahindra is given below:

 

Total Time : -1 hr.

Section A   : General English (35 questions)

Section B   : Number and Diagram series (20 questions Series )

Section C   : Quantitative Aptitude (20 questions) 

 

Note:There is no strict time limit on each section. You can start from any section.

         Remember there is 1:1 negative marking

 

Each section was divided into 6 sections and they can be completed in 10 minutes.

 

Section 1: Quantitative Maths: 

  1. Age problem
  2. Time & Speed
  3. Simple Trigonometry
  4. Algebra
  5. Mensuration
  6. Time & work
  7. Profit & loss
  8. Percentage.

Section 2: Logical Reasoning 

  1. Series
  2. Coding
  3. Blood relations
  4. Analogy

Section 3: 

  1. English Usage & verbal logic Para jumbles
  2. Antonym-synonyms
  3. Analogy section.
  4. Section 4: 
  5. Data Interpretation 

Section 5: 

  1. Reading Comprehension

Section 6: 

  1. Logic there were 2 flowcharts and some questions based on them.

Questions And Answers

 

Section A: English

 

1. In the question below the sentences have been given in Direct/Indirect speech. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

She said to her friend, "I know where is everyone"


A. She told that she knew where was everyone.
B. She told her friend that she knew where was everyone.
C. She told her friend that she knew where is everyone.
D. She told her friend that she knows where was everyon

Answer: B

 

Questions (-10) complete the sentence with appropriate words 

 

2. “You can have _ the chicken dish __ the fish dish for dinner tonight.”

 

A. as, as
B. whether, or
C. either, or

D. Nne of these

Answer: C

 

3._ my aunt _ my uncle live in India.

 

A. Either, nor
B.Both, and
C. Whether, or

D. None of these
Answer: B 

 

4. Choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.

Medical study of skin and its diseases


A. Dermatology 
B. Endocrinology
C. Gynealogy 
D. Orthopaedics

Answer: A

 

5. In the question given below a part of the sentence is italicised and underlined. Below are given alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. 

Will you kindly open the knot?


A. untie 
B. break
C. loose 
D. No improvement
Answer: A

 

Select the most closely related the capital word

 

6. FULSOME:

 

A. Excessive
B. Trival
C. Thorough
D. Eager
Answer: A

 

 

Rearrange the following five sentences in proper sequence so as to for a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.
1.But, we all helped in the first few days.
2.Chandrapur is considered as a rural area.
3.Manohar was transferred to his office recently.
4.Initially he was not getting adjusted to the city life.
5.Now, Manohar is very proud of his colleagues.

6. Before that he was working in chandrapur branch of our office.

 

7. Which of the following should be the third sentence ?

 

A. 5 
B. 6
C. 1 
D. 2
E. 3
Answer: D

 

8. Which of the following should be the second sentence ?

 

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4 
D. 5
E. 6
Answer: E

 

9. The young boy was not wearing ___________ cloths

 

A. a
B. any
C. nothing

D. None of these
Answer: C

 

10. GABBLE:


A. To bring to together
B. Add a proof
C. Take rapidly
D. Jump and skip about
Answer:C

 

Section B : Quantitative Aptitude

 

11. Which of the following integers has most number of divisors?

 

1) 176
2) 182
3) 99
4) 101

 

Answer: 2

Explanation: 176 = 2,4,8,11,16,22,44,88
182 = 2,7,13,14,26,91

 99 = 3, 9, 11, 33
101= 101

 

12. A man goes from city A to city B situated 60 kms apart by a boat. His onward journey was with the stream while the return journey was an upstream journey. It took him four and half hours to complete the round trip. If the speed of the stream is 10 km/hr, how long did it take him to complete the onward journey?

 

1) 3 hours
2) 3.5 hours
3) 2.25 hours
4) 1.5 hours
Answer: 4

 

13. If the wheel of a bicycle makes 560 revolutions in travelling 1.1 km, what is its radius?

 

1) 31.25 cm
2) 37.75 cm
3) 35.15 cm
4) 11.25 cm
Answer :1

 

14. A man driving his bike at 24 kmph reaches his office 5 minutes late. Had he driven 25% faster on an average he would have reached 4 minutes earlier than the scheduled time. How far is his office?

 

1) 24 km
2) 72 km
3) 18 km
4) Data Insufficient
Answer: 3

 

15. Train A traveling at 60 km/hr leaves Mumbai for Delhi at 6 P.M. Train B traveling at 90 km/hr also
leaves Mumbai for Delhi at 9 P.M. Train C leaves Delhi for Mumbai at 9 P.M. If all three trains meet at
the same time between Mumbai and Delhi, what is the speed of Train C if the distance between Delhi
and Mumbai is 1260 kms?

 

1) 60 km/hr
2) 90 km/hr
3) 120 km/hr
4) 135 km/hr
Answer: 3

 

16. When an object is dropped, the number of feet N that it falls is given by the formula N = ½gt2 wheret is the time in seconds from the time it was dropped and g is 32.2. If it takes 5 seconds for the object to reach the ground, how many feet does it fall during the last 2 seconds?

 

1) 64.4
2) 96.6
3) 161.0
4) 257.6
Answer: 4

 

17. The sum of any seven consecutive numbers is divisible by

 

1) 2
2) 7
3) 3
4) 11
Answer: 2

 

18. A certain number of bullets were shared by 3 people equally.Each of them fired 4 bullets and the sum of the remaining bullets was equal to the initial share each had got.what was the initial number of
bullets?

 

1)20
2)18
3)16
4)14
Answer: 2

 

19. A person was fined for exceeding the speed limit by 10mph. Another person was also fined for
exceeding the same speed limit by twice the same. If the second person was traveling at a speed of 35 mph, find the speed limit.


1) 20 mph
2) 15 mph
3) 18 mph

4) 22 mph
Answers: 1

 

20. If a car starts from A towards B with some velocity due to some problem in the engine after travelling30km.If the car goes with 4/5 th of its actuval velocity the car reaches B 45min later to the actual time. Ifthe car engine fails ofter travelling 45km, the car reaches the destination B 36min late to the actual time, what is the initial velocity of car and what is the distance between A and B in km

 

1) 40 & 100
2) 10 & 150
3) 20 & 130
4) 50
Answer: 3

 

21. If the operation,^ is defined by the equation x ^ y = 2x + y,what is the value of a
in 2 ^ a = a ^ 3

 

1) 0
2) 1
3) -1
4) 4
Answer: 2

 

22. If 9x-3y=12 and 3x-5y=7 then 6x-2y = ?

 

1) -5
2) 4
3) 2
4) 8
Answer: 4

 

23. If a and b are positive integers and (a-b)/3.5 = 4/7, then

 

1) b < a
2) b > a
3) b = a
4) b >= a
Answer: 1

 

24. A coffee shop blends 2 kinds of coffee,putting in 2 parts of a 33p. a gm. grade to 1
part of a 24p. a gm.If the mixture is changed to 1 part of the 33p. a gm. to 2 parts of
the less expensive grade,how much will the shop save in blending 100 gms.

 

1) Rs.90
2) Rs.1.00
3) Rs.3.00
4) Rs.8.00
Answer: 3

 

25) Two third of three fifth of one fourth of a number is 24. What is 40% of that number?


1) 96
2) 72
3) 120
4) 156
Answer: 1

Explanation let the number be x, then

X of 2/3 of 3/5 of ¼ = 24
X * 2/3 * 3/5 * ¼ = 24, x = 240.
Hence 40% of 240 = 40/100 * 240 = 96

 

26. There are 200 questions on a 3 hr examination. Among these questions are 50
Mathematics problems. It is suggested that twice as much time be spent on each
maths problem as for each other question. How many minutes should be spent on
Mathematics problems

 

1) 36
2) 72
3) 60
4) 100
Answer: 2

 

27. .If 13 = 13w/(1-w), then (2w) 2 =

 

1) 1/4
2) 1/2
3) 1
4) 2
Answer: 3

 

28. M men agree to purchase a gift for Rs. D. If three men drop out how much more
Will each have to contribute towards the purchase of the gift

 

1) D/(M-3)
2) MD/3
3) M/(D-3)
4) 3D/(M2-3M)
Answer: 4

 

29. 2 hours after a freight train leaves Delhi a passenger train leaves the same station
traveling in the same direction at an average speed of 16 km/hr. After traveling 4 hrs
the passenger train overtakes the freight train. The average speed of the freight train
Was?

 

1) 30
2) 40
3) 58
4) 60
Answer: 2

 

30.Divide 45 into four parts such that when 2 is added to the first part, 2 is subtracted from the second part, 2 is multiplied by the third part and the fourth part is divided by two, all result in the same number.

 

1) 8, 12, 5, 20
2)6,10,15,11
3)2,8,14,9
4)none of these
Answer: 3

 

SAIL Placement-Paper : 45541
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SAIL Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

SAIL recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

SAIL Management Trainee Electronics Model Questions And Answers

 

This paper contains generally asked questions in three different sections such as:

  1. Aptitude
  2. Technical
  3. General Knowledge

a) Aptitude Questions:

 

1. Jagan went to another town covering 240 km by car moving at 60 kmph. Then he covered 400km by train moving at 100 kmph and then rest 200 km he covered by a bus moving at 50 kmph. The average speed during the whole journey was:

  1. 80 kmph 
  2. 70 kmph
  3. 75 kmph 
  4. 72 kmph

Answer: 1

 

2. A shopkeeper buys 144 eggs at 90 paise each. In the way 20 eggs were broken. He sold the remaining eggs at Rs. 1.20 each. The percentage gain or loss is

  1. 14.8% gain 
  2. 12.9% gain
  3. 8.5% gain 
  4. 4.8% gain

Answer: 2

 

3. Perimeter of the back wheel = 9 feet, front wheel = 7 feet on a certain distance, the front wheel gets 10 revolutions more than the back wheel .What is the distance?

  1. 123
  2. 315
  3. 310
  4. 320

Answer : 2

 

4. A shop gives 10% discount on the purchase of an item. If paid for in cash immediately, a further discount of 12% is given. If the original price of the item is Rs. 250, what is the price of the article if a cash purchase is made?

  1. Rs. 200 
  2. Rs. 195
  3. Rs. 198 
  4. Rs. 190

Answer:3

 

5. Perimeter of front wheel =30, back wheel = 20. If front wheel revolves 240 times. How many revolutions will the back wheel take?

  1. 350
  2. 320
  3. 310
  4. 360

Answer: 4 

 

6. 20% of a 6 litre solution and 60% of 4 litre solution are mixed. What percentage of the mixture of solution

  1. 3%
  2. 36%
  3. 20%
  4. 15%

Answer: 2

 

7. City A's population is 68000, decreasing at a rate of 80 people per year. City B having population 42000 is increasing at a rate of 120 people per year. In how many years both the cities will have same population?

  1. 140
  2. 150
  3. 130
  4. 160

Answer: 3

 

8. A pipe of 2 inch diameter fills the water tank in one hour. If the diameter of the pipe is 4 inch in what time will the pipe fill the same tank?

  1. 10 minutes 
  2. 15 minutes 
  3. 30 minutes 
  4. 45 minutes

Answer: 2

 

9.Two cars are 15 kms apart. One is turning at a speed of 50kmph and the other at 40kmph . How much time will it take for the two cars to meet?

  1. 1/2
  2. 2/3
  3. 3
  4. 3/2

Answer: 4

 

10. A person wants to buy 3 paise and 5 paise stamps costing exactly one rupee. If he buys which of the following number of stamps he won't able to buy 3 paise stamps.

  1. 6
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 4

Answer: 2

 

11. A horse is tied at the corner of a rectangular field, whose length is 20m and width is 16m with a rope whose length is 14m. Find the area which the horse can graze?

  1. 156 sq.m. 
  2. 154 sq.m.
  3. 164 sq.m. 
  4. 144 sq.m.

Answer:2

 

12. There are 12 boys and 15 girls, How many different dancing groups can be formed with 2 boys and 3 girls.

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 5

Answer :3

 

13. Which of the following fractions is less than 1/3

  1. 22/62
  2. 15/46
  3. 2/3
  4. 1

Answer: 2

 

14. There are two circles, one circle is inscribed and another circle is circumscribed over a square. What is the ratio of area of inner to outer circle?

  1. 2:1
  2. 1:3
  3. 1:2
  4. 1:4

Answer: 3

 

15. Three types of tea the a,b,c costs Rs. 95/kg,100/kg and70/kg respectively. How many kgs of each should be blended to produce 100 kg of mixture worth Rs.90/kg, given that the quntities of band c are equal 

  1. 70,15,15
  2. 50,25,25
  3. 60,20,20
  4. 40,30,30

Answer: 2

 

16. The area of a triangle is equal to the area of a square whose each side is 60 metres. The height of the triangle is 90 metres. The base of the triangle will be

  1. 75 m 
  2. 85 m
  3. 65 m 
  4. 80 m

Answer: 4

 

17. Sam and Rita was sitting in a park in the evening looking at the sunset to the horizon. What is the direction of their right hand side?

  1. East 
  2. West
  3. North 
  4. South

Answer: 2

 

18. It takes 40 men eight days to earn Rs. 2000.How many men will earn Rs.200 in two days?

  1. 10 
  2. 14
  3. 16 
  4. 20

Answer: 3

 

19. Ten men can finish construction of a wall in eight days. How much men are needed to finish the work in half-a-day?

  1. 80 
  2. 100
  3. 120 
  4. 160

Answer: 4

 

20. It was Wednesday on July 15, 1964. What was the day on July 15, 1965?

  1. Thursday 
  2. Tuesday
  3. Friday 
  4. None of these

Answer: 1

 

b) Technical Questions:

 

1. Two coils in differential connection have self-inductance of 2 mH and 4 mH and a mutual inductance of 0.15 mH. The equivalent inductance of the combination is

  1. 5.7 mH
  2. 5.85 mH
  3. 6 mH
  4. 6.15 mH.

Answer: 1

 

2. Opto-couplers combine

  1. SITs and BJTs
  2. IGBTs and MOSFETS
  3. Power transformers and silicon transistor
  4. Infrared light-emitting diode and a silicon photo transistor

Answer: 4

 

 

3. In TV system, vertical pulses are separated out from horizontal pulses by the use of

  1. integrator
  2. differentiator
  3. sweep credit
  4. sync separator

Answer: 4

 

4. Two point charges Q and -Q are located on two opposite corners of a square as shown in figure. If the potential at the corner A is taken as 1V, then the potential at B, the center of the square will be

  1. Zero
  2. (1/2)^1/2V
  3. 1 V
  4. (2)^1/2V

Answer: 3

 

5. Frequency in the UHF range propagate by means of

  1. Ground waves
  2. Sky waves
  3. Surface waves
  4. Space waves.

 

Answer: 4

 

6. The efficiency of a chopper can be expected in the range

  1. 50 to 55 percent
  2. 65 to 72 percent
  3. 82 to 87 percent
  4. 92 to 99 percent

Answer: 4

 

7. The function of diplexer bridge in a TV transmitter is

  1. to prevent the loading of several transmitters by video transmitter
  2. to increase the bandwidth
  3. to increase the power output
  4. to increase the efficiency of transmission.

Answer: 1

 

8. Pure metals generally have

  1. high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
  2. high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
  3. low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
  4. low conductivity and high temperature coefficient

 

Answer:4

 

9. The number of LED displays in duration in logic probe are?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 1 or 2

Answer: 2

 

10. Which of these are two state device?

  1. Lamp
  2. magnetic tap
  3. punched card
  4. All the above

Answer: 4

 

11. A current transducer respond to?

  1. steady current only
  2. pulsating current only
  3. both pulasting and steady
  4. none of these

Answer: 2

 

12. Logic analyser is?

  1. a multi channel oscilloscope
  2. similar to logic pulser
  3. similar to current tracer
  4. none of above

Answer: 1

 

13. The output impenitence of a logic pulser is?

  1. Low
  2. High
  3. May be low or high
  4. Can't say

Answer: 1

 

14. Current I0 in the given circuit will be

  1. 10 A
  2. 3.33 A
  3. 20 A
  4. 2.5 A

Answer: 2

 

15. In the given circuit voltage V is reduced to half. The current will become

  1. I/2
  2. 2 I
  3. 1.5 I
  4. I / √R2 + (XL + XC)2

Answer: 1

 

16. The function          3 s           has
                        (s + 1) (s + 2)

  1. one zero, two poles
  2. no zero, one pole
  3. no zero, two poles
  4. one zero, no pole

Answer: 1

 

17. The diameter of an atom is of the order

  1. 10-6 m
  2. 10-10 m
  3. 10-15 m
  4. 10-21 m

Answer: 2

 

18. .If the d.c. valve of a rectified output is 300 V & peak to peak ripple voltage is 10 V, the ripple factor is

  1. 1.18%
  2. 3.33%
  3. 3.36%
  4. 6.66%

Answer: 2

 

19. .Compared to a CB amplifier the CE amplifier has higher

  1. current amplification
  2. output dynamic resistance
  3. leakage current
  4. input dynamic resistance
  5. all of the above 

Answer: 5

 

20. Which of the following binary number is equivalent to BCD?

  1. 1010
  2. 1000
  3. 1001
  4. None of these

Answer: 4

 

c) General Knowledge Questions

 

1. Which pass was opened between India and China for trade?

  1. Nathula 
  2. Khardungla
  3. Chumbi 
  4. Solang

Answer: 1

 

2. ‘Threat of global warming’ is increasing due to increasing concentration of:

  1. Ozone 
  2. Nitrous oxide
  3. Sulphur dioxide 
  4. Carbon dioxide

Answer: 4

 

 3. The Finance Commission is primarily concerned with recommending to the President about :

  1. The principle governing grants-in-aid to be given to the States
  2. Distributing the net proceeds of the taxes between the Centre and the States
  3. Neither nor
  4. Both and

Answer: 4

 

4. The ball used in which of the games is usually oval in shape?

  1. Rugby 
  2. Golf
  3. Polo 
  4. Volleyball

Answer: 1

 

5. Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance Bill sent for its consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of :

  1. One month 
  2. One year
  3. Seven days 
  4. Fourteen days

Answer: 4

 

6. Who is known a the first Law Officer of India?

  1. Chief Justice of India
  2. Law Minister of India
  3. Solicitor General of India
  4. Law Secretary

Answer: 3

 

7. Nathu La Pass is situated in which state?

  1. Arunachal Pradesh 
  2. Assam
  3. Meghalaya 
  4. Sikkim

Answer:4

 

8. .As per recommendations of the Twelfth Finance Commission,percentage share of States of the shareable central taxes is?

  1. 28.5 
  2. 29.5
  3. 30.5 
  4. 32.4

Answer: 3

 

9. In India, national income is estimated by :

  1. Planning Commission
  2. Central Statistical Organization
  3. Indian Statistical Institute
  4. National Sample Survey Organization

Answer: 2

 

10. Which one of the following is the time limit for the ratification of an emergency period by the Parliament?

  1. 14 days 
  2. 1 month
  3. 3 months 
  4. 6 months

Answer: 2

 

11. .Which one of the following is not an objective of fiscal policy of Indian Government?

  1. Full employment
  2. Price stability
  3. Regulation of inter-State trade
  4. Equitable distribution of wealth and income.

Answer: 3

 

12. How many times has Financial Emergency been declared in India so far?

  1. 5 times 
  2. 4 times
  3. Once 
  4. Never

Answer: 4

 

13. What is earlier name of the present ‘National Library in Kolkata’?

  1. Imperial library 
  2. British library
  3. Royal library 
  4. Albert library

Answer: 1

 

14. Which one of the following motions can the Council of Ministers in India move?

  1. No Confidence Motion
  2. Censure Motion
  3. Adjournment Motion
  4. Confidence Motion

Answer: 4

 

15. The capital of Mauritius is

  1. Male 
  2. Kabul
  3. Suva 
  4. Port Louis

Answer: 4

Syntel Placement-Paper : 45531
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : prathibhaUpdated Date : Aug 2, 2014

Syntel Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

Syntel recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

Syntel Selection Pattern

 

a) Online Test

  1. Logical Reasoning
  2. General Maths
  3. Verbal

Each Section has 30 questions and each sections has time limit of 20 minutes.

 

b) Group Discussion

c) Technical Interview 

  

Technical Interview Questions Generally Asked:

  1. What is your project. Can you describe in detail.
  2. You have used oracle10g in your project?
  3. Can you design some tables in that project?
  4. He selected some output from those tables and asked to write a query.
  5. How many joins in a SQL?
  6. Can you write a query for each of those joins?
  7. Can you write a program of swapping 2 no.s without using 3rd variable. (Prepare all basic algo. like Fibonacci series, prime nos., Factorial (with recursion), swapping of 2 nos. etc.)
  8. Which access specifiers and can you explain them?
  9. What is the difference between abstract class and interface?

4. HR Interview

  1. Describe yourself (Tell about both your educational and other qualifications).
  2. Considering your educational performance how many ranks you will give yourself out of 5?
  3. How are you as a team player?
  4. If you are in a team and there is a conflict between 2 people then how you will solve it?
  5. We have branches in so and so places. Are you ready to go there?
  6. Are you ready to work in any technology?
  7. Told the salary and bond. and asked that are you OK with this?

Syntel Frequently Asked Sample Questions with Solution

 

Directions : Study the information given below to answer these questions. Mark your answer as:

(i) If both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.

(ii) If both A and R are correct and R explains A.

(iii) If A is correct but R is wrong.

(iv) If A wrong but R is correct.

 

1) Assertion (A): A saltwater fish drinks sea water where a fresh water fish never drinks water.

Reason (R): A saltwater fish is hyper tonic to its environment while a freshwater fish is hypotonic to its environment.

Answer: iv

 

2) Assertion (A): The territory of India is larger than the territories of the States taken together. Reason    (R): India is a Union of States.

Answer:  i

 

3) Assertion (A): Alcohol rather than mercury is used in a thermometer to measure a temperature of         60o C.

     Reason (R): Alcohol has a lower freezing point then mercury.

Answer: iii

 

4) 38% of 4500 - 25% of ? = 1640

 

(1) 260

(2) 270

(3) 280

(4) 290

(5) None of these

Answer: 3

Explanations : 4500 * 38/100 - x * 25/100 = 1640 ⇒ 1710 - 1640 = x/4 ⇒ x/4 = 70 ⇒ x = 280

 

5) (?)2 + 152 - 332 = 97

 

(1) 33

(2) 32

(3) 34

(4) 30

(5) None of these

Answer: 5

 Explanations : x2 + 152 - 332 = 97 ⇒ x2 = 97 + 1089 - 725 ⇒ x2 = 1186 - 225 = 961 ⇒ x = 31

 

6) (7921 + 178) - 5.5 = √?

 

(1) 1512

(2) 1521 

(3) 1251

(4) 1531

(5) None of these

Answer: 3

Explanations : 7921 / 178 - 5.5 = √x 44.5 - 5.5 = = √x ⇒ 39.0 = √x ⇒ x = 1521

 

7) 4 9/10 + 3/11 + 7/15 = ?

 

(1) 1 217/330

(2) 1 221/330

(3) 1 211/330

(4) 1 197/330

(5) None of these

Answer: 3

Explanations : 9 + 3 + 7 = 297 + 90 + 154 = 541 10 11 15 330 330 = 1 211 330

 

8) 1/4th of 1/2 of 3/4th of 52000 = ?

 

(1) 4875

(2) 4857

(3) 4785

(4) 4877

(5) None of these

Answer: 1

Explanations : 52000 * 3/4 * 1/2 * 1/4 = 4875

 

9) 57/67 * 32/171 * 45/128 = ?

 

(1) 15/262

(2) 15/268

(3) 15/266

(4) 17/268

(5) None of these

Answer: 2

Explanations : 57/67 * 32/171 * 45/128 = 15/268

 

10) 283 * 56 + 252 = 20 * ?

 

(1) 805

(2) 803

(3) 807

(4) 809

(5) None of these

Answer: 1

Explanations : 283 * 56 + 252 = 20*x ⇒ 15848 + 252 = 20*x ⇒ x = 16100/20 ⇒ x = 805

 

11) (5863 - √2704) * 0.5 = ?

 

(1) 2955.5

(2) 2905.5

(3) 2590.5

(4) 2909.5

(5) None of these

Answer: 2

Explanations : (5863 - √2704) * 0.5 = 2905.5

 

12) 3√42875 - ? = 21

(1) 18

(2) 13

(3) 15

(4) 11

(5) None of these

Answer: 5

Explanations : √42875 - x = 21 35 - x = 21 x = 14

 

13) 10 25639 - 5252 - 3232 = ?

(1) 17255

(2) 17551

(3) 17515

(4) 17155 

(5) None of these

Answer: 4

Explanations : 25639 - 5252 - 3232 - 25639 -8484 = 17155

 

14) Milk : Emulsion : : Butter : ?

 

(1) Aerosol

(2) Suspension

(3) Sol

(4)Gel

Answer : 4

 

15) Haemoglobin : Iron : : Chlorophyll : ?

 

(1) Copper

(2) Magnesium

(3) Cobalt

(4) Calcium

Answer : 2 

 

16) Forecast : Future : : Regret : ?

 

(1) Present

(2) Atone

(3) Past

(4) Sins

 Answer : 3

SBI Placement-Paper : 45530
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SBI Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

SBI recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

SBI Clerk Exam Model  Question Paper with Answers

 

SBI Clerk Exam pattern Exam 2014: 

 

  1. General Awareness: 40 points.
  2. Quantitative Aptitude: 40 points.
  3. Reasoning ability: 40 points.
  4. General English: 40 points.
  5. Computer Knowledge / Marketing: 40 points.

 

A) Quantitative Aptitude Questions with Answers

 

1) If a:b = 2:3 and b:c = 4:3, then find a:b:c

 

a) 8:12:9

b) 2:3:8

c) 2:3:9

d) 2:3:12

Answer:  a

Explanation: a:b=2:3b:c=4:3=(4∗34:3∗34)=3:94a:b:c=2:3:94=8:12:9

 

2) The average age of 20 students in a class is 20. When the age of their class teacher commuted with the total age of students, their average age, including the class teacher's raises to 21. If so, what is the age of the class teacher?

 

a) 40

b) 36

c) 41

d) 44

Answer: c 

 

3) Rajan travels from Kannur to Kozhikode by a car at speed of 60 Km/hour and returns back by hiring a gipsy at a speed of 50 Km/ hour. Then what will be the average speed of his vehicles throughout their to and fro journey.

 

a) 54-6/11 km/hour

b) 57 km/hour

c) 55-6/11 Km/hour

d) 54-5/11 Km/hour

Answer: a 

 

4) Mr. X complete a piece of work within 8 hours and whereas Mr. Y complete the same piece of work in 6 hours. If both Mr. X & Y operate the same work jointly, in how many hours they complete the same work?

 

a) 7/14 Hrs

b) 24/7 Hrs

c) 5 hours

d)Not given

Answer: b 

 

5) if x:y = 1:3, then find the value of (7x+3y):(2x+y)

a) 14:5

b) 15:5

c) 16:5

d) 17:5

 

Answer: Option C

Explanation: let x = 1k and y = 3k, so =7(k)+3(3k)2(k)+1(3k)=16k5k=16:5

 

6) Raman & Krishnan will complete a job in 6 days and 12 days respectively according to their capacity. Govindan will complete the same of piece of work in a single day that which Raman & Krishnan both do in a single day. If Krishnan and Govindan wishes to complete the same work, in how many days they take to finish the work?

 

a) 5 days

b) 3 days

c) 4 days

d) 4.5 days

Answer: b 

 

7) A and B together have Rs. 1210. If 4/15 of A's amount is equal to 2/5 of B's amount. How much amount B have.

 

a) Rs 484

b) Rs. 480

c) Rs 478

d) Rs 470

Answer: a

 

8) A train running in 90Km/hour, having 100 meters long, crosses a train running in another track in opposite direction with speed of 54 Km per hours having 140 meters. How many seconds will take the trains to cross each other fully?

 

a) 6 seconds

b) 9 seconds

c) 8 seconds

d) Not given

Answer: a

 

B) General English Questions with Answers

 

Read the passage carefully then answer the questions:
   

Now the question arises, what is the secret of the longevity and imperishability of Indian culture? Why is it that such great empires and nations is Babylion, Assyria, Greece, Rome and Persia, could not last more than the footprints of a camel m the shifting sands of the desert, while India which faced the same ups and downs, the same mighty and cruel hand of time, is still alive and with the same halo of glory and splendour ? The answer is given by Prof. J. B. Pratt of America. According to him Hindu religion is the only religion in the world which is 'self-perpetuating and self-renewing.' Unlike other religions 'not death, but development' has been the fate of Hinduism. Not only Hindu religion but the whole culture of the Hindus has been growing changing and developing in accordance with the needs of time and circumstance without losing its essential and imperishable spirit. The culture of the vedic ages, of the ages of the Upanishads, the philosophical systems, the Mahabharata, the Smirities, the Puranas, the commentators, the medieval ^aints and of the age of the modern reformers is the same in Spirit and yet very different in form. Its basic principles are so broad based that they can be adapted to almost any environment of development.

1) The author has compared India with all the following except-


a) Greece    
b) Rome
c) Babylon
d) Assyria
e) Egypt

Answer: e    


2)  In what respect is India implied to be superior to all other nations and empires ?


a) Material development
b) Cultural advancement
c) Military strength
d) Territorial expansion
e) Empire building

Answer: b 

 

3) What, according to J. B. Pratt, is the secret of the longevity and imperishability of Indian culture ?


a) It has its origin in the remote past
b) It issues from the minds and hearts of its sages
c) It is self-perpetuating and self-renewing
d) It is founded on religion
e) It is founded on morality

Answer:c

 

4)  What changes has the spirit of Indian culture undergone during its long history right from the vedic age down to the present times ?


a) The precedence of moral values was eclipsed at certain periods of time
b) Materialism was the hall-mark of Indian culture during certain periods of time
c) During certain periods military development was the be-all and end-all of Indian culture
d) There is no such thing as any spirit of Indian culture
e) The spirit of Indian culture has practically been the same from the ancient times down to the present

Answer: e     

5)  What according to the author has always characterised the Hindu religion ?
a) Development
b) Stagnation
c) Sometimes development and sometimes stagnation
d) Lack of moral values
e) 1 Precedence of material over moral values

Answer: a

 

6) Which other religion has been mentioned in the passage as self-developing and self-renewing as Hindu religion ?


a) Christianity         
b) Islam
c) Buddhism
d) Jainism
e)  None of these

Answer: e 

 

7)  "Could not last more than the footprints of a camel on the shifting sands of the desert." What does it mean ?


a) It lost itself in deserts
b) It was transient
c) It lacked solidity
d) It was limited only to desert areas
e) It lacked cohesion

Answer: b

 

Pick out the most appropriate equivalent (synonym) of the following words taken from the above passage:

 

8)  Longevity :


a) Living long
b) Diseased life
c) Depressed spirit
d) The period of living
e) Misery

Answer: a     

 

9)  Shifting:


a) Piercing 
b) Penetrating 
c) Changing 
d) Mincing
e) Obstructing

Answer:c

 

Pick out the most appropriate word exactly opposite in meaning of the following words taken from the above passage:

 

10) Last:


a) End 
b) Grow 
c) Diminish 
d) Increase
e) Finish

Answer: a

  

11) Mighty:


a) Forcible 
b) Forceful 
c) Weak 
d) Tough
e) Haughty

Answer: c  

 

12) Glory:


a) Splendour
b) Notoriety 
c) Fame
d) Reputation
e) Debasement

Answer: e     

 

C) General Awareness Questions with Answers 

 

1) Maximum number of factories in India are located in __?

 

a) Gujarat

b) West Bengal

c) Tamil Nadu

c) Maharashtra Tamil Nadu
Answer: c

 

2) Which of the following entities has been recently granted banking license by the Reserve Bank of India?

 

a) Bajaj Finance and IFCI

b) Bandhan Financial Services Pvt Ltd and IDFC

c) India Infoline and INMAC

d) JM Finance and LIC Housing Finance Bandhan Financial Services and IDFC
answer: b

 

3) According to RBI guidelines, what fraction of the branches are mandatory to be opened in rural areas by newly licensed banks?

 

a) 15

b) 25

c) 35

d) 45

Answer: b

 

4) RBI’s guidelines on setting up new banks require new banks to hold minimum capital of Rs.500 crore. RBI has made it mandatory for new banks to open at least 25% of branches in rural centres. 5. Who among the following has been appointed as next Prime Minister of France?

 

a) Manuel Valls

b) Marine Le Pen

c) Anne Hidalgo

d) Jean Claude 

Answer: a

 

5) Lee Kun-hee, who ris facing an arrest warrant in a 1.4 million dollar cheating case is chairman of ___?

 

a) Nokia

b) Samsung

c) LG

d) IBM

Answer: b

 

6) The World Autism Awareness Day is observed every year on ___?

 

a) March 28

b) March 30

c) April 1

d) April 2

Answer: d

 

7) Who among the following has become the first Indian piston shooter to be rank no.1 in the world ranking, recently?

 

a) Heena Sidhu

b) Anjali Bhagwat

c) Rani Sarnobat

d) Annu Raj Singh 

Answer: a

 

D) Marketing Questions with Answers 

 

1) Market research is useful for ____?

 

a) Deciding proper marketing strategies

b) Deciding the selling price

c) choosing the right products

d) choosing the sales person

e) All of these

Answer: e

 

2) A call means:

 

a) shout out to somebody

b) profession or business

c) visiting friends

d) visiting prospective customers

e) after-sales service

Answer: d 

 

3) Conversion means:

 

a) meeting a prospective client

b) interacting with a prospective client

c) converting an employer into an employee

d) converting a seller into a buyer

e) converting a prospective client into a buyer

Answer: e 

 

4. Customization means:

 

a) acquiring more customers

b) regulating customers

c) special products to suit each customer

d) more products per customer

d) All of these

Answer: c 

 

5) Modern style of marketing include

 

a) digital marketing

b) tele-marketing

c) e-commerce

d) e-mails solicitation

e) All of these

Answer: e

 

6. E-Marketing is the same as

 

a) virtual marketing

b) digital marketing

c) real time marketing

d) all of these

e) None of these

Answer: d 

 

7. Value-added services means

 

a) costlier products

b) large number of products

c) additional services

d) at par services

e) None of these

Answer: c

 

8) Efficient Marketing styles require

a) proper planning

b) good communication skills

c) team work

d) knowledge of products

e) All of these

Answer: e 

 

9) The performance of a salesperson depends on

a) salary paid

b) sales incentive paid

c) sizes of the sales team

d) ability and willingness of the salesperson

e) team leader aggressiveness

Answer: d

 

10) Lead generation means

a) tips for selling tactics

b) tips for better production

c) generating leaders

d) likely sources for prospective clients

e) All of these

Answer: d

 

 

E) Reasoning ability Questions with Answers 

 

1) If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how can CANDLE be written in that code?

 

a) DEQJQM

b) DCQHQK

c) EDRIRL

d) ESJFME

Answer : c 

In the code, the first letter is the second alphabet, the second letter is the third alphabet, the third letter is the fourth alphabet and so on after the corresponding letter in the word.

 

2) In a certain code ADVENTURES is written as TRDESAUVEN. How is PRODUCED written in that code ?

 

a) IUIPGSSRNP

b) IUIPGSRSNR

c) IUINGSSRRP

d) IRIPGSSNRR

Answer : a 

The first and sixth, third and eighth, fifth and tenth letters of the word interchange places in the code.

 

3) If FRAGRANCE is written as SBHSBODFG, how can IMPOSING be written?

a) NQPTJHOJ

b) NQPTJOHJ

c) NQTPJOHJ

d) NQPTJOHI

Answer : d

Each letter in the word is moved one step forward and the first letter of the group. so obtained is put at the end, to obtain the code.

 

4) If ROBUST is coded as QNATRS in a certain language, which word would be coded as ZXCMP?

 

a) AWDLQ

b) AYDNQ

c) BZEOR

d) YYBNO

Answer : b

Each letter of the word is one step ahead of the corresponding letter of the code.

 

5) If PALE is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590, how can is PEARL be coded in that language?

 

a) 25430

b) 29530

c) 25413

d) 24153

 Answer : d

The letters are coded accordingly P as 2, E as 4, A as 1, R as 5 and L as 3. So PEARL is coded as 24153.

 

6) If in a certain code, GLAMOUR is written as IJCNMWP and MISRULE is written as OGUSSNC, then how will TOPICAL be written in that code?

 

a) VMRJECN

b) VMRHAGJ

c) VMRJACJ

d) VNRJABJ

Answer : c

The first, third and sixth letters of the word are each moved two steps forward, the second, fifth and seventh letters are each are moved two steps backward, while the fourth letter is moved one step forward.

 

7) If 'eraser' is called 'box', 'box' is called 'pencil', 'pencil' is called 'sharpener', and 'sharpener' is called 'bag', what will a child write with?

 

a) Eraser

b) Bag

c) Pencil

d) Sharpener

Answer : d

A child will write with a 'pencil', and pencil is called 'sharpener'. So, a child will write with a 'sharpener'.

 

8) A told B that C is his father's nephew. D is A's cousin but not the brother of C. What relationship is there between D and C ?

 

a) Father

c) Sisters

c) Aunt

d) Mother

Answer : d.

A has two cousins C and D. Since C is male, D must be female. And, both are the nephew and niece of A's father.

 

9) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of four adults and three children, two of whom, F and G are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child. Who is C ?

 

a) E's daughter

b) F's father

c) G's brother

d) A's son

Answer : d

E is married to A or D. But B is married to D. Thus, E is married to A. Thus, A, B, D, E are the four adults and C, F, G are the three children in the family. B and D have a child G. A and E have two children. They are C and F. Now, only F and G are girls. So, C is a boy. Thus, C is A's or E's son.

 

10) lion: animal : : flower : ___________ 

 

a) plant

b) roots

c) grass

d) rose

Answer : a 

 

F) Computer KnowledgeQuestions with Answers 

 

1) WWW stands for ?

 

a) World Whole Web

b) Wide World Web

c) Web World Wide

d) World Wide Web

Answer:  d 

 

2) Which of the following are components of Central Processing Unit (CPU) ?

 

a) Arithmetic logic unit,

b) Mouse Arithmetic logic unit,

c) Control unit Arithmetic logic unit,

d) Integrated Circuits Control Unit,

e) Monitor

Answer: b 

 

3) Where is RAM located ?

 

a) Expansion Board

b) External Drive

c) Mother Board

d) All of above

 

Answer:C

 

4) If a computer provides database services to other, then it will be known as ?

 

a) Web server

b) Application server

c) Database server

d) FTP server

Answer: C

 

5) Full form of URL is ?

 

a) Uniform Resource Locator

b) Uniform Resource

c) Link Uniform

d) Registered Link

e) Unified Resource Link

Answer: a

 

6) ____________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users can interact with the computer.

 

a) The operating system

b) The motherboard

c) The platform

d) Application software

Answer : a 

 

7) The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this access is known as the:

 

a) digital divide.

b) Internet divide.

c) Web divide.

d) cyberway divide.

Answer : a.

 

8) Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a:

a) mainframe

b) supercomputer

c) network

d) client

Answer :c 

 

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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : AiswaryaUpdated Date : Aug 2, 2014

RBI Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

RBI recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

RBI Assistant Exam Questions and Answers

 

Section: Reasoning

 

1. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters PCYO using all the letters, but each letter only once in each word?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

5) More than three

Answer:2

 

2. The positions of the first and fifth letter of the word SUITABLE are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of second and sixth letter, third and seventh letter, and fourth and eighth letter are interchanged. In the New arrangement, how many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the alphabet which is third from the left end and the alphabet which is second from the right end?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Four

5) More than four Directions

Answer:3

 

Directions :(Q.3-4): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow. Among A,B,C,D and E, each scored different marks in an examination. only one person scored more than C. E scored more than A but less than D. D did not score the highest marks. The one who scored the second lowest scored 71% marks. C scored 92% marks.

 

3. Who among the following is most likely to have scored 87% marks?

1) A

2) B

3) D

4) E

5) Either A or D

Answer:3

 

4.  Which of the following percentages is most likely to be B's percentage in the exam?

1) 68%

2) 71%

3) 84%

4) 76%

5) 97%

Answer:5

 

5. Each vowel of the word SAVOURY is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series. If the new alphabets thus formed are arranged in alphabetical order (from left to right), which of the following will be fifth from the right?

1) U

2) R

3) Q

4) P

5) X

Answer:2

 

6.  Point P is 10m to the West of Point A. Point B is 2m to the South of Point P. Point Q is 6m to the East of Point B. Point C is 2m to the North of Point Q. Which of the following three points fall in a straight line?

1) A,C,P

2) B, C,P

3) Q,C,A

4) A,B,Q

5) A,B,C

Answer:4

 

Directions (Q. 6-10): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statement. The statements are following by two conclusions. Give answer

1) if only conclusion I is true

2) if only conclusion II is true

3) if either conclusion I or II is true

4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true

5) if both conclusions I and II are true

 

6.  Statements: H I = J. K L

      Conclusions: I. K < H II. L > I

Answer: 1

7.  Statements: S > C O; P < C

      Conclusions: I. O < P II. S > p

Answer: 2

8.  Statements: A = B C; A > R

      Conclusions: I. B > R II. R < C

Answer: 4

9 .  Statements: D > E F; J < F

      Conclusions: I. D > J II. E < J

Answer: 5

10.  Statements: P < Q > T; R Q

       Conclusions: I. R > P II. T < R

Answer: 5

 

Directions :(Q. 11-15): Study the following information to answer the given questions. Eight People are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, A,B C and D are sitting (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing North. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are sitting (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing South. Therefore, in the given section arrangement, each member sitting in a row faces another member of the other row. S sits second to left of Q. A faces the immediate neighbour of S. Only one person sits between A and C. P does not face A. B is not an immediate neighbour of A.

 

11. Which of the following is true regarding D?

1) D sits an one of the extreme ends of the line.

2) A sits on the immediate left D.

3) Q faces D.

4) C is an immediate neighbour of D.

5) No immediate neighbour of D faces R.

Answer: 4

 

12. Who among the following faces C?

1) P

2) Q

3) R

4) S

5) Cannot be determined

Answer: 1

 

13. Who among the following sits on the immediate right of the person who faces C?

1) P

2) Q

3) R

4) S

5) Cannot be determined

Answer: 2

 

14.  Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

1) A

2) Q

3) R

4) B

5) S

Answer: 5

 

15.  Who among the following faces R?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) Cannot be determined

Answer: 1

 

Directions:(Q. 16-18): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer

1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. 4) if the data neither in statement I nor in statement II are sufficient to answer the question statement 5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

 

16.  On which date of the month was Parul born?

I. Her mother correctly remembers that she was born after 15th but before 21st of April.

II. Her father correctly remembers that she was born after 18th but before 24th of April.

Answer: 4

 

17.  How many brothers does Meghna have? Meghna is a girl.

I. Kishore, the father of Meghna, is the only child of Kamal. Kamal has only two grandchildren.

II. Jyoti, the daughter-in-law of Kamal, has son and a daughter.

Answer: 5

 

18)  Among P, Q, R, S and T, sitting in a straight line, facing North, who sits exactly in the middle of the line?

I. S sits third to the left of Q. S is an immediate neighbour of both P and T.

II. Two people sit between T and R. R does not sit at either of the extreme ends. P sits second to the right of T.

Answer: 2

 

Section: English

 

Directions :(19-2): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate while answering some of the questions.

 

The importance of communication skills cannot be underestimated, especially so, in the teaching - learning process. Teaching is generally considered as only fifty percent knowledge and fifty percent interpersonal or communication skills. For a teacher, it is not just important to give a lecture rich in content that provides abundant information about the subject or topic in question, but a successful teacher develops an affinity with, an understanding of, and a harmonious interrelationship with her pupils. Building rapport becomes her primary task in the classroom. But what exactly is rapport? Rapport is a sympathetic relationship or understanding that allows you to look at the world from someone else's perspective. Making other people feel that you understand them creates a strong bond. Building rapport is the first step to better communication - the primary goal of all true educators. Communication skills for teachers are thus as important as their in-depth knowledge of the particular subject which they teach. To a surprising degree, how one communicates determines one's effectiveness as a teacher. A study on communication styles suggests that 7% of communication takes place through words, 38% through voice intonation and 55% through body language. Much of teaching is about sending and receiving messages. The process of communication is composed of three elements : the source (sender, speaker, transmitter or instructor), the symbol used in composing and transmitting of the message (words or signs), and the receiver (listener, reader or student). The three elements are dynamically interrelated since each element is dependent on the others for effective communication to take place. Effective communication is all about conveying your message to the other people clearly and unambiguously. It's also about receiving information the others are sending to you, with as little distortion as possible. Doing this involves effort from both the sender and the receiver. And it's a process that can be fraught with error, with messages muddled by the sender, or misinterpreted by the reciepent. When this isn't detected it can cause tremendous confusion, wasted effort and missed opportunity. Good communication skills are a prerequisite for those in the teaching profession. Carefully planned and skillfully delivered messages can issue invitations to students that school is a place to share ideas, investigate and collaborate with others. Effective communication is essential for a wellrun classroom. A teacher who is able to communicate well with students can inspire them to learn and participate in class and encourage them to come forth with their views, thus creating a proper rapport. Although this sounds simple and obvious, it requires much more than a teacher saying something out loud to a student. They must also realise that all students have different levels of strengths and weaknesses.

 

Directions (Q. 19-28): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

 

19. Abundant

1) Small

2) Little

3) False

4) Sufficient

5) Rare

Answer: 2

 

20. Muddled

1) Skillfully organised

2) Strongly controlled

3) Clearly conveyed

4) Isolated

5) Complicated

Answer: 3

 

Directions (Q. 21-22): Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

 

21. Sounds

1) Seems

2) Corrects

3) Noises

4) Takes

5) Silences.

Answer: 1

 

22. Affinity

1) Partnership

2) Partiality

3) Weakness

4) Compatibility

5) Discord

Answer: 4

 

23. Degree

1) Extent

2) Goal

3) Affect

4) Situation

5) Direction

Answer: 1

 

24. Which of the following is/are essential for effective communication?

(A) Conveying the message clearly

(B) Not to waste effort and opportunity

(C) Receiving the information with as little distortion as possible.

 

1) Only (A) and (C)

2) Only (B)

3) Only

(A) 4) Only (C)

5) Only (B) and (C)

Answer: 1

 

25. Which of the following is true about 'rapport' as per the passage?

(A) It is a sympathetic relationship.

(B) It is based on understanding of other people's frame of reference.

(C) It helps in creating a strong bond.

(D) It is important for teachers to build rapport with students.

 

1) Only (A) and (B)

2) Only (B) and (D)

3) Only (A), (B) and (D)

4) Only (A), (B) and (C)

5) All are true

Answer: 1

 

26. Which of the following must the teachers keep in mind to facilitate learning in student as per the passage?

1) To control the students such that they do not share ideas with others within the lecture hours.

2) To maintain rapport with students and compromise on the course content.

3) To realise hat all students have different levels of strengths and weaknesses.

4) Only to keep the lecture rich in course content.

5) To ensure that students adhere to her views only.

Answer: 5

 

27. Which of the following are the three elements of communication as per the passage?

1) Source, Signs and Students

2) Source, Sender and Speaker

3) Signs, Words and Students

4) Instructor, Listener and Reader

5) Transmitter, Students and Receiver

Answer: 3

 

28. Which of the following is the finding of the study on communication styles?

1) The body language and gestures account for 38% of communication and outweighs the voice intonation.

2) Only 9% communication is about content whereas the rest is about our tone and body language.

3) The tone of our voice accounts for 55% of what we communicate and outweighs the body language. 4) More than 90% of our communication is not about content but about our tone and body language.

5) Teaching is fifty percent knowledge and fifty per cent interpersonal for communication skills.

Answer: 1

 

Directions (Q.29-38): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

 

The latest technology (66) put to use or about to arrive in market must be (67) to all entrepreneurs. The reason is that it may have an (68) effect on business. Valve radio's gave way to transistor radios and with micro chips, technology is giving way to digital equipment. Business has (69) the same but the technology has kept changing. A notable feature is that the size of the receivers decreased (70) so did the use of its material and consequently its price. The traditional flour mills are losing business (71) customers now buy flour (72) from the market. As a result of this, the business is (73) Following the same lines as technology, the social trends also go on changing and influence the market. The Indian sarees are being taken (74) by readymade stitched clothes. Every entrepreneur must note such changes in the environment and also the technology and plan in (75) with these to ensure the success of his endeavour.

 

29.

1) to

2) needed

3) decided

4) besides

5) being

Answer: 5

 

30.

1) hoped

2) welcome

3) released

4) Known

5) aware

Answer: 4

 

31.

1) approximate 

2) huge

3) uniform

4) excellence

5) enormous

Answer: 5

 

32.

1) maintained

2) remained

3) often

4) mentioned

5) become

Answer: 2

 

33.

1) mainly

2) and

3) how

4) also

5) some

Answer: 2

 

34.

1) reason

2) due

3) young

4) as

5) old

Answer: 2

 

35.

1) knowingly

2) ease

3) cheap

4) directly

5) forcefully

Answer: 4

 

36.

1) shrinking

2) blooming

3) returned

4) same

5) small

Answer: 4

 

37.

1) against

2) to

3) over

4) up

5) for

Answer: 1

 

38.

1) lines

2) relativity

3) accordance

4) proper

5) toning

Answer: 3

 

Section: Quantitative Aptitude 

 

Directions (Q. 39-40): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

39.  ? 000.5 0024 = 5652

1) 171.75

2) 117.25

3) 171.25

4) 117.75

5) None of these

Answer: 4

 

 

40. 65% of 654 - ? % of 860 = 210.1

1) 25

2) 15

3) 20

4) 30

5) None of these

Answer: 1

 

41 12 men alone can complete a piece of work in six days, whereas 10 men and 21
women take three days to complete the same piece of work. In how many days
can 12 women alone complete the same piece of work?
1) 10

2) 9

3) 11
4) 8

5) None of these

Answer: 1


42. The owner of an electronic store charges his customer 11% more than the cost
price. If a customer paid Rs. 1,33,200 for an LED TV, what was the original
price of the TV?
1) `1,20,000

2) `1,14,500

3) ` 1,22,500
4) ` 1,18,000

5) None of these

Answer: 1


43. The average age of a woman and her daughter is 19 years. The ratio of their
ages is 16 : 3. What is the age of the daughter?
1) 9 years

2) 3 years

3) 12 years
4) 6 years

5) None of these

Answer: 4


44. A car covers a certain distance in three hours at the speed of 124 Km/hr. What
is the average speed of a truck which travels a distance of 120 Km less than the car
in the same time?
1) 88 km/hr

2) 84 km/hr

3) 78 km/hr
4) 73 km/hr

5) None of these

Answer: 2


45. The cost of four calculators and two stencils is ` 6,200 what is the cost of ten
calculators and five stencils?
1) `15,500

2) `14,875

3) ` 16,200
4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

Answer: 1


46. Find the average of the following set of scores: 214, 351, 109, 333, 752, 614,
456, 547
1) 482

2) 428

3) 444
4) 424

5) None of these

Answer: 5

 

47. The average of four consecutive odd numbers A, B, C and D is 54. What is
the product of A and C?

1) 2907

2) 2805

3) 2703
4) 2915

5) None of these

Answer: 2


48. The sum of 55% of a number and 40% of the same number is 180.5. What is
80% of that number?

1) 134

2) 152

3) 148
4) 166

5) None of these

Answer: 2


49. There are 950 employees in an organisation, out of which 28% got promoted.
Find the number of employees who got promoted.
1) 226

2) 256

3) 266
4) 216

5) None of these

Answer: 


50. What is the least number to be added to 3000 to make it a perfect square?
1) 191

2) 136

3) 25
4) 84

5) None of these

Answer: 3


51. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of ` 7,640 at the
rate of 15 pcpa after two years?
1) `2,634.9

2) `2,643.9

3) ` 2,364.9
4) ` 2,463.9

5) None of these

Answer: 4


52. In an examination it is required to get 65% of the aggregate marks to pass. A
student gets 874 marks and is declared failed by 10% marks. What is the maximum
aggregate marks a student can get?
1) 1450

2) 1640

3) 1500
4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

Answer: 5


53. A juice centre requires 35 dozen guavas for 28 days. How many dozen guavas
will it require for 36 days?
1) 50

2) 52

3) 40
4) 45

5) None of these

Answer: 4


54. Mohan sold an item for ` 4,510 and incurred a loss of 45%. At what price
should he have sold the item to have earned a profit of 45%?
1) `10,900

2) ` 12,620

3) ` 11,890
4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

Answer: 2


55. What would be the circumference of a circle whose area is 745.36 sq cm?
1) 94.4 cm

2) 88.8 cm

3) 96.3 cm
4) 87.4 cm

5) None of these

Answer: 5


 

Section: General Awareness


56. USA has asked India to reduce its dependence on crude oil supply from which
of the following countries which is also a member of OPEC?
1) Venezuela

2) Iraq

3) Libya
4) Iran

5) Nigeria

Answer: 4

 

56. Which of the following is the most essential financial service which should be
provided to the poor people to bring them into the network of financial inclusion?
1) Insurance for life
2) Investment plan for future
3) Pension for old age
4) A bank account where he/she can save small amount
5) Health insurance for minor illnesses and hospitalisation in case of need

Answer: 4

 

57. Who among the following is the president of a country at present?
1) Rupert Murdoch

2) Ban ki-moon

3) Yoshihiko Noda
4) Nicolas Sarkozy

5) None of these

Answer: 4

 

58. What does tha letter F denote in 'NBFCs', a term seen very frequently in
banking
world these days?
1) Formal

2) Fiscal

3) Federal
4) Functional

5) Financial

Answer: 5

 

59. Which of the following services products of banks is specially designed and
launched to help students?
1) Personal loan

2) Corporate loan

3) Business loan
4) Medical loan

5) Education loan

Answer: 5

 

60. Which of the following terms is not directly associated with the functioning of
RBI?
1) Open Market Operations

2) Cash Reserve Ratio

3) SENSEX
4) Liquidity Adjustment Facility

5) Public Debt Office

Answer: 3

 

61. The 59th National Film Award for Best Actress was given to
1) Vidya Balan

2) Kareena Kapoor
3) Priyanka Chopra

4) Lara Dutta

5) Roopa Ganguly

Answer: 1

 

62. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the body/ agency set up to
boost foreign investments in India?
1) FORE

2) FCCB

3) FIPB
4) FEMA

5) AITAF

Answer: 3

 

63. Which of the following is not considered infrastructural sector of the
economy?
1) Electricity

2) Textile Sector

3) Telecom
4) Cement

5) Road and Railways

Answer: 2

 

64. Sachin Tendulkar made his 100th century in the match played between India
and
1) Pakistan

2) England

3) Australia
4) Bangladesh

5) Sri Lanka

Answer: 4


65. Who among the following was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 2012?
1) TV Rajeswar

2) Aruna Irani

3) AR Rahman
4) Shabana Azmi

5) Anup Jalota

Answer: 5


66. Which of the following countries is a member of BRICs?
1) Bhutan

2) Iran

3) Romania
4) Sudan

5) South Africa

Answer: 5


67.  Which of the following countries has recently placed its first space lab
'Tiangong-1' into orbit?

1) North Korea

2) Japan

3) India
4) France

5) China

Answer: 5


68. Who among the following is the Solicitor General of India at present?
1) Jacob Mathew

2) Rohinton Nariman
3) Gopal Subramaniam

4) Ashok Chawla

5) None of these

Answer: 2


69. Which of the following schemes has been launched by the Govt of India to
motivate
school children to attend school regularly?
1) Kutir Jyoti

2) Mid-Day Meal

3) MGNREGA
4) RAY

5) Bharat Nirman

Answer: 2

 

70. Seychelles, where China is going to set up its new military base, is a country
in the
1) Bay of Bengal

2) China Sea

3) Indian Ocean
4) Red Sea

5) Caspian Sea

Answer: 3


71. Which of the following terms is used in the field of economics?
1) Absolute Zero

2) Molecular Equation

3) Zero Point Energy
4) Balance of Payment

5) Mass Defect
Answer: 4

Section: Computer Knowledge

72. The legal right to use software based on specific restrictions is granted via a
1) software privacy policy

2) software license
3) software password manager

4) software log
5) None of these

Answer: 2

73. Which of the following is the type of software that controls the internal operations in the computer and controls how the computer works with all its parts?
1) Shareware

2) Public domain software
3) Application software

4) Operating system software

5) None of these.

Answer: 4


74. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes.
1) data redundancy

2) information overload
3) duplicate data

4) data consistency

5) data inconsistency

Answer: 5

75. To view information on the Web you must have a
1) cable modem

2) Web browser

3) domain name server
4) hypertext viewer

5) None of these

Answer: 1

 

76. A file is often referred to as a
1) Wizard

2) document

3) pane
4) device

5) documentation

Answer: 2

 

77. To protect yourself from computer hacker intrusions you should install a
1) firewall

2) mailer

3) macro
4) script

5) None of these

Answer: 2

78. Which of the following software applications would be the most appropriate
for performing numerical and statistical calculations?
1) Database

2) Document processor

3) Graphics package
4) Spreadsheet

5) Power Point

Answer: 4

 

79. A .......... is used to read hand written or printed text to make a digital image
that is stored in memory.
1) printer

2) laser beam

3) scanner
4) touchpad

5) None of these

Answer: 3

 

80 A................. is pre-designed document that already has coordinating fonts, a
layout, and a background.
1) guide

2) model

3) ruler
4) template

5) design-plate

Answer: 4

81. Removing and replacing devices without turning off your computer is referred
to as
1) Hot swapping

2) Plug-n-Play

3) Bay swap
4) USB swapping

5) None of these.

Answer: 2

 

82. Specialised programs that assist users in locating information on the Web are
called.
1) information engines

2) locator engines

3) web browsers
4) resource locators

5) search engines

Answer: 5


83. Expansion cards are inserted into
1) slots

2) peripheral devices

3) the CPU
4) the back of the computer

5) None of these

Answer: 1

84. A program designed to destroy data on your computer which can travel to
"infect" other computers is called a
1) disease

2) torpedo

3) hurricane
4) virus

5) infector
Answer: 4

85. A collection of interrelated records is called a
1) utility file

2) management information system
3) database

4) spreadsheet

5) datasheet

Answer: 3

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BEL Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

BEL recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

BEL Latest Probationary Engineers Test Pattern 

 

A. BEL Test Pattern for Probationary Engineers(PE)

 

Total Noumber of Questions:150

Test Duration:150 min

 

Divison Of marks:

 

No of Aptitude Qestions: 30

No of Technical Qestions:120

Correct answer :1 mars

Wrong answer  : -0.25

 

1. Aptitude section

  1. A paragraph is given followed by 5 questions
  2. Some bits regarding grammar are given
  3. Data Interpretation questions are given(They're a bit time taking)
  4. Statements and Arguments and whether arguments are supporting the given statement or not
  5. One question related to blood relations etc..

2. Technical Section

  1. For this you have to prepare the GATE Syllabus, The questions mainly appeared from subjects like DLD,TOC,Discrete Mathematics,DBMS,OS,CN etc..
  2. Other important point to note is that more preference is also given to maths and almost 20 questions came from it..mainly from Numerical Methods..

 

B. BEL Basic Civil engineering objective type questions with answers

 

1)  Define civil engineering?

 

Answer: Civil engineering is a professional engineering discipline that deals with the design, construction, and maintenance of the physical and naturally built environment, including works like roads, bridges, canals, dams, and buildings.Civil engineering is the oldest engineering discipline after military engineering, and it was defined to distinguish non-military engineering from military engineering.

 

2)  Define duty and delta?

 

Answer:

Duty: Duty represents the irrigating capacity of a unit water. It relation between the area of a crop irrigated and the quantity of irrigation water required during crop growth. For example: If 5 cumec of water is required for a crop sown in an area of 5000 hectares, The duty will be 5000/5=1000 hectares/cumec.

Delta: It is total depth of water required for a crop during the entire period the crop is in the field and is denoted by Δ. The unit of delta is days.

 

3) Difference between pre-tensioning and post-tensioning?

 

Answer: The prestress in a structure is influenced by either of the two processes:

  1. Pre-tensioning
  2. Post-tensioning

Pre-tensioning:

 

Pre-tensioning is accomplished by stressing wires or strands, called tendons, to predetermined amount by stretching them between two anchorages prior to placing concrete. the concrete is then placed and tendons become bounded to concrete throughout their length. After concrete has hardened, the tendons are released by cutting them at the anchorages. The tendons tend to regain their original length by shortening and in this process transfer through bond a compressive stress to the concrete. The tendons are usually stressed by the use of hydraulic jacks. The stress in tendons is maintained during the placing and curing of concrete by anchoring the ends of the tendons to abutments that may be as much as 200m apart. The abutments and other formwork used in this procedure are called prestressing bench or bed. Section for Pre-tensioning Fig.1: Section for Pre-tensioning Most of the pre-tensioning construction techniques are patented although the basic principle used in all of them is common and is well known.

 

Post-tensioning:

 

The alternative to pre-tensioning is post-tensioning. In a post-tensioned beam, the tendons are stressed and each end is anchored to the concrete section after the concrete has been cast and has attained sufficient strength to safely withstand the prestressing force. 

 

4)  What is piping failure?

 

Answer: Water that percolates through earth dams and their foundations can carry soil particles that are free to migrate. The seepage forces tend to cause the erodible soil or soft rock to move towards the downstream face of the dam. That is if the seepage forces are large enough and the pore spaces in the material are large enough. Along the unprotected discharge face AB, the soil will heave if the gradients are large enough. Every seepage discharge surface, both internal and external, which could be susceptible to piping or heave must be covered with filters that permit water to pass but will hold the soil particles firmly in place.

 

5)  How many express ways are there in India?

 

Answer: 23

 

6)  How can you measure the amount of rainfall?

 

Answer: Rainfall is usually measured by first collecting it in a rain gauge. These special drums are then used to record the depth of the water inside. Rain gauges are usually about 50 cm tall and are placed on the ground just high enough to avoid splashes. Rain water that is caught in a funnel on top, runs down into a measuring cylinder below – where it can be recorded.

 

7)  What are the diffent types of pile foundation?

 

Answer: Types of piles based on the mechanism of Load Transfer:End/Point Bearing Piles, Friction Piles, Friction cum end bearing pile Classification of Piles according to the Method of Installation of piles : Driven or displacement piles, Driven or displacement pile Classification of Piles according to Materials :Timber piles, Steel piles, Concrete Piles , Composite piles.

 

8)  What is quick sand?

 

Answer: Quicksand is a colloid hydrogel consisting of fine granular material (such as sand or silt), clay, and water. Quicksand forms in saturated loose sand when the sand is suddenly agitated. When water in the sand cannot escape, it creates a liquefied soil that loses strength and cannot support weight.

 

9)  What is the difference between bitumen and tar?

 

Answer: Bitumen is a mixture of organic liquids that are highly viscous, black, sticky, entirely soluble in carbon disulfide, and composed primarily of highly condensed polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons. Bitumen is the residual (bottom) fraction obtained by fractional distillation of crude oil. It is the heaviest fraction and the one with the highest boiling point. Tar is a viscous black liquid derived from the destructive distillation of organic matter. Most tar is produced from coal as a byproduct of coke production, but it can also be produced from petroleum, peat or wood. In British English, the word 'asphalt' refers to a mixture of mineral aggregate and bitumen (or tarmac in common parlance). The word 'tar' refers to the black viscous material obtained from the destructive distillation of coal and is chemically distinct from bitumen. In American English, bitumen is referred to as 'asphalt' or 'asphalt cement' in engineering jargon. In Australian English, bitumen is sometimes used as the generic term for road surfaces. Most bitumens contain sulphur and several heavy metals such as nickel, vanadium, lead, chromium, mercury and also arsenic, selenium and other toxic elements. Bitumens can provide good preservation of plants and animal fossils

 

10)  What is N-value?

 

Answer: A term commonly referred to as work hardening exponent derived from the relationship between true stress and true strain. Also called work strengthening exponent. What is hydraulic jump? A hydraulic jump is a phenomenon in the science of hydraulics which is frequently observed in open channel flow such as rivers and spillways. When liquid at high velocity discharges into a zone of lower velocity, a rather abrupt rise occurs in the liquid surface.

 

11)  What is Reynolds’s number?

 

Answer: A dimensionless number used in fluid mechanics to indicate whether fluid flow past a body or in a duct is steady or turbulent.

 

12) What is differential settlement?

 

Some settlement is quite normal after construction has been completed, but unequal (differential) settlement may cause significant problems for buildings. 

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Infosys Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

Infosys recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

Infosys Latest Selection Procedures

 

Infosys Selection Process consists of 2 sections:

  1. Online Test 

  2. Technical / HR Interview

1. Online Test 

 

It Consists of two parts:

(a) Aptitude Test:

Questions: 30

Duration: 40 minutes.

The Aptitude reasoning test pattern is distributed into 6 different topics with 5 questions each as:

(i)Picture Reasoning :

 In this section, a series of pictures are given which may consist of picture series, picture analogy or picture classification.

No of Questions: 5

(ii)Statement Reasoning:

In this section, sequence questions like seating arrangement or money distribution or height arrangement are given. A set of five questions are based directly on the statements given.

No of Questions: 5

(iii)Data Sufficiency: Here a set of two statements are given followed by 5 options which satisfy the answer for the statements. You have to decide which option best suits the answer.

No of Questions: 5

(iv)Data Interpretation: This section consists of a direct sequence of 5 questions based on the data which is provided in the form of table charts, bar charts, pie charts or line charts.

No of Questions: 5

(v)Relation Problem: This section consists of questions which are similar to the sets and relations like students with biology, maths, physics and chemistry, maths and biology, only physics, etc., and questions related as such.

No of Questions: 5

(vi)Syllogism: This section consists of statement followed by two conclusions. We need to pick out from 5 options which suits the best answer.

No of Questions: 5

(b) Verbal Ability:

Questions: 40

Duration: 35 minutes.

The Verbal Ability test pattern is distributed into 5 different topics as:

(i)Sentence Correction:

Among 4 sentences the correct one should be detected.

No of Questions: 8 

(ii)Insert Correect Phrase:

Underline a part of sentence and asked to insert correct phrase in it from given four options.

No of Questions: 8

(iii)Fill In The Blanks 

No of Questions: 8

(iv)Theme Detection

No of Questions: 6

(v)Two Reading Comprehensions

No of Questions: 10

> The key is to score well in this online test because it acts as a filter in the case of the Infosys Selection Process.

 

2. Interview:

  1. The key for interview is to maintain your calm, be confident, justify everything written in your resume in a positive way and yeah wear a sweet but not an annoying smile during interaction with the interviewer.

  2. At first, they asked us to submit our year wise mark sheets of the degree, 10th and 12th. The application form and the resume were stapled together with them to create a well formed application to be presented before the interviewer.

  3. The students were then divided into several groups and were allotted several panels by the volunteers.

  4. HR asked several queries like which language we have used, what was your task in the project and which server was used to run the scripts.