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IBPS Placement-Paper : 43668
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : IBPS Exam AnlysisUpdated Date : Aug 2, 2014

IBPS Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

IBPS recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

IBPS CWE clerical PO,MT Examinations procedure previous years solved question papers and analysis 2013-2014  Analysis of IBPS PO CWE 2013 -Exam held on 19th /20th Oct 2013


IBPS CWE New examination notifications upcoming recruitments through IBPS CWE Clericals, PO,MT Specialists officers new jobs, careers news IBPS CWE PO MT Clerical SPL officers RRBs new examination procedure and IBPS Previous Years free solved question papers with detailed explanations IBPS CWE common written examination aptitude, reasoning, bank based general knowledge, computer awareness, latest current affairs RBI latest updations  in formations Here you can find a comprehensive and detailed analysis of IBPS solved question papers learn and practice largest collection of ibps sample model previous years questions with answers  

IBPS Bank CWE New and latest Examinations recruitment notifications for all over India Public sector banks, nationalised, co-operative banks and other private banks IBPS has been conducting inter-scale promotion assessments for both Generalist and Specialist cadre employees across levels of the organizations. If you are looking for a career in the Human Resource related matter we offer opportunities for employment either in our organization or any other organization who has been utilizing our services in the area of recruitment, placement, promotion and related research. IBPS Personnel offer employment opportunities to all professionals by assessing their potential in a scientific method. IBPS-Bank financial Competitive Admission Testing Learning Skill India Exercise Technology Banking Recruitment Talent Computer Educational Behavioural

 

IBPS careers in banking exams

IBPS CWE -All details regarding IBPS common written examinations (CWE Exam) for various jobs positions in banks
Every years IBPS conducts on line common written examination for clerks, PO-Probationary officers, Management trainees-MT, Specialists officers SPL -in India IBPS started the CWE exam in the year 2011,before that the recruitment /selection procedure in each bank was done by the bank itself. In the latest bank careers news and experts in India says that in the next five years about 7.5 lakh people have to be recruitment  to the banks because of the retirement of existing employees an the opening of different new branches. Being a part of the IBPS team can really be a breakthrough journey for professionals as they get an opportunity to enrich their career experience. With the selection process, the Institute helps its clients in succession planning their manpower, thereby providing opportunities for the employees to grow and develop. 

 

IBPS CWE-Common Written Examination Clerical recruitment notifications IBPS CWE clerical previous years solved questions answers for referring upcoming latest recruitment of IBPS Common Written Examination for Clerical Cadre 2013-2014

 

IBPS recruits clerk once in every year .through on line exam with 200 questions in 120 minutes.1/4th of the marks penalized for each wrong answers in objective tests. Each section 40 questions 40 marks.  You must pass each section for qualifying examination. But not just qualifying examination, candidates should score more than 160 marks out of 200

 

IBPS Expected Date of clerical cadre examination date is December 

 

IBPS CWE PO-MT Probationary Officers, Management Trainee Specialists Officers Examination Procedure 

IBPS conducts recruitment for the Probationary officers, management trainee once in a years In the Year 2012 PO was not on line. but now it is also an on line exam IBPS Po MT Spl officers exam contains 50 questions 50 marks for each sections such as reasoning aptitude, english, computer knowledge ..For the PO recruitment along with these test a test for english composition is there which includes letter writing, essay, precis etc with maximum marks of 25 and for a time of one hour

 

IBPS RRB's regional rural banks exam, specialists officer recruitment and all other recruitment officer scale I,II,III Nabard RBI,SBI SBT all examinations almost same pattern and structure the difference is number questions and marks time etc For Crack IBPS CWE exam speed in calculations is the important factor.Practice all banks IBPS SBI RBI on line mock tests. Refer and practice previous years solved question papers of IBPS CWE PO RRBs Management trainees, probationary officers clerical ..Update your current affairs 


Analysis Examination details regarding  IBPS PO CWE 2013 (Exam held on 19th /20th Oct 2013)


The IBPS P.O. On-line Exam, one of the most reputed exams in the Indian banking sector, was held on the 19th (Saturday) and 20th (Sunday) of October 2013. The next set of dates for the exam are 26th/27th of Oct 2013 and 9th/10th of Nov 2013. It has been ascertained from students' assessment that overall, the examination was moderate, comparatively easier than the one held last year.

 

Duration of the Examination 120 Minutes
Number of sections 5
Negative Marking 0.25 of marks assigned to the question
Total Questions 200
Quantitative Aptitude 50 questions
Reasoning 50 questions
English Language 40 questions
General Awareness 40 questions
Computer Knowledge 20 questions

 

IBPS CWE Exam sectional analysis is as follows : 

IBPS PO CWE  Quantitative Aptitude : 

In general, the difficulty level of this section can be pegged at moderate to difficult. It was reported that there were no questions on Simplifications and Approximations. This was something unexpected and caught students off-guard. Since the above were replaced by questions from various topics of Arithmetic, which usually take more time to solve, this section was time-consuming. 
The break-up of the 50 questions of this section is as : 
Data Interpretation – 20 
Number series – 5 
Quadratic Equations (Comparisons) – 5
Questions from individual topics of Arithmetic – 15
Data Sufficiency – 5

IBPS  CWE  Reasoning : 

According to the feedback received from candidates who have appeared for this exam, the difficulty level of this section can be termed as more or less moderate. As has been the pattern ever since the exam has gone on-line, this time too non-verbal questions were conspicuous by their absence. 
The break-up of the 50 questions in this section is as : 
Deductions – 5 
Data Sufficiency – 5 
Input/output – 5 
Decision Making – 5 
Puzzles – 15 
Other topics – 15 ( Symb & Not based Conclusions, Assumptions / Inferences / Cause and effect, Direction sense / Word digit formation / ranking etc.) 

IBPS CWE  General Awareness : 

It was reported by students that most of the 40 questions in this section were from Banking Awareness and Indian Economy. Current affairs also formed the basis for a few questions. The difficulty level can be stated as easy to moderate. 

IBPS CWE English Language: 

As reported, this section can be called a difficult one, as the Comprehension questions, which students dread, dominated this section. In one of the slots on the 19th of October, there were two passages with 15 questions and in one of the slots of the other day, the two RC passages had 10 questions each. 
Earlier, when the exam used to have 50 questions in this section, this kind of pattern was common. But with almost half of this section dominated by questions on reading comprehension, students found it very lengthy and exhaustive. Had these questions been substituted by those of verbal ability, it could have become easy for candidates to work on this section with greater speed. The break-up of the 40 questions is as : 
Reading Comprehension – 15 -20
Cloze Test – 10
Para formation Questions – 5 (with six sentences to sequence)
Grammar – 5 - 10

IBPS CWE Computer Knowledge : 

The questions in this section were reported to be easy. No great preparation was needed to tick these multiple choice questions. In fact, answers to a few questions could be worked out by looking at the various choices that each of these questions had. As compared to other IBPS exams, this section presented very little challenge to students. 
This section was reported to be easy in all the slots on 19th and 20th Oct 2013. 


In short all students opinion that the 2013 IBPS CWE examination was moderate difficulty level.  Question paper lengthy and time consuming

Ashok Leyland Placement-Paper : 46100
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : niladri mandalUpdated Date : Sep 19, 2014

Ashok Leyland Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

Ashok Leyland recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

HCL Placement-Paper : 46085
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : narendraUpdated Date : Sep 19, 2014

HCL Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

HCL recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

Robert Bosch Placement-Paper : 45944
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : Renuka MunagalaUpdated Date : Sep 10, 2014

Robert Bosch Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

Robert Bosch recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

 

Robert- Bosch Interview Experience

 

My name is Renuka Munagala. I am writing my Interview Experience here. There are three rounds in the selection procedure of Robert- Bosch. The three rounds are 

     

Round 1 : Online test ( It consisted of technical, verbal, aptitude and logical reasoning questions )

  1. Technical = 35 questions
  2. Verbal, aptitude and logical reasoning=25 questions
  3. (Each question carries 1 mark and there was a negative marking of 0.5 marks for each question) 

Round 2 : Technical Interview

 

Round 3 : HR Interview

 

The questions asked to me in all the rounds are given below :

 

A] Round 1- Online Test Questions :

 

a) Online Test Technical Questions 

 

For this section please refer the following  subjects :

 

Digital Electronics

  1. Code conversions(Binary code, Gray code, Excess-3 code and others like 8421, 2421 etc)

  2. K-map

  3. Combinational circuits and sequential circuits differences and examples for both  (  ( Combinational:adder,subtractor, decoder, encoder, multiplexer, demultiplexer, magnitude comparator. Sequential: latch, flip-flop, shift registers, counters(very important… also refer difference between synchronous and asynchronous counters, and various conditions for maximum clock frequency to be applied) )

  4. Moore and Mealey models differences

  5. Multivibrators using logic gates

  6. Astable multivibrator

  7. Bistable multivibrator

  8. Monostable multivbrator

  9. Logic families

  10. DTL

  11. Modified DTL

  12. TTL

  13. ECL

  14. Semiconductor Memories(very important)

  15. RAM, ROM and different types in them

  16. Diodes, BJT, JFET, MOSFET, Opamp

  17. Microprocessor(8085,8086): architecture, instruction set, interrupts, registers

  18. Microcontroller(PIC16F877A, 8051): architecture, instruction set, interrupts, registers

Questions asked are :

 

1) One question on zener diode, its temperature coefficient was given

 

(I don’t remember the exact value) say voltage decreases at x V/0C(some volts per degree centigrade) and voltage was asked for some other temperature

 

2) Conversion of binary code to gray code

 

3) Small circuits were given using AND,OR, EXOR gates and asked what would be the functioning of the circuit(options were edge detector, zero detector) if you analyze the circuit assuming the inputs as 00,01,10,11 you can figure out the functioning of the circuit

 

4) Few questions on combinational and sequential circuits

 

       a) ROM is what kind of circuit---?  

 

Answer : Combinational Circuit (built with the help of decoders and programmable OR gate)

 

       b)  Demultiplexer and Decoder

     

       c)  Circuit was given on decoder(2:4 decoder) and output was asked )

 

       d)  How do we overcome the “Race Around Condition(RAC)” in JK flip flop..?? 

 

Answer:  (i) Use Master-Slave JK flip flop

               (ii) Choose flip flop propagation delay Δt such that

 

                         tp < ∆t <T 

 

             Where  ∆t =  Praopagation delay of flip flop

                         T  =  Clock frequency

                         tp =  Pulse width of the clock applied

 

(RAC occurs only in level triggered FFs. It does not occur in edge triggered FFs)

 

e) Setup time, Hold time and Propagation delay  in a flip flop

 

f) Counters – given some n- bit asynchronous counter and propagation delay of the flip flop used, asked to find the maximum clock frequency to be applied :

 

Answer:  fmax=1/(n*tp)  (only for asynchronous counter… add -stroke pulse width to the denominator and then compute if it is given in the question)

 

Where   fmax = Maximum clock frequency to be applied

                    n =   n bit counter

                   tp = Propagation delay of the flip flop

 

g) Circuit was given and output was asked. It was a counter… may be a ring counter


h) One question modulus of counter

 

     i)  Frequency at the output 2nd  flip flop in a 4 bit counter (don’t remember which counter it was)

 

     ii) Ring counter(N bit): output frequency at each FF(flip flop) is f/N


     iii) Johnson counter(N bit): output frequency at each FF is f/2N


     iv) Asynchronous counter(N bit): output frequency at each FF (starting from LSB) is f/2^i  

          where i is  FF no. from LSB

 

5) Two questions on ROM- no. of address lines were given and the size of the memory was given and no of data lines was asked

 

Answer : If no of address lines were x, no of data lines were y, then Size of the memory=  2^x y

 

6) Two questions on Analog to digital converters(ADCs)-  N bit ADC, Vmax is given, find the resolution

 

7) Two questions on 8085 microprocessor(flag register) and 8051 microcontroller

 

8) 4 to 5 questions on C and C++ programming languages, most of them were output questions

 

b) Online Test Aptitude Questions 

 

In aptitude various topics were covered like

  1. Time and Work

  2. Pipes and Cisterns,

  3. Alligations and Mixtures 

  4. Find the next pattern

  5. Logarithms 

  6. Mensuration

c) Online Test Logical Reasoning  Questions 

 

Five people, five degrees and five jobs.. question was like A did not do degree in economics and politics, so he will not be given so & so job… similar info was given for B,C,D,E and 4 four questions were asked like who does what job or who holds what degree etc.

 

d) Online Test Verbal  Questions 

 

In verbal one paragraph was given and four questions were asked from it, two synonyms, one antonym,2-3 questions on choose the correct word that fills the blank. 

 

B ] Round 2 - Technical Interview Questions :

 

1.  Tell me about yourself ( while I was answering this question, he checked my resume)

 

2.  Asked me about the mini project I had done, I had explained him in detail about the project (at least 1 mini project is necessary since some were rejected for not having done any mini project. If you had done any mini project, prepare thoroughly about it, not just the project, anything other things associated with it say current  trends in it, what components are used and why etc. if you can explain with confidence your project, then you have won half battle )

 

3. Difference between microcontroller and microprocessor, explain with the help of a diagram

 

4. Asked me if I knew anything about the processors. I said I knew 8085 microprocessor. He asked me to explain it with the help of the architecture of it, while I was explaining about the processor, he asked me few definitions related to it like explain how a stack pointer with the help of instructions, what is program counter, what is the flag register and what are the various bits present in that register, few instructions were asked like explain what happens for MVI data, what is the accumulator and what is its use, what are various interrupts present in the processor, their priority order, what happens when an interrupt occurs, explain me what happens with the program counter and stack pointer content  when an interrupt occurs, what is an interrupt routine, what are status signals, frequency used in it.

 

5. He asked how much strong I am in C. I said I know only basics of it. He asked me some basic questions related to C programming like what is a preprocessor directive,  what is a structure explain me with the help of a example, what is pointer  and write the syntax of it, what is a qualifier, what is an enum (make sure that you have basic idea about the programming languages you have written in the resume)

 

C ] Round 3 - HR interview Questions :

 

He introduced about himself and then looking at my resume he asked me

  1. Tell me about the meaning of your name

  2. Tell me about yourself

  3. Tell me about your family

  4. Tell me about your mini project

  5. What do you know about Bosch and why do you want to join Bosch

  6. And final question was: Any questions??

All the best....

 

ONGC Placement-Paper : 45943
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : Aman ChatergiUpdated Date : Sep 10, 2014

ONGC Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

ONGC recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

 

ONGC Placement Paper

 

In this paper I am discuss about the written exam of ONGC.The ONGC Exam Papers consist of two sections such as 

 

       1) General Knowledge Section
       2) Technical Knowledge Section


a) General Knowledge Section

 

The General Knowledge section consist of 50 questions which are asked generally  from the below given subjects. All questions are multiple choice type and no negative marks for the wrong answers. So you can attempt all the answers.

  1. GDP
  2. Economic policies
  3. Literacy
  4. Indian History
  5. Judicial system
  6. Biology

b) Technical Knowledge Section

 

The Technical Knowledge Section consists of 75 questions which are multiple choices and no negative marking for the wrong answers. Generally the questions will be asked from subjecting you are chosen or for the post you are applied. For example, if have chosen electrical engineering, then the questions would be from Transformers, Power Systems, Motors, Power Electronics, Electrical Theory, etc. For example if you give option for Electronics Engineering the questions would be from control Systems, Networks, AWT, Electronics, Electronic devices and Circuits, etc.

 

Some questions asked in previous exams are given below. I think it will help you for writting ONGC examinations.

 

1] Mechanical Engineering Questions and Answers

 

1) In a spring-mass system, the mass is 0.1 kg and the stiffness of the spring is 1 kN/m. By introducing a damper, the frequency of oscillation is found to be 90% of the original value. What is the damping coefficient of the damper?

 

A) 1.2 N.s/m 
B) 3.4 N.s/m 
C) 8.7 N.s/m 
D) 12.0 N.s/m 

 

Answer : C

 

2) A solar collector receiving solar radiation at the rate of 0.6 k W/m2 transforms it to the internal energy of a fluid at an overall efficiency of 50%. The fluid heated to 350 K is used to run a heat engine which rejects heat at 313 K. If the heat engine is to deliver 2.5 kW power, the minimum area of the solar collector required would be

 

A) 8.33m2 
B) 16.66m2
C) 39.68m2 
D) 79.36m2

 

Answer : D

 

3)  A company has two factories S1, S2 and two warehouses D1, D2. The supplies from S1 and S2 are 50 and 40 units respectively. Warehouse D1 requires a minimum of 20 units and a maximum of 40 units. Warehouse D2 requires a minimum of 20 units and, over and above, it can take as much as can be supplied. A balanced transportation problem is to be formulated for the above situation. The number of supply points, the number of demand points, and the total supply (or total demand) in the balanced transportation problem respectively are

 

A) 2, 4, 90
B) 2, 4, 110
C) 3, 4, 90 
D) 3, 4, 110

 

Answer : C

 

4) During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type of tool motion will be 

 

A) circular Interpolation — clockwise
B) circular Interpolation — counterclockwise
C) linear Interpolation
D) rapid feed

 

Answer : A

 

5)  An incompressible fluid (kinematic viscosity, 7.4 x 10-7 m2/s, specific gravity, 0.88) is held between two parallel plates. If the top plate is moved with a velocity of 0.5 m/s while the bottom one is held stationary, the fluid attains a linear velocity profile in the gap of 0.5 mm between these plates; the shear stress in Pascals on the surface of top plate is

 

A) 0.651 x 10-3
B) 0.651
C) 6.51
D) 0.651 x 103

 

Answer : B

 

6) The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5,5) to (10,10) while performing an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10,5). Which one of the following NC tool path commands performs the above mentioned operation?

 

A) N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5 
B) N010 G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5 
D) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5

 

Answer : D

 

7)  During a Morse test on a 4 cylinder engine, the following measurements of brake power were taken at constant speed.

All cylinders firing 3037 kW
Number 1 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 2 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 3 cylinder not firing 2100 kW
Number 4 cylinder not firing 2098 kW
The mechanical efficiency of the engine is

 

A) 91.53% 
B) 85.07%
C) 81.07% 
D) 61.22%

 

Answer : C

 

8) In terms of theoretical stress concentration factor (Kt) and fatigue stress concentration factor (Kf ), the notch sensitivity ‘q’ is expressed as

 

A) (Kf -1) (Kt -1)
B) (Kf -1) (Kt +1)
C) (Kt -1) (Kf -1)
D) (Kf +1) (Kt +1)

 

Answer : A

 

9) Starting from x0 = 1, one step of Newton-Raphson method in solving the equation x3 + 3x -7 = 0 gives the next value (x1) as

 

A) x1 = 0.5
B) x1= 1.406
C) x1= 1.5
D) x1 = 2

 

Answer : C

 

10)  A component can be produced by any of the four processes I, II, III and IV. Process I has a fixed cost ofRs. 20 and variable cost of Rs. 3 per piece. Process II has a fixed cost Rs. 50 and variable cost of Re. 1 per piece. Process III has a fixed cost of Rs. 40 and variable cost of Rs. 2 per piece. Process IV has a fixed cost of Rs. 10 and variable cost of Rs. 4 per piece. If the company wishes to produce 100 pieces of the component, from economic point of view it should choose

 

A) Process I 
B) Process II 
C) Process III 
D) Process IV

 

Answer : B

 

11) The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at

 

A) 103 cycles
B) 104 cycles
C) 10 6 cycles
D) 10 9 cycles

 

Answer : C

 

12) Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used inthe new generation domestic refrigerators. Itschemical formula is

 

A) CH C1 F2
B) C2 C13 F3
C) C2 C12 F4
D) C2 H2 F4

 

Answer : D

 

13)  A solid cylinder (surface 2) is located at the centreof a hollow sphere (surface 1). The diameter of the sphere is 1m, while the cylinder has a diameter and length of 0.5 m each. The radiation configuration factor F11 is

 

A) 0.375
B) 0.625
C) 0.75
D) 1

 

Answer : C

 

14) A soldering operation was work-sampled over two days (16 hours) during which an employee soldered 108 joints. Actual working time was 90% of the total time and the performance rating was estimated to be 120 percent. If the contract provides allowance of 20 percent of the total time available, the standard time for the operation would be 

 

A) 8 min
B) 8.9 min
C) 10 min
D) 12 min

 

Answer : D

 

15) For a fluid flow through a divergent pipe of length L having inlet and outlet radii of R1 and R2 respectively and a constant flow rate of Q, assuming the velocity to be axial and uniform at any cross- section, the acceleration at the exit is

 

A) 2Q(R1 - R2) p LR23
B) 2Q2 (R1 - R2) p LR23
C) 2Q2 (R1 - R2) p2LR25
D) 2Q2 (R2 - R1) p2LR25

 

Answer : C

 

16) In an interchangeable assembly, shafts of size 25.000+0.040mm mate with holes of size 25.000+0.020 mm. The maximum possible clearance in the assembly will be 

 

A) 10 microns
B) 20 microns
C) 30 microns
D) 60 microns

 

Answer : D

 

17) In PERT analysis a critical activity has

 

A) maximum Float
B) zero Float
C) maximum Cost
D) minimum Cost

 

Answer : B

 

18) An incompressible fluid (kinematic viscosity, 7.4 x 10-7 m2/s, specific gravity, 0.88) is held between two parallel plates. If the top plate is moved with a velocity of 0.5 m/s while the bottom one is held stationary, the fluid attains a linear velocity profile in the gap of 0.5 mm between these plates; the shear stress in Pascals on the surface of top plate is

 

A) 0.651 x 10-3
B) 0.651
C) 6.51
D) 0.651 x 103

 

Answer : B

 

19) In terms of theoretical stress concentration factor(Kt) and fatigue stress concentration factor (Kf ), the notch sensitivity ‘q’ is expressed as

 

A) (Kf -1) (Kt -1)
B) (Kf -1) (Kt +1)
C) (Kt -1) (Kf -1)
D) (Kf +1) (Kt +1)

 

Answer : A

 

20) A maintenance service facility has Poisson arrival rates, negative exponential service time and operates on a ‘first come first served’ queue discipline. Break downs occur on an average of 3 per day with a range of zero to eight. The maintenance crew can service an average of 6 machines per day with a range of zero to seven. The mean waiting time for an item to be serviced would be

 

A) 16 day
B) 13 day
C) 1 day
D) 3 days

 

Answer : A

 

21) The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at

 

A) 103 cycles
B) 104 cycles
C) 106 cycles
D) 109 cycles

 

Answer : C

 

22)  Starting from x0 = 1, one step of Newton-Raphson method in solving the equation x3 + 3x -7 = 0 gives the next value (x1) as

 

A) x1 = 0.5
B) x1= 1.406
C) x1= 1.5
D) x1 = 2

 

Answer : C

 

23) Water at 42°C is sprayed into a stream of air at atmospheric pressure, dry bulb temperature of 40°C and a wet bulb temperature of 20°C. The air leaving the spray humidifier is not saturated. Which of the following statements is true?

 

A) Air gets cooled and humidified
B) Air gets heated and humidified
C) Air gets heated and dehumidified
D) Air gets cooled and dehumidified

 

Answer : (B)

 

24) During a Morse test on a 4 cylinder engine, the following measurements of brake power were taken at constant speed.
All cylinders firing 3037 kW
Number 1 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 2 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 3 cylinder not firing 2100 kW
Number 4 cylinder not firing 2098 kW
The mechanical efficiency of the engine is

 

A) 91.53% 
B) 85.07%
C) 81.07% 
D) 61.22%

 

Answer : C

 

25) The angle between two unit-magnitude coplanar vectors P(0.866, 0.500,0) and Q(0.259, 0.966,0) will be

 

A) 0°
B) -30°
C) 45°
D) 60°

 

Answer : C

 

26)  In a rolling process, sheet of 25 mm thickness is rolled to 20 mm thickness. Roll is of diameter 600 mm and it rotates at 100 rpm. The roll strip contact length will be

 

A) 5 mm
B) 39 mm
C) 78mm
D) 120mm

 

Answer : A

 

27) A lot has 10% defective items. Ten items are chosen randomly from this lot. The probability that exactly 2 of the chosen items are defective is
A) 0.0036
B) 0.1937
C) 0.2234
D) 0.3874

 

Answer : B

 

28) Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used in the new generation domestic refrigerators. Its chemical formula is

 

A) CH C1 F2 
B) C2 C13 F3 
C) C2 C12 F4
D) C2 H2 F4

 

Answer : D

 

29) When the temperature of a solid metal increases,

 

A) strength of the metal decreaes but ductility increases 
B) both strength and ductility of the metal decrease
C) both strength and ductility of the metal increase
D) strength of the metal increases but ductility decreases

 

Answer : (A)

 

30) A company produces two types of toys: P and Q. Production time of Q is twice that of P and the company has a maximum of 2000 time units per day. The supply of raw material is just sufficient to produce 1500 toys (of any type) per day. Toy type Q requires an electric switch which is available @ 600 pieces per day only. The company makes a profit of Rs. 3 and Rs. 5 on type P and Q respectively. For maximization of profits, the daily production quantities of P and Q toys should respectively be

 

A) 100, 500 
B) 500, 1000
C) 800, 600
D) 1000, 1000

 

Answer : C
 
31) A spherical thermocouple junction of diameter 0.706 mm is to be used for the measurement Aof temperature of a gas stream. The convective heat transfer co-efficient on the bead surface is 400 W/m2K. Thermophysical properties of thermocouple material are k = 20 W/mK, C = 400 J/kg K and r = 8500 kg/m3. If the thermocouple initially tot 30°C is placed in a hot stream of 300°C, the time taken by the bead to reach 298°C, is

 

A) 2.35 s
B) 4.9 s
C) 14.7 s
D) 29.4 s

 

Answer : B

 

32)  Stokes theorem connects

 

A) a line integral and a surface integral
B) a surface integral and a volume integral 
C) a line integral and a volume integral 
D) gradient of a function and its surface integral

 

Answer : A

 

33) In a machining operation, doubling the cutting speed reduces the tool life to 1/8 of the original value. The exponent n in Taylor

 

A) 1/8 
B) 1/4
C) 1/3 
D) 1/2

 

Answer : C

 

34) In a rolling process, sheet of 25 mm thickness is rolled to 20 mm thickness. Roll is of diameter 600 mm and it rotates at 100 rpm. The roll strip contact length will be

 

A) 5 mm
B) 39 mm
C) 78 mm
D) 120 mm

 

Answer : A

 

35) A welding operation is time-studied during which an operator was pace-rated as 120%. The operator took, on an average, 8 minutes for producing the weld-joint. If a total of 10% allowances are allowed for this operation, the expected standard production rate of the weld-joint (in units per 8 hour day) is

 

A) 45
B) 50
C) 55
D) 60

 

Answer : A

 

36) The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5,5) to (10,10) while performing an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10,5). Which one of the following NC tool path commands performs the above mentioned operation?

 

A) N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5 
B) N010 G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5 
D) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5

 

Answer : D

 

37) In PERT analysis a critical activity has 

 

A) maximum Float 
B) zero Float
C) maximum Cost 
D) minimum Cost

 

Answer : B

 

3] General Knowledge Questions and Answers

 

1) India had a plan holiday:

 

A) after the China-India War of 1962
B) after the drought of 196

B) after the liberation of Bangladesh in 1971
D) after the India-Pakistan War in 1965

 

Answer : B


2) If the usual rule of calculation of time were aplied for the extremes of Gujarat and Arunachal Pradesh, then aproximately time

 

A) at Gujarat would be ahead of that at Arunachal Pradesh by about 3 hours
B) at Gujarat would be ahead of that at Arunachal Pradesh by about 2 hours
C) at Arunachal Pradesh would be ahead of that at Gujarat by 2 hours
D) at Arunachal Pradesh would be ahead of that at Gujarat by 2 hours

 

Answer : D

 

3) While the time in India is 4 pm, that coresponding time (aproximate) in?

 

A) Auckland (New Zealand) is 6 pm

B) London (England) is 10.30 am
C) Tokyo(Japan) is 2 p.m.
D) Cairo (Egypt) is 5 p.m.

 

Answer : B

 

4) Consider the folowing statements:

 

1. Lord Mountbaten was sent to India in place of Lord Wavel as the Governor General of India in March 1947.
2. In July 1947, Britsh Government pased the Act containing the main provisions of the Mountbaten 
Plan. This is known as the Indian Independence Act.
Which of these statements is/are corect?

 

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both land 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer : C

 

5)  The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a living entiy because it can:

 

A) move from one cel to another
B) disturb host cel respiration
C) undergo auto-reproduction
D) cause disease in the host

 

Answer : A

 

6)  Which of the folowing States is the first to have enacted a comprehensive legislation to protect the 
girl child?

 

A) Karnataka
B) Goa
C) Maharashtra

D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: D
 

7) Which one of the folowing European countries borders Atlantic Ocean?

 

A) Portugal
B) Austria
C) Finland
D) Romania

 

Answer : A

 

8)  Select the corect sequence in the decreasing order of contribution to the forest-cover of India:

 

A) Dense forest—Open forest— Mangrove forest
B) Open forest—Dense forest—Mangrove forest
C) Dense forest—Mangrove forest—Open forest
D) Open forest—Mangrove forest—Dense forest

 

Answer : B

 

9)  Consider the folowing statements:

 

1. ‘Astra’ is an air-to-air guided misile which was recently test-fired.

2. Recently test-fired ‘Akash’ is a medium range surface to surface misile.
Which of these statements is/are corect?

 

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2.

 

Answer : A

 

10) Which of the folowing countries is not included in 0-8 (Group of eight industrialized countries)

 

A) Italy
B) Rusia
C) Holand
D) Canada.

 

Answer: C

 

11) Match List (Dance Forms) with List-I (State) and select the corect answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Dance Forms)               List-I (State)
A. Kathakali                               1. Tamil Nadu
B. Kuchipudi                              2.  Kerala
C. Bharat Natyam                      3. Andhra Pradesh
                                                  4. Orisa
                                                  5. Karnataka
Code:
A B C

 

A) 2 3 4
B) 5 3 2

C) 2 3 1
D) 5 4 2

 

Answer : C

 

12) Match List-I (Tennis Player) with List-I (Country) and select the corect answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Tennis Player)                    List-I (Country)
A. Justine Henin-Hardene            1. Belgium
B. Kim Clijsters                             2. England
C. Tim Henman                            3 Australia
D. Andy Rodick                            4. US
                                                     5. Spain
Code:
A B C D

 

A) 1 4 3 4

B) 5 1 2 3
C) 1 1 2 4
D) 5 4 3 2

 

Answer : C

 

13) Gros National Product of a country Is the sum of the market value of al the gods and services 
produced in a year

 

A) plus export earnings
B) plus market value of imports.
C) minus foreign aid
D) plus net Income from abroad

 

Answer : D

14) In the Constiution of India promotion of International peace and security is included In the-

 

A) Preamble of the Constiution
B) Directive Principles of State Policy
C) Fundamental Duties
D) Ninth Schedule

 

Answer : B

 

15)  Consider the folowing statements related to the Prime Minister of India:

 

1. He signs the bils pased by the two Houses of the Parliament on behalf of the President during his 
absence.

2. He asists the President in making al the apointments.
3. He communicates to the President al the decisions of the Council of Ministers.
Which of these statements are corect?

 

A) 1, 2, and 3
B) land 2
C) land 3
D) 2 and 3

 

Answer : D

 

16) Bauxite is the principal ore of:

 

A) Coper
B) Aluminum
C) Iron
D) Zinc

 

Answer : B

17) Separation of the Judiciary from the executive in public service of the State is enjoined by -

 

A) the Preamble of the Constitution of India
B) a judicial decision

C) the Seventh Schedule of the Constiution of India
D) a Directive Principle of State Policy

 

Answer : 4

 

18)  Consider the folowing statements:

 

1. Grenland is an overseas teritory of France.
2. Bermuda an overseas teritory of UK is situated in Western Atlantic.
3. State of Bahrain is situated in the Persian Gulf.
Which of these statements is/are corect?

 

A) l, 2, and 3

B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3
C) land 3

 

Answer : C

 

19) Which one amongst the folowing is the oldest Dynasty?

 

A) Palava Dynasty
B) Chola Dynasty
C) Maurya Dynasty
D) Gupta Dynasty

 

Answer : C

20) Who among the folowing Indian rulers was a contemporary of Akbar?

 

A) Rani Durgawati
B) Ahilya Bai
C) Martanda Varma
D) Raja Sawai Jai Singh

 

 Answer : A

 

21) Consider the folowing statements related to Raja Rammohan Roy:
1. He advocated widow remariage.
2. He strongly .advocated for the aboliton of Sati system
3. He advocated for the promotion of English education.Which of these statements is/are corect?

 

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3

 

Answer : C

 

22)  The Chalukya King who defeated Harshavardhana on the banks of the Narmada was:

 

A) Pulakesin I

B) Srimukha
C) Mangalesa

D) Kirtivarman I

 

Answer : A

 

23) Tisue culture is:

 

A) growing of tiny plant fragments in a nutrient solution
B) a system of physical exercise for the regeneration of body tisues
C) growing of plant fragments on tisue paper
D) culturing of bacteria on tisue paper

 

Answer : A

24) The six distinct schols of Indian philosophy—Vedanta, Mimamsa, Sankhya, Yoga, Nyaya, Valsesika became fuly articulated during the:

 

A) Vedic age
B) Gupta age
C) Kushana age
D) Mauryan age

 

Answer : D

 

25)  Gautama Budha atained pari- nirvana at:

 

A) Lumbini
B) Sarnath
C) Kushinagar

D) Bodh Gaya

 

Answer : C

 

26) Who among the folowing belongs to the period of Kanishka?
1. Budhaghosa
2. Nagarjuna
3. Vasumitra
4. Asvaghosa
Select the corect answer using the codes given below:
Code:

 

A) 2, 3, and 4
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 1, 3, and 4

D) 1 and 4

 

Answer : A

 

27)  Which one of the folowing pairs is not corectly matched?

 

A) Jacques Chirac : President of France
B) Gerhard Schroeder : Chancelor of Germany
C) Silvio Berlusconi : Prime Minister of Italy
D) Jean Chrétien : President of Austria

 

Answer : 4

28) Consider the folowing statements:
1. In India, the maximum part of electric energy is generated by the hydroelectric plants.
2. In India, the maximum part of electric energy is generated by the thermal power plants.
3. Neyveli Lignite Corporation Ltd. is located in Tamil Nadu
Which of these statements is/are corect?

 

A) 2 and 3
B) land 3
C) 2 only
D) 3 only

 

Answer : A

 

29) The layer of the atmosphere which makes radio communication posible is

 

A) troposphere
B) tropopause
C) ionosphere
D) stratosphere

 

Answer : C

 

30. Which one of the folowing pairs is not corectly matched?

 

A) Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Manav Sangrahalaya : Bhopal
B) Ramakrishna Mision Instiute of Culture : Kolkata
C) Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Public Library : Lucknow
D) Anthropological Survey of India (Headquarters) : Kolkata

 

Answer : A

 

31)  Consider the folowing statements: The Estimates Commite
1. is an ad hoc commite.
2. has members from both the Houses of Parliament.
3. has members drawn entirely from the Lok Sabha.
Which of these statements is/are corect?

 

A) land 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 only
D) 3 only

 

Answer : C

 

32) The Fundamental Duties of the Indian citzens were laid down by which of the folowing Amendments to theConstiution of India?

 

A) 40th Amendment
B) 41st Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 43rd Amendment

 

Answer : D

 

33) Match List-I (Substance) with List-I(Constituent) and, select the corect answer using the codes given belowthe Lists:
List-I (Substance)         List-I (Constituent)
A. White paint                1. Titanium dioxide
B. Glas                           2. Phosphorus
C. Artifcial fertilzer          3. Sodium silcate
D. Match-stick                4. Potasium sulphate
                                       5. Potasium chloride
Code:
A B C D

 

A) 4 3 5 2
B) 1 2 4 3
C) 4 2 5 3

D) 1 3 4 2
Answer : D

34) Consider the folowing statements:
1. In July 203, East Bengal Club won the L.G Asean Cup fotbal tournament defeating Bec Tero Sasana Club of Indonesia at Jakarta
2. Sandip Nandy of East Bengal Club was adjudged the best goalkeper of this tournament.
3. Baichung Bhutia of East Bengal Club was the highest goal scorer of the tournament.
Which of these statements are corect?

 

A) 2 and 3
B) 1 and 3
C) land 2
D)1, 2, and 3

 

Answer : B

 

35) Match List-I (Major Port) with List-I (State) and select the corect answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Major Port)                       List-I (Estate)
A. Jawaharlal Nehru Port           1. Tamil Nadu
B. Paradip Port                           2. Maharashtra
C. Kandla Port                            3. OrisaD. Enore Port

                                                   4. Gujarat
Code:
A B C D

 

A) 4 1 2 3
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 2 1 4 3

 

Answer:  2

 

36) Match List-I with List-I and select the corect answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I                                List-I
A. Linux                            1. Internet
B. Pentium                       2. Programming language
C. C++                             3. Microprocesor
D. Modem                        4. Operating system
                                         5. Laser printerCodes:
A B C D

 

A) 2 1 5 3
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 2 3 5 1
D) 4 1 2 3

 

Answer : B

 

37) Match List-I (Disease) with List-I (Nature of Disease) and select the corect answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Disease)                 List-I (Nature of Disease)
A. Filaria                            1.Hereditary
B. Epilepsy                        2. Waterborne
C. Enteric fever                 3. Contagious
D. Mumps                          4. Insect-Transmited
Code:
A B C D

 

A) 2 3 4 1
B) 4 1 2 3

C) 2 1 4 3
D) 4 3 2 1

 

Answer: B

 

38) Consider the folowing statements:

 

 1. Indo-Tibetan Border Police was raised after the Chinese agresion.
 2. Border Security Force was raised in 1965.
 3. Sardar Valabhbhai Patel National Police Academy is located in Udaipur.

Which of these statements are corect.?

 

A) 2 and 3

B) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) land 3

 

Answer : B


39) Consider the folowing statements:

 

1.The President of India can promulgate an Ordinance at any time if he is satisfied that circumstances 
exist which render it necesary for him to take immediate action.
2.The Vice-President of India can be re-elected to his post.
Which of these statements is/are corect?

 

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : B

40)  Bhimbetka which was ben confered the status of World Heritage Site is situated in:

 

A) Orisa
B) Rajasthan
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Bihar

 

Answer : C

 

41) Prof. Raghuram Rajan is/was asociated as Chief Economist of:

 

A) World Trade Organization
B) World Bank
C) International Monetary Fund
D) Economic and Social Council of the UNO

 

Answer : C

 

42)  Consider the folowing statement related to the 50th National Film Awards:
1. Aishwarya Rai got the Best Actres award for her role in the film Devdas.
2. Aparna Sen got the Best Director award for the film Mr. and Mrs. Iyer
3. Konkona Sen got the Best Actres award or her role in the film Mr. and Mrs.Iyer4. Sanjay Lela Bhansali got the Best Director award for the film Devdas.
Which of these statements are corect?

 

A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4

 

Answer : B

 

43) The autobiography Living History has ben authored by—

 

A) Margaret Atwod
B) Benazir Bhuto
C) Hilary Clinton
D) Monica Lewinsky

 

Answer : D

 

44) Match list-I (Person) with List-I (Organization) and select the corect answer using the codes given 
below the Lists:

 

List-I (Person)                 List-I (Organization)

 

A. C. P. Jain                     1. Indian Oil Corporation
B. M. S. Ramachandran   2. National Thermal Power Corporation
C. Sunil Arora                   3. Securites and Exchange Board of India
D. G. N. Bajpai                 4. Indian AirlinesCode:
A B C D

 

A) 4 1 2 3
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 2 1 4 3

 

Answer : D

45) Jharkhand does not share boundary with

 

A) West Bengal
B) Orisa
C) Chatisgarh
D) Madhya Pradesh

 

Answer : D

 

46 ) Which one of the folowing pairs is not corectly matched?

 

A) Nalin Surie : Ambasador to America
B) Shiv Shankar Menon : High Commisioner to Pakistan
C) S. K. Sinha : Governor of Jammu & Kashmir
D) K. Kasturirangan : Chairman, Indian Space Research Organization

 

Answer : D

 

47) No Biosphere Reserve. has ben set up at —

 

A) Nilgiri
B) Sunderbans
C) Gulf of Manar
D) Gulf of Kuchch

 

Answer : D

48) Consider the folowing statements:
 

 1. State Central Library is located at Mumbai.
 2. National Library is located at New Delhi.Which of these statements is/are corect?

 

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer : A

 

49) Match List-I (Place) with List -I (State) and select the corect answer using the codes given below the Lists:

 

List-I (Place)       List-I (State)

 

A. Sriharikota      1. Karnataka
B. Thumba          2. Andhra Pradesh
C. Hasan             3. OrisaD. Chandipur  

                            4. Kerala
                            5. Tamil Nadu
Code:
A B C D

 

A) 1 3 5 4
B) 2 4 1 3
C) 1 4 5 3
D) 2 3 1 4

 

Answer : B

 

50) Consider the folowing statements:

 

 1. Antrix is the commercial arm of ISRO for marketing Indian space capabilties.
 2. Megha-Tropiques is a joint satelite mision of ISRO and Rusian Space Agency for atmospheric               studies.
Which of these statements is/are corect?

 

A) 1 only

B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
C) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer : A

 

3] Civil Engineering Questions and Answers


1) Steel of yield strength 400 MPa has been used in a structure. What is the value of the maximum allowable tensile strength?

 

A) 240 MPa
B) 200 MPa
C) 120 MPa
D) 96 MPa

 

Answer : D

 

2)  Which one of the following is not a desirable property of the subgrade soil as a highway meterial?

 

A) Stability
B) Ease of compaction
C) Good drainage
D) Bitumen adhesion

 

Answer : D

 

3)  Consider the following statements:In surverying operations, the word ‘reciprocal’ can be associated with
 1. ranging
 2. levelling
 3. contouring

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer : B

 

4. How many- sidereal days are there in a solar year?


A) 365.2840
B) 366.2422
C) 360.2500
D) 365.0000

 

Answer : B

 

5) Consider the following statements

 

A sidereal year can be defined as the time interval:
 1. between two successive transits .of the sun through the meridian of any of the fixed stars
 2. between two successive passages of the sun through perigee

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 
A) 3 only
B) 1and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 1 only

 

Answer : B

 

6) Which one of the following methods of computing area assumes that the short, lengths of the boundary between the ordinates are parabolic ares?

 

A) Average ordinate rule
B) Middle ordinate rule
C) Simpson’s rule
D) Trapezoidal rule

 

Answer : C

 

7)  Which one the following errors is more severe in plane-table surveying?


A) Defective sighting
B) Defective orientation
C) Movement of board between sights
D) Non-horizontality of board when points sighted are at large differences of their elevation .


Answer : B

 

8) Which one of the following sets of factors is related to design of thickness rigid pavement by Westergaard method?


A) CBR value and stiffness index of soil
B) Deflection factor and traffic index
C) Swelling index and bulk modulus
D) Radius of relative stiffness and modulus of subgrade reaction


Answer : D


8)  Which one of the following tests is performed in the laboratory to determine the extent of weathering of aggregates for road works?


A) Soundness test
B) Crushing test
C) Impact test
D) Abrasion test


Answer : A


9) Which one of the following geometric features requires the magnitudes of weaving angle and weaving distance for its design?


A) Rotary design
B) Right-angle intersection
C) Roundabout

D) Grade-separated junction


Ans. (a)


10)  Which one of the following methods is used in the design of rigid pavements?


A) CBR method
B) Group index method
C) Westergaard’s method
D) McLeod’s method


Answer : C


11) In which one of the following yards, are reception, sorting and dispatch of railway wagons done?


A) Loco yard
B) Marashalling yard
C) Goods yard

D) Passenger yard


Answer : B

 

12) Hot bitumen is sprayed over freshly constructed bituminous surface followed by spreading of 6.3 mm coarse aggregates and rolled. Which one of the following is indicated by this type of construction?


A) Surface dressing
B) Gravel-bitumen mix
C) Liquid seal coat
D) Seal coat


Answer : A


13) Radius of relative stiffness of cement concrete pavement does not depend upon which one of the following?


A) Modulus of subgrade reaction
B) Wheel load

C) Modulus of elasticity of cement concrete
D) Poisson’s ratio of concrete


Answer : B


14) For conditions obtaining in India, at which location in a cement concrete payement will the combined stresses due to traffic wheel studies is needed for well as for ‘highway load and temperature have to be critically checked during design?


A) Corner
B) Corner and interior
C) Corner and edge
D) Corner, edge and interior


Answer : D

 

15)  Consider the following factors:


1. The change in the shape and size of the channel cross-section
2. The change in the slope of the channel
3. The presence of obstruction
4. The change in the frictional forces at the boundaries


Which of the above factors would cause a gradually varied flow?


A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
B) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4 only
D) 3 and 4 only


Answer : A

 

16) Consider the following in relation to group index of soil:


 1. Liquid limit
 2. Sandy loam
 3. Plasticity index
 4. Per cent passing 75 microns sieveWhich of the above is/are used for estimating the group index?


A) 1 only
B) 1and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 3 and 4


Answer : D


17) Which set of traffic functional design as well as for ‘highway capacity’ design?


A) Origin and destination studies
B) Parking and accident studies
C) Speed and volume studies
D) Axle load studies


Answer : A


18)  Which one of the following traffic survey schemes is most relevant when deciding on locating major ‘routes’ in a city?


A) Traffic volume survey
B) Origin and destination survey
C) Speed survey
D) Traffic capacity survey


Answer : B


19) Which one of the following equipments is useful in determining spot speed in traffic engineering?


A) Endoscope
B) Periscope
C) Radar
D) Tachometer

 

Answer : C


20. Under which one of the following categories is the river Ganga classified in the reach through UP and Bihar?

 

A) Straight river
B) Meandering river
C) Braided river
D) Deltaic river


Answer : B

 

21) Consider the following chemical emulsions:


1. Methyl alcohol
2. Cetyl alcohol
3. Stearyl alcohol
4. Kerosene


Which of the above chemical emulsions is/are used to minimize the loss of water through the process of evaporation?


A) 1 only
B) 1 and 4
C) 2 and 4
D) 2 and 3

 

Answer : D


22)  A catchment area of 60 ha has a runoff coefficient of 0.40. If a storm of intensity 3cm h and duration longer than the time of concentration occurs in the catchment, then what is the peak discharge?


A) 2.0 m3/s
B) 3.5 m3/s
C) 4.5 m3/s
D) 2.5 m3/s


Answer : A


23) Which combination of surface water quality parameters will indicate sweep coagulation as the preferred mechanism of coagulation?


A) High turbidity — low alkalinity

B) High turbidity — high alkalinity
C) Low turbidity — high alkalinity
D) Low turbidity — low alkalinity


Answer : B


24) In a canal irrigation project, 76% of the culturable command area (CCA) remained without water during Kharif season; and 58% of CCA remained without water during Rabi season in a particular year. Rest of the areas got irrigated in each crop respectively. What is the intensity of irrigation for the project in that year?

 

A) 134%
B) 76%
C) 66%
D) 58%

 

Answer : B


25) What is the critical combination of vertical and horizontal earthquake accelerations to be considered for checking the stability of a gravity dam in reservoir full condition?


A) Vertically upward and horizontally downstream
B) Vertically upward and horizontally upstream
C) Vertically downward and horizontally upstream
D) Vertically downward and horizontally downstream


Answer : D

 

26) Which of the following categories best describes the Hirakud reservoir?


A) Reservoir for irrigation and power
B) Reservoir for flood control, power and irrigation
C) Reservoir for irrigation and water supply
D) Reservoir for recreation and fishery


Answer : B

 

27) During a particular stage of the growth of a crop, consumptive use of water is 2.8 mm/day. If the amount of water available in the soil is 25% of 80 mm depth of water what is the frequency of irrigation?


A) 9 days
B) 13 days
C) 21 days
D) 25 days


Answer : C


28) Consider the following statements: Irrigation water has to be supplied to the crops when the moisture level falls


1. below field capacity
2. to wilting point
3. below wilting point


Which of the above statement is/are correct?

 

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 2 and 3


Answer : A


29) A groundwater basin consists of 10 km2 area of plains. The maximum groundwater table fluctuation has been observed to be 1.5 m. Consider specific yield of the basin as 10%. What is the available groundwater  storage in million cubic metres?


A) 1.0
B) 1.5
C) 2.5

D) 2.0


Answer : B


30) What is the height of wave which is likely to be generated by a wind of 80 km/hr in a reservoir having a fetch of 50 km:


A) 0.5m

B) 1.0 m
C) 2.0 m
D) 3.0 m


Answer : C

 

31) In a siphon system employed for carrying water from a reservoir A at a higher elevation to another reservoir B at lower elevation, both being separated by a higher hill, what will be the pressure at the ‘Summit’ (S)?

 

A) Equal to the pressure at the water surface of reservoir A
B) Higher than the pressure at the water surface of reservoir A
C) Equal to the pressure at the water surface of reservoir B
D) Less than the pressure at both A and B above


Answer : D


32)  Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:


List-I                                            List-II

 

A. Rehbock formula                    1. Sutro weir
B. Francis formula                       2. Rectangular suppressed weir
C. A special trapezoidal weir       3. Rectangular side- contracted weir
D. Linear proportional weir          4. Cippolletti weir

 

Code:A B C D


A) 1 3 4 2
B) 2 4 3 1
C) 1 4 3 2
D) 2 3 4 1


Answer : D

 

33) Consider the following statements related to undersluices provided in diversion weirs on permeable foundations:


 I. They are fully gate-controlled and have crest at the same level as the weir crest when no silt excluders are provided.
 2. They scour the silt deposited on the river bed in the pockets upstream of the canal head regulator.
 3. It is not necessary to provide end pile line on the downstream end of the undersluice floor.

 4. The discharge capacity of the undersluice is 10-15% of the maximum flood or two times the maximum discharge of the offtaking canal or maximum winter discharge, whichever is the highest.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?


A) 1
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 2, 3 and 4
C) 3 and 4 only


Answer : B


34) What is the theoretical oxygen demand of 300 mg/L glucose solution?


A) 300 mg/L
B) 320 mg/L

C) 350 mg/L
D) 400 mg/L


Answer : B


35) Consider the following statements:


1. Giving equal weightings to horizontal and vertical creeps for design of weir foundations is one of the drawbacks of Kennedy’s theory.
2. Khosla’s theory of design of foundations for weirs is based on potential theory.
3. Piping problem can be reduced by increasing the length of floor.
4. In Lane’s weighted creep theory, horizontal creep is given less weightage compared to vertical creep.


Which of the above statements is/are correct?


A) 1

B) 2, 3 and 4
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 3 and 4 only


Answer : B


36) The power transmitted through a pipeline is maximum when the head lost due to friction in the pipe is equal to:


A) the total supply head
B) half of the total supply head
C) one-third of the total supply head
D) one-fourth of the total supply head


Answer : C


37) Consider the following with respect to the application of the Navier-Stokes equations:

 

1. Laminar flown in circular pipes
2. Laminar flow between concentric rotating cylinders
3. Laminar unidirectional flow between stationary parallel plates
4. Laminary unit directional flow between parallel plates having relative motion


Which of the above is/are correct?


A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only.
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Answer : C


38)  Consider the following:


1. Force on pipe bends and transitions
2. Jet propulsion
3. Flow velocities in open channel
4. Vortex flow


Which of the above admit employing the moment of momentum equation?


A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2, 3 and 4

 

Answer : D


39) Consider the following statements:


1. Shear stress is maximum at the centre line.
2. Maximum velocity is 3\2 times the average velocity
3. Discharge varies inversely with the coefficient of viscosity.
4. Slope of hydraulic gradient line increases linearly with the velocity of flow.


Which of the above statements are correct in connection with a steady laminar flow through a circular pipe?


A) 1, 3 and 4
B) 3 and 4 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 4

 

Answer : B

 

40)  Consider the following statements:Cavitation generally results from a combination of several influences


1. by reduction of pressure intensity below a limiting value
2. by increase in either elevation or the velocity of flow
3. by reduction of pressure load in the system
4. by decrease in the velocity of flow


Which of the above statements are correct?


B) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 3 and 4


Answer : B

 

41) What is Hydrological Cycle?


A) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea to land
B) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea back again
C) Processes involved in the transfer of water from snowmelt in mountains
D) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea to land and back to sea again


Answer : D

 

42) A triangular direct runoff hydrograph due to a storm has a time base of 60 hr and a peak flow of 30m3/s occurring at 20 hr from the start. If the catchment area is 300 km2, what is the rainfall excess in the storm?


A) 50 mm
B) 20 mm
C) 10.8 mm
D) 8.3 mm


Answer : C


43) A 3 hr unit hydrograph U1 of a catchment of area 235 km2 is in the form of a triangle with peak discharge 30 m3/s. Another 3 hr unit hydrograph U2 is also triangular in shape and has the same base width as U1, but has a  peak flow of 90 m3/s. What is the catchment area of U2?

 

A) 117.5 km2
B) 235 km2
C) 470 km2
D) 705 km2


Answer : D


44)  While selecting a centrifugal pump for your requirement of head and discharge on the basis of its performance characteristics,which one of the following criteria is to be adopted?


A) Head, discharge and efficiency
B) Head and discharge only
C) Discharge only
D) Head only


Answer : A

 

45) Consider the following statements: The function of the impeller in a centrifugal pump is to:


1. Convert the pressure energy into hydraulic energy
2. Convert the hydraulic energy into mechanical energy
3. Convert the mechanical energy into hydraulic energy
4. transform most of the kinetic energies to pressure energy


Which of the above statements is/are correct?


A) 1 only
B) 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 2, 3 and 4


Answer : B

 

46)  A centrifugal pump gives maximum efficiency when its impeller blades are


(a) bent forward
(b) bent backward
(c) straight
(d) wave-shaped


Answer : B


47)  Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the the code given below the 

Lists-I                                                           List-II


A. Spiral casing     1. To allow flow of water through it to produce a torque for the rotation of the runner
B. Stay ring            2. To direct the water on the runner at an appropriate angle

C. Guide vane       3. To distribute the flow over the periphery of the runner
D. Runner              4. To act as column helping to support the electrical generator above the turbine

 

Code: A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 1 4 2 3


Answer : C

 

48)  By which one of the following, a small quantity of water may be lifted to a great height?

 

A) Hydraulic ram
B) Hydraulic crane
C) Hydraulic lift
D) Hydraulic coupling


Answer : A

 

49) A 1.6 m3 capacity tractor loaded works at a site with an effective per-round-trip time of 64 seconds. Effective delivery of excavated material is 90%. If utilization is 50 minutes per hour working, what will be the productivity in a 4-hour shift?


A) 253 m3
B) 262 m3
C) 270 m3
D) 282 m3

 

Answer : C


50) Consider the following with respect to a double-mass curve:


 I. Plot of accumulated rainfall with respect to two chronological orders
 2. Plot for estimating multiple missing rainfall data
 3. Plot for checking the consistency of the rainfall data
 4. Plot of accumulated annual rainfall of a station vs. accumulated rainfall of a group of stations

 

Which of the above are correct?


A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4


Answer : C


51) Generally to estimate PMP, Pm = 42. 16D0.475 is used (Pm is maximum depth of precipitation,

D = duration). What are the units of Pm and D in the equation?


A) mm, sec
B) cm, sec
C) mm, hr
D) cm, hr


Answer : D


52) A 1.75 m3 capacity tractor loader has forward loaded speed of 240 m/min, returning unloaded speed of 300 m/min and operates at 80% of the specified speed. It hauls earth over a distance of 60 m with fixed time per trip being 25 seconds. What is its effective cycle time?


A) 54.25 seconds
B) 55.50 seconds
C) 56.75 seconds
D) 58.75 seconds


Answer : D

 

53) Which one of the following relates to determination of critical path in PERT?


A) Event oriented slack
B) Activity oriented float
C) Event oriented float
D) Activity oriented slack


Answer : A


54) In order to achieve a safe compressive strength of 20 kg/cm2 in a brick masonary, what should be the suitable range of crushing strength of bricks?


A) 35kg/cm2 to 70 kg/cm2
C) 70 kg/cm2 to 105 kg/cm2
C) 105 kg/cm2 to 125 kg/cm2

D) More than 125 kg/cm2


Answer : B


55) What is the requirement of water (expressed as % of cement w/w) for the completion of chemical 
reactions in the process of hydration of OPC?


A) 10 to 15%
B) 15 to 20%
C) 20 to 25%
D) 25 to 30%


Answer : C


56) Which factors comprise maturity of concrete?


A) Compressive strength and. flexural strength of concrete /
B) Cement content per cubic metre and compressive strength of concrete

C) Curing age and curing temperature of concrete
D) Age and aggregate content per cubic metre of concrete


Answer : C


57)  What is the minimum value of individual tests results (in N/mm2) for compressive strength compliance requirement for concrete M20 as per codal provision?


A) fck 1
B) fck 3
C) fck 4
D) fck 5


Answer : C


58) For what reason is it taken that the nominal maximum size of aggregate may be as large as possible?

 

A) Larger the maximum size of aggregate, more the cement required and so higher the strength.
B) Larger the maximum size of aggregate, smaller is the cement requirement for particular water cement ratio and so more economical the mix.
C) Larger the maximum size of aggregate, lesser are the voids in the mix and hence also lesser the 
cement required.
D) Larger the maximum size of aggregate, more the surface area and better the bond between 
aggregates and cement, and so higher the strength.


Answer : D


59) What is the modulus of elasticity of standard timber (Group B) in (MN/cm2)?


A) 0.5 to 1.0
B) 1.0 to 1.25

C) 1.25 to 1.5
D) 1.5 to 1.75


Answer : B


60)  What is the treatment for making timber fire- resistant?


A) ASCU treatment
B) Abel’s process
C) Creosoting
D) Tarring


Answer : B


61) How is the process of treatment of wood using a preservative solution and forcing air in at pressure designated?


A) Ruping process

B) Lawri process
C) Full cell process
D) Empty cell process


Answer : D


62) Modular bricks are of nominal size 20 × 10 × 10cm and 20% of the volume is lost in mortar between joints. Then what is the number of modular bricks required per cubic meter of brick work?


A) 520
B) 500
C) 485
D) 470


Answer : D


63) A solid metal of uniform sectional area throughout its length hangs vertically from its upper end. Devails of the bar are:length = 6m, material density = 8 × 10-5 N/mm3 and B =2 × 1o5 N/mm2. What will be the total elongation of the bar in mm?


A) 288/104

B) 48/104
C) 144/104
D) 72/104


Answer : D


64) What is the representative geometric mean size of an aggregate sample if its fineness modulus is 
3.0?


A) 150 μm
B) 300 μm

C) 600 μm
D) 12 μm


Answer : C


65) A square steel bar of 50 mm side and 5m long is subjected to a load where upon it absorbs a strain energy of 100 J. What is its modulus of resilience?


A) 1/125 Nmm/ mm3
B) 125 mm3/Nmm
C) 1/125 Nmm/ mm3
D) 100 mm3/Nmm


Answer : A


66) What is the ratio of flexural strength (fcr) to the characteristic compressive strength of concrete (fck) for M25 grade concrete?

 

A) 0.08
B) 0.11
C) 0.14
A) 0.17


Answer : C


67) Which of the following tests compares the dynamic modulus of elasticity of samples of concrete?


A) Compression test 

B) Ultrasonic pulse velocity test
C) Split test
D) Tension test


Answer : B


68) Which one of the following is correct regarding the most effective requirements of durability in concrete?


A) Providing reinforcement near the exposed concrete surface
B) Applying a protective coating to the exposed concrete surface
C) Restricting the minimum cement content and the maximum water cement ratio and the type of cement
D) Compacting the concrete to a greater degree.


Answer : C)


69) What is the radius of Mohr’s circle in case of bi-axial state of stress?


A) Half the sum of the two principal stresses
B) Half the difference of the two principal stresses
C) Difference of the two principal stresses
D) Sum of the two principal stresses


Answer : B

 

70) A square beam laid flat is then rotated in such a way that one of its diagonal becomes horizontal. 
How is its moment capacity affected?


A) Increases by 41.4%
B) Increases by 29.27%
C) Decreases by 29.27%
D) Decreases by 41.4%


Answer : D

 

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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : Chivade MahalappaUpdated Date : Sep 5, 2014

IOCL Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

IOCL recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

 

IOCL Placement Questions and Answers

 

This paper contains questions from three sections such as Aptitude, Computer Knowledge and Technical which are generaaly asked. 

 

1. Aptitude Questions

 

1)  1256 x 3892 = ?

 

(a) 4883582    

(b) 4888352  

(c) 4888532

(d) 4883852            

(e) None of these

 

Answer : b

 

2)  6 x 66 x 6666 = ?

 

(a) 263736    

(b) 267336    

(c) 263763        

(d) 263376            

(e) None of these

 

Answer : a

 

3)  (7)3 ÷ √ ? + 7 = 14

 

(a) 49        

(b) 1764    

(c) 441            

(d) 3136            

(e) None of these

 

Answer : e

 

4)  12167 x ? = 1035

 

(a) 35        

(b) 25        

(c) 55            

(d) 15                

(e) None of these

 

Answer : e

 

5)  5   x 8   ÷ 7  = ?

 

(a) 1        

(b) 1        

(c) 5            

(d) 5                

(e) None of these

 

Answer : c

 

2. Computer Knowledge Questions

 

1) The term …………….. designates equipment that might be added to a computer system to enhance its functionality.

 

(a) digital device    

(b) system add-on  

(c) disk pack    

(d) peripheral device    

(e) None of these

 

Answer : b

 

2)  A device, which is not connected to the CPU, is called as …………………

 

(a) Land-line  

(b) On-Line device    

(c) Off-line device

(d) Device    

(e) None of the above

 

Answer : c

 

3)  A …………………. Is a microprocessor-based computing device.

 

(a) personal computer  

(b) mainframe    

(c) workstation

(d) server    

(e) None of these

 

Answer : a

 

4)  The…………. Is the amount of data that a storage device can move from the storage medium to the computer per second.

 

(a) data migration rate    

(b) data digitizing    

(c) data transfer rate

(d) data access rate      

(e) None of these

 

Answer : c

 

5)    RAM can be thought of as the ………… for the computer’s processor

 

(a) factory    

(b) operating room  

(c) waiting room

(d) planning room  

(e) None of these

 

Answer : c

 

6  An area of a computer that temporarily holds data waiting to be processed is ……………..

 

(a) CPU  

(b) Memory        

(c) Storage        

(d) File            

(e) None of these

 

Answer : b

 

7)  Data becomes …………. When it is presented in a format that people can understand and use.

 

(a) processed    

(b) graphs      

(c) information    

(d) presentation    

(e) None of these

 

Answer : c

 

8)  To move a copy of a file from one computer to another over a communication channel is called?

 

(a) File transfer    

(b) File encryption  

(c) Waiting room

(d) File copying

(e) None of these

 

Answer : a

 

9)  The instructions that tell a computer how to carry out processing tasks are referred to as computer ……………….

 

(a) programs    

(b) Processors        

(c) input devices

(d) memory modules    

(e) None of these

 

Answer : a

 

10)  What kind of memory is both static and non-volatile?

 

(a) RAM        

(b) ROM    

(c) BIOS

(d) CACHE        

(e) None of these

 

Answer : b

 

3. Technical Questions

 

1) The relative speed between the magnetic fields of stator and rotor under steady state operation is zero for a

 

(a) dc machine.
(b) 3 phase induction machine.
(c) synchronous machine.
(d) single phase induction machine.

e) All of the above

 

Answer : e

 

2) What are two purposes for segmentation with a bridge?

 

1) To add more broadcast domains.
2) To create more collision domains.
3) To add more bandwidth for users.
4) To allow more broadcasts for users.

 

(a).1 only
(b).2 and 3
(c).2 and 4
(d).4 only

 

Answe r: c

 

3) A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load. Its field current is switched off. The motor will

 

(a) come to stop.
(b) Continue to run at synchronous speed.
(c) Continue to run at a speed slightly more than the synchronous speed.
(d) Continue to run at a speed slightly less than the synchronous speed.

 

Answer : b

 

4) In a stepper motor the angular displacement

 

(a) can be precisely controlled.
(b) It cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller.
(c) The angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled.
(d) It cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines.

 

Answer : a

 

5) In a D.C. machine, the armature MMF is

 

(a) stationary w.r.t. armature.
(b) Rotating w.r.t. field.
(c) Stationary w.r.t. field.
(d) Rotating w.r.t. brushes.

 

Answer : c

 

6) Out of the following methods of heating the one which is independent of supply frequency is

 

(a) electric arc heating
(b) induction heating
(c) electric resistance heating
(d) dielectric heating

 

Answer : c

 

7) When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces

 

(a) damping torque.
(b) eddy current torque.
(c) torque aiding the developed torque.
(d) no torque.

 

Answer : d

 

8) The two windings of a transformer is

 

(a) conductively linked.
(b) Inductively linked.
(c) Not linked at all.
(d) Electrically linked.

 

Answer : b
 

9)  The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because

 

(a) at no load, it will rotate at dangerously high speed. 
(b) it will fail to start.
(c) it will not develop high starting torque. 
(d) all are true.

 

Answer : a

 

10) In a 3 phase induction motor running at slip s the mechanical power developed in terms of air gap power Pg is

 

(a) (s-1)Pg

(b) Pg/1-S

(c) 1-SPg

(d) S.Pg.

 

Answer : c


11) The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is 

 

(a) low at light load only. 
(b) low at heavy load only.
(c) low at light and heavy load both.
(d) low at rated load only. 

 

Answer : a

 

12)  A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading power factors is the 

 

(a) squirrel cage induction motor. 
(b) wound rotor induction motor. 
(c) synchronous motor. 
(d) DC shunt motor.

 

Answer : c 

 

13)  The generation voltage is usually

 

(a) between 11 KV and 33 KV. 
(b) between 132 KV and 400 KV.
(c) between 400 KV and 700 KV. 
(d) None of the above. 

 

Answer : a 

 

14)  If a transformer primary is energised from a square wave voltage source, its output voltage will be 

 

(a) A square wave. 
(b) A sine wave.
(c) A triangular wave. 
(d) A pulse wave.

 

Answer : a

 

15) In a d.c. series motor the electromagnetic torque developed is proportional to 

 

(a)1a

(b)12a-Answer

(c)1/1a

(d)1/12a

 

Answer : b
 

16) A hysteresis motor

 

(a) is not a self-starting motor. 
(b) is a constant speed motor.
(c) needs dc excitation. 
(d) can not be run in reverse speed. 

 

Answer: b

 

 

17) In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at 

 

(a) unity p.f. 
(b) leading p.f. 
(c) lagging p.f. 
(d) zero p.f. leading. 

 

Answer : b

 

18) A two-winding single phase transformer has a voltage regulation of 4.5% at full-load and unity power-factor. At full-load and 0.80 power-factor lagging load the voltage regulation will be 

 

(a) 4.5%. 
(b) less than 4.5%.
(c) more than 4.5%. 
(d) 4.5% or more than 4.5%. 

 

Answer : c

 

19) The primary winding of a 220/6 V, 50 Hz transformer is energised from 110 V, 60 Hz supply. The secondary output voltage will be 

 

(a) 3.6 V. 
(b) 2.5 V.
(c) 3.0 V. 
(d) 6.0 V. 

 

Answer : c

 

20) The size of a conductor used in power cables depends on the 

 

(a) operating voltage. 
(b) power factor.
(c) current to be carried. 
(d) type of insulation used. 

 

Answer : c

 

21) The emf induced in the primary of a transformer 

 

(a) is in phase with the flux. 
(b) lags behind the flux by 90 degree.
(c) leads the flux by 90 degree. 
(d) is in phase opposition to that of flux. 

 

Answer : c

 

22) The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to the external load circuit through 

 

(a) slip rings. 
(b) commutator segments.
(c) solid connections. 
(d) carbon brushes. 

 

Answer : c

 

23) The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor at full load speed is about 

 

(a) 50 Hz. 
(b) 20 Hz.
(c) 2 Hz. 
(d) Zero. 

 

Answer : c 


24) The most suitable servomotor for low power applications is 

 

(a) a dc series motor. 
(b) a dc shunt motor. 
(c) an ac two-phase induction motor. 
(d) an ac series motor. 

 

Ans: b

 

25) Out of the following methods of heating the one which is independent of supply frequency is 

 

(a) electric arc heating
(b) induction heating
(c) electric resistance heating 
(d) dielectric heating 

 

Answer : c 

HP Placement-Paper : 45654
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : EbrahimUpdated Date : Aug 2, 2014

HP Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

HP recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

HP Model Questions

 

This section consist of some aptitude and technical questions generally asked in written test:

 

a) Aptitude Questins with Answers

 

1. Lucia is a wonderful grandmother. Her age is between 50 and 70.Each of her sons have as many sons as they have brothers. Their combined number gives Lucia’s age. What is the age?

 

a) 60

b) 65

c) 64

d) 66

 

Answer: c

Explanation:
Let the no. of Lucia’s sons = n
No. of brothers for each son = n-1
No. of sons for each of Lucia’s son = n-1
Lucia’s age  = n-1 * n-1
    = a perfect square between 50 and 70
    = 64

 

2. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds is:


a) 1 : 3
b) 3 : 2
c) 3 : 4
d) None of these


Answer: b

3. A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the platform?


a) 240 m
b) 120 m
c) 300 m
d) None of these


Answer: a

 

4. A can do a work in 15 days and B in 20 days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then the fraction of the work that is left is:


a) 1/4
b) 1/10
c) 7/15
d) 8/15


Answer: d


5. On selling 17 balls at Rs. 720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball is:


a) Rs. 45
b) Rs. 50
c) Rs. 55
d) Rs. 60


Answer: d

 

6. Grass in lawn grows equally thick and in a uniform rate.It takes 40 days for 40 cows and 60 days for 30 cows to eat the whole of the grass.How many days does it take for 20 cows to do the same?

 

a) 125

b) 110

c) 120

d) 130

 

Answer: c

Explanation:
g - grass at the beginning
r - rate at which grass grows, per day
y - rate at which one cow eats grass, per day
n - no of cows to eat the grass in 96 days
   g + 40*r = 40 * 40 * y------- 1
   g + 60*r = 30 * 60 * y------- 2
   g + n*r = 20 * n * y-------- 3
   from 1 and 2
   r=10y g=120r
   from 3
   nr=120r
   Solving, n = 120


7. When a plot is sold for Rs. 18,700, the owner loses 15%. At what price must that plot be sold in order to gain 15%?


a) Rs. 21,000
b) Rs. 22,500
c) Rs. 25,300
d) Rs. 25,800


Answer: c

 

8. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?


a) 12 days
b) 15 days
c) 16 days
d) 18 days


Answer: 2

 

b) Technical Questions wih Answers

 

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DISTURB, each one has as many letters between its two letters in the word as there are between them in the English alphabet?

 

a) 4
b) 5
c) 3
d) 2
e) None of these

Answer: a


2. What are the types of linkages?


a) Internal and External
b) External, Internal and None
c) External and None
d) Internal


Answer: b


3. Which of the following is not a type of constructor?


a) Copy constructor
b) Friend constructor
c) Default constructor
d) Parameterized constructor


Answer: b

 

4. If C and G interchange their positions, which of the following will indicate A’s position?


a) To the immediate right of G
b) 4th to the right of C
c) 2nd to the left of G
d) to the immediate left of C
e) none of these

Answer: d

 

5. Which of the following statements should be used to obtain a remainder after dividing 3.14 by 2.1?


a) rem = 3.14 % 2.1;
b) rem = modf(3.14, 2.1);
c) rem = fmod(3.14, 2.1);
d) Remainder cannot be obtain in floating point division.


Answer: c

6. main( )
{
unsigned int i=3; freshersworld.com
while( i >=0)
printf( “%d”, i–);
}
how many times will the printf stmt be executed?


a) 0

b)3

c)4

d)infinite

 

Answer: d

7.  Which of the following type of class allows only one object of it to be created?


a) Virtual class
b) Abstract class
c) Singleton class
d) Friend class


Answer: c

 

8. Which of the following stores pictures or graphics?

a) Frame Buffer
b) Sdram
c) Mbr
d) Mar

9. Choose the odd man out

a) IDM
b) SIM
c) GSM
d) GPRS

10. Find the output of the following C program.

Main
{int x,j,k;
J=k=6;x=2;
X=j*k;
Printf(“%d”,x);

 

11. Which of the following is the correct size of a long integer?

a) Compiler dependent
b) 8 bytes
c) 4 bytes
d) 2 bytes

 

12. From the below mentioned option, which is not an IM client?

a) MSN
b) AOL
c) XINGC
d) JABBER

13. How much space does an IP Address occupies?

a) 8 bytes
b) 6 bytes
c) 16 bytes
d) 4 bytes

14. Choose the correct option, which cannot be used across Files?

a) Static
b) Volatile
c) Constant
d) Extern

 

15. Choose the odd man out:

a) TOMCAT
b) JBOSS
c) BLUESTONE
d) WEBSPHERE

 

c) Verbal Aptitude Questions

 

1. Choose the correct antonym of: ADEPT

a) Incompetent
b) Dexterous
c) Whiz
d) Savvy

2. Choose the correct synonym of : EDACITY


a) Aversion 
b) Gluttony
c) Voraciousness
d) Relish

 

3. Choose the correct option which will be compulsory a part of the below given word. 

Language

a) Words
b) Tongue
c) Writing
d) Slang

 

4. Complete the following series

CMM, EOO, GQQ, ? KUU

a) ITT
b) GRR
c) ISS
d) GSS

 

5. Express the following as rate percent.

1. 6 
2. 0.004
3. 23/46

How many times should you role a dice to get the probability of number 4 and 6 being faced on the dices is divided at the same time?

a) 7/18
b) 6/19
c) 2/14
d) 1/15

 

6. How much loss will you incur if you bought a radio for 490 rupees and sold it for 465.50 rupees?

a) -5%
b) 5%
c) .5%
d) 0.5%

 

7. Find the average of 40 natural numbers that come first.

a) 15.5
b) 19.5
c) 19
d) 20.5

 

8. choose the correct option that represents the meaning of the proverb:

To cry wolf

a) To turn pale
b) To listen eagerly
c) To give false alarm
d) To keep off starvation

HAL  Placement-Paper : 45652
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : KajalUpdated Date : Aug 2, 2014

HAL Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

HAL recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

HAL Model Questions 

 

In HAL written test the first section contains Aptitude questions and the next section contains Technical questions. The aptitude consists of multiple choice questions. Here are a few questions asked in the Aptitude section and Technical section of HAL written test:

 

1. Aptitude Questions with Answers

 

1. 35% of 160 +?% of 180 = 50% of 310

 

(a) 35

(b) 55

(c) 65

(d) 45

(e) None of these

 

Answer: b

 

2. A man complete a journey in 10 hours. He travels first half of the journey at the rate of 21 km/hr and second half at the rate of 24 km/hr. Find the total journey in km.


(a) 220 km
(b) 224 km
(c) 230 km
(d) 234 km

 

Answer: b

 

3. √3781 x 5.36 = ?

 

(a) 350

(b) 330

(c) 240

(d) 280

(e) None of these

 

Answer: b 

 

4. Find the wrong number in the sequence 1,2,6,15,31,56,91

 

(a) 15
(b) 6
(c) 56
(d) 91
 

Answer: d

 

5. If (26)2 is subtract from square of a number, the answer so obtained is 549. What is the number ?

 

(a) 35

(b) 33

(c) 29

(d) 41

(e) None of these

 

Answer: a

 

6. A man is facing south. He turns 90o in the clockwise direction and then 135o in the same direction. Which direction is he facing now?

 

(a) North-East
(b) North-West
(c) South-East
(d) South-West

 

Answer: a

 

7. [(4)3 x (5)4 ] ÷ (4)5 = ?

 

(a) 30.0925

(b) 39.0625

(c) 35.6015

(d) 29.0825

(e) None of these

 

Answer: b

 

8. (8.2% 365) – (1.75% of 108) = ?

(a) 16.02 (b) 28.04 (c) 42.34 (d) 53.76 (e) None of these

b

 

 

9. (739% of 383) ÷ 628 ≈ ?

 

(a) 10.00

(b) 4.50

(c) 15.75

(d) 19.25

(e) 24.15

 

Answer: b

 

10. 94.5% of 550 = ?

 

(a) 506.45

(b) 521.65

(c) 518.55

(d) 519.75

(e) None of these

 

Answer: d

 

11.  ………….. is the part of the computer that does the arithmetical calculations.

 

(a) Memory

(b) OS

(c) CPU

(d) ALU

(e) None of these

 

Answer:d

 

12. A rectangular park 60 m long and 40 m wide has two concrete crossroads running in the middle of the park and rest of the park has been used as a lawn. If the area of the lawn is 2109 sq. m, then what is the width of the road?

 

(a) 3 m
(b) 2.91 m
(c) 5.82 m
(d) None of these

 

Answer: a

 

13. The CPU, also called the …………… when talking about Pcs, does the vast majority of the processing for a computer.

 

(a) macroprocessor

(b) RAM

(c) Memory System

(d) microprocessor

(e) None of these

 

Answer:d

 

14. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 37 1/2 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Both pipes are opened. The cistern will be filled in just half an hour, if the B is turned off after:

 

(a) 5 min
(b) 10 min
(c) 9 min
(d) 15 min
 

Answer: c

 

15. A computer’s type, processor, and operating system define its.

 

(a) brand

(b) size

(c) platform

(d) speed

(e) None of these

 

Answer: d

 

16. The part of the Central processing unit (CPU) that accesses and decodes program instructions and coordinates the flow of data among various system components is the

 

(a) ALU

(b) control unit

(c) megahertz

(d) motherboard

(e) None of these

 

Answer: b

 

17. What is the difference between a CD-ROM (Read Only Memory) and a CD-RW?

 

(a) They are the same-just two different terms used by different manufacturers.

(b) A CD-ROM can be written to and a CD-RW cannot

(c) A CD-RW can be written to, but a CD-ROM can only be read from

(d) A CD-ROM holds more information than a CD-RW.

(e) None of these

 

Answer: c

 

18. When a product is sold at certain price, it gives 20% gain. What is the gain when it is sold at thrice the price ?

 

(a) 250
(b) 260
(c) 270
(d) 280
 

Answer: b

 

19. Find the next number in the sequence 1,2,4,7,11,___

 

(a) 15
(b) 18
(c) 16
(d) 12
 

Answer: c

 

20. A disk’s content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is-

 

(a) memory-only

(b) write-only

(c) read-only

(d) run-only

(e) None of these

 

Answer: c

 

21.The sum of two digit number and its reverse number is 99. How many such numbers are possible ?

 

(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 16
(d) 100
 

Answer: b

 

22. What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it  a perfect square ?

 

(a) 118

(b) 95

(c) 110

(d) 100

(e) None of these

Answer: c

 

23. 137% of 12345≈ ?

 

(a) 17000

(b) 15000

(c) 1500

(d) 14300

(e) 900

 

Answer: a

 

24. The average weight of two groups consisting of 70 and 30 members are 70 and 30 respectively. What is the total average weight ?

 

(a) 61
(b) 58
(c) 49
(d) 52
 

Answer: b

 

2. Technical questions

 

a) Electronics and Electrical questions


The HAL Electronics and Electrical written test is an online test, in which objective type of questions are asked with a time limit of mostly 2 ½ hours.Here are a few questions asked in the Electronics and Electrical section of HAL written test:

 

1. The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine is

 

(a) to reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
(b) to spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux density
(c) to support the field coil
(d) to discharge all the above functions

2. In the case of lap winding resultant pitch is

 

(a) multiplication of front and back pitches
(b) division of front pitch by back pitch
(c) sum of front and back pitches
(d) difference of front and back pitches

3. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be

 

(a) imperfect contact
(b) rough commutator surface
(c) severe sparking 
(d) any of the above

4. In lap winding, how many numbers of brushes are used always?

 

(a) two
(b) same as the number of poles
(c) half the number of poles
(d) double the number of poles

5. What are Laminations of core are made of generally?
(a) carbon 
(b) silicon steel
(c) cast iron
(d) stainless steel

 

6. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of armature conductors is fixed, then which winding will give the higher e.m.f.?

 

(a) Wave winding 
(b) Lap winding
(c) Either of (a) and (b) above
(d) Depends on other features of design

7. Which of the following could be lamina-proximately the thickness of laminations of a D.C. machine?

 

(a) 5 m
(b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 0.005 mm

 

8. Why are Copper brushes in D.C. machine used?

 

(a) where low voltage and high currents are involved
(b) where high voltage and small cur-rents are involved
(c) in both of the above cases
(d) in none of the above cases

9. How is a separately excited generator as compared to a self-excited generator better?

 

(a) is amenable to better voltage control
(b) is more stable
(c) has exciting current independent of load current
(d) has all above features

10. Why is the armature of D.C. generator laminated?

 

(a) provide the bulk
(b) reduce the bulk
(c) insulate the core
(d) reduce eddy current loss

11. On what does the resistance of armature winding depends?

 

(a) cross-sectional area of the conductor 
(b) length of conductor
(c) number of conductors
(d) all of the above

12. What are the field coils of D.C. generator usually made of?

 

(a) Copper
(b) Mica
(c) Cast iron 
(d) Carbon

13. The commutator segments are connected to the armature conductors by means of

 

(a) resistance wires
(b) copper lugs 
(c) insulation pads
(d) brazing

14.In a commutator, what is harder

 

(a) copper is harder than mica
(b) mica and copper are equally hard
(c) mica is harder than copper
(d) none of the above

15. In D.C. generators how are the pole shoes are fastened to the pole core by

 

(a) brazing 
(b) counter sunk screws
(c) rivets
(d) welding

16. According to Fleming's right-hand rule for finding the direction of induced e.m.f., when middle finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction of

 

(a) lines of force
(b) motion of conductor
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above

 

17. What is the material used in commutator brushes?

 

(a) carbon 
(b) copper
(c) cast iron 
(d) Mica

18. What is the insulating material used between the commutator segment is?

 

(a) Graphite 
(b) mica
(c) paper 
(d) insulating varnish

19. What does the Fleming's right-hand rule regarding direction of induced e.m.f correlates to

 

(a) magnetic field strength, induced voltage and current
(b) magnetic flux, direction of motion and the direction of e.m.f. induced
(c) magnetic flux, direction of current flow and resultant force
(d) magnetic flux, direction of force and direction of motion of conductor

20. While applying Fleming's right-hand rule to And the direction of induced e.m.f., the thumb points towards

 

(a) direction of induced e.m.f.
(b) direction of flux
(c) direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger points in the direction of generated e.m.f.
(d) direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points along the lines of flux

21. In a four-pole D.C. machine

 

(a) all the four poles are north poles
(b) alternate poles are north and south
(c) two north poles follow two south poles
(d) all the four poles are south poles

22. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are primary function of

 

(a) speed 
(b) voltage
(c) current
(d) friction

23. What are the Brushes of D.C. machines made of?

 

(a) soft copper
(b) carbon
(c) hard copper 
(d) all of above

24. If B is the flux density, I the length of conductor and v the velocity of conductor, then induced e.m.f. is given by

 

(a)Bl2v 
(b)Blv2
(c)Blv 
(d)Bl2v2

25. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap winding with sixteen coils, the pole pitch will be

 

(a) 8 
(b) 4
(c) 32
(d) 16

26. In D.C. generators, the brushes on commutator remain in contact with conductors which

 

(a) lie under south pole
(b) lie under north pole
(c) are farthest from the poles
(d) lie under interpolar region

27. Which of the following statement about D.C. generators is false ?

 

(a) Compensating winding in a D.C. machine helps in commutation
(b) In a D. C. generator interpoles winding is connected in series with the armature winding
(c) Back pitch and front pitch are both odd and approximately equal to the pole pitch
(d) Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel running of D.C. shunt generators

 

28. In a D.C. generator, how are the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated reduced by?

 

(a) using conductor of annealed copper
(b) using commutator with large number of segments
(c) using carbon brushes of superior quality
(d) using equiliser rings

29. Magnetic field in a D.C. generator is produced by

 

(a) electromagnets
(b) permanent magnets
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

30. On what does the number of brushes in a commutator depends on?

 

(a) speed of armature
(b) voltage 
(c) type of winding 
(d) amount of current to be collected

 

b) Current Affairs Question
 

Here are a few questions asked in the HAL written test of current affairs:

1. Who was the Miss World 2013?

 

(a) Megan Young 

(b) Marine Lorphelin
(c) Naa Okailey
(d) Laura Jane Corker

 

2. Who had discovered oxygen?


(a) Carl Scheele and Joseph Priestley
(b) Carl Scheele and Charles Babbage
(c) Charles Babbage

(d) Benjamin Franklin


3. How many Major Mountain Ranges in India?


(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 5
(d) 9

4. Which automobile company became first automaker to participate in Greenhouse Gas Reporting Programme in India on 23 July 2013?


(a) Ford Motor Company
(b) General Motors
(c) Maruti Suzuki
(d) Mahindra and Mahindra Limited

 

5. When was battle of Plessey fought? 


(a) 1757
(b) 1751

(c) 1752
(d) 1758

6. What does Ophidiophobia means?

 

(a) Fear of Height
(b) Fear of water
(c) Fear of snakes
(d) Fear of darkness

7. Which country won the first Fifa world cup?


(a) Spain 
(b) Germany 
(c) France

(d) England

8. Who has written the autobiography "my life".

 

(a) Bill Clinton

(b) Queen Elizabeth
(c) Prince Charles

(d) Barack Obama

 

9. Who is the Winner of Saraswati Samman Award 2013?

 

(a) Sugathakumari

(b) Rani Jaisingh
(c) Palashi Yuddha
(d) Rani Sugatha

10. According to the recent satellite images, deforestation has dropped down by around one-third since 2000 in which rainforests of Africa?

 

(a) Congo Basin

(b) Zaire Basin
(c) Amazon Rainforest

(d) Tropical Region

11. INSAT-3D was launched successfully by the European rocket from the spaceport of Kourou in French Guiana on 26 July 2013. What is the purpose of INSAT-3D?

 

(a) To provide technological experience in building and operating a satellite system
(b) To provide experience in building and operating a payload experiment three-axis stabilised communication satellite
(c) For multipurpose communication: business communication, developmental communication, and mobile communication
(d) Meteorological Satellite with advanced weather monitoring payloads

12. In Olympics when did India won first ever gold medal?

 

(a) 1920
(b) 1900

(c) 1925
(d) 1921

13. The Supreme Court of India on 24 July 2013 slapped contempt notices on two Sahara firms for not complying with its order of refunding around 19000 crore rupees to investors. Which body filed the contempt petition against Sahara firms?

 

(a) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Aulthority (PFRDA)
(b) The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA)
(d) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(e) Forward Markets Commission (FMC)

14. What is the technical name of Northern Lights?

 

(a) Aurora borealis

(b) Geometric Storm
(c) Solar Wind
(d) Substorm

 

15. What are Uber Cup, sudiman Cup tournaments are related to?

 

(a) Cricket
(b) Badminton.
(c) Hockey
(d) Football

16. Tallinn is a capital city of.
(a) Romania
(b) Estonia

(c) Gaza
(d) Lithuania


17. Zend Avesta is a holy book of which religion?

 

(a) Buddhism 
(b) Scientology 
(c) Zoroastrianism 
(d) Jainism

18. Who is the painter of the Famous painting "sun flower" ?


(a) Edgar Degas
(b) Vincent van Gogh
(c) Edward Munch
(d) Frida Kahlo

 

19. The President of India, Pranab Mukherjee inaugurated the first?

 

(a) First Engineers Conclave-2013 on 17 September 2013
(b) First Engineers Conclave-2013 on 17 October 2013
(c) First Engineers Conclave-2013 on 17 December 2013
(d) First Engineers Conclave-2013 on 17 March 2013


20. Which of these are associated with cricket stadium or ground?
(a) Pavilion end
(b) Nursery end
(c) St. Johns Road

(d) End Road
 

c) Chemical Engineering Questions


Here are few questions asked in the HAL written test of Chemical Engineering section. 

 

1. How is Bleaching of paper pulp done?


(a) bromine
(b) activated clay
(c) chlorine or chlorine dioxide 
(d) magnesium sulphite


2. Why is Plasticisers added to paints?


(a) make it corrosion resistant.
(b) give elasticity & prevent cracking of the film. 
(c) increase atmospheric oxidation.
(d) make glossy surface

3. What is the function of thinner in paint?


(a) accelerate the oxidation of oil.
(b) prevent gelling of the paint. 
(c) from a protective film.
(d) suspend pigments & dissolve film forming materials.

 

4. From the following which is a high grade pulp?


(a) Sulphate pulp
(b) Mechanical pulp
(c) Rag pulp 
(d) Sulphite pulp

5. Why are enamels used?


(a) are same as varnish. 
(b) give good glossy finish.
(c) are prepared from non-drying oil.
(d) do not contain pigment.


6. What does Bond crushing law states?


(a) calls for relatively less energy for the smaller product particles, than does the Rittinger law. 
(b) is less realistic in estimating the power requirements of commercial crushers.
(c) state that the work required to form particle of any size from very large feed is proportional to the square root of the volume to surface ratio of the product.
(d) states that the work required for the crushing is proportional to the new surface created.


7. What varnish does not contain?


(a) anti-skimming agent. 
(b) thinner
(c) dryer
(d) pigment

8. Which of the following is the starting material for the production of Molasses?


(a) massecuite 
(b) essential oil
(c) fatty acids
(d) Alcohol

9. What is the Shape factor for a cylinder whose length equals its diameter?


(a) 1.0
(b) 0.5
(c) 1.5
(d) 2.0

10. What is the ratio of the actual mesh dimension of Taylor series to that of the next smaller screen?


(a) 1
(b) v2 
(c) 1.5
(d) 3

11. What is the opening of a 200 mesh screen Taylor series?


(a) 0.0047 cm 
(b) 0.0074 mm
(c) 0.0074 cm 
(d) 74 mili-microns

12. What is the ratio of the area of openings in one screen to that of the openings in the next smaller screen?


(a) 1.5
(b) 1
(c) 1.7
(d) none of these 

 

13. What is the enzyme which converts starch into the disaccharides maltose?


(a) yeast 
(b) maltase
(c) diastase
(d) none of these

14. The equivalent diameter of a particle is the diameter of the sphere having the same


(a) ratio of surface to volume as the actual volume. 
(b) ratio of volume to surface as the particle.
(c) volume as the particle.
(d) none of these

15. What is used for the coarse reduction of hard solids?


(a) compression 
(b) attrition
(c) impact 
(d) cutting

16. What is made of Soft & non-abrasive materials into fines?


(a) attrition 
(b) compression
(c) cutting
(d) none of these

 

17. What is Cooking liquor in case of sulphite process?


(a) sodium sulphite and sodium bisulphite. 
(b) magnesium sulphite and free SO2 in acid medium.
(c) magnesium sulphate and magnessium bicarbonate.
(d) none of these


18. What is the ratio of Crushing efficiency?


(a) surface energy created by crushing to the energy absorbed by the solid.
(b) energy absorbed by the solid to that fed to the machine.
(c) energy created by crushing.
(d) energy absorbed by the solid to the surface energy created by crushing.

19. What does the Rittinger's crushing law states?


(a) work required to form a particle of any size is proportional to the square of the surface to volume ratio of the product.
(b) work required to form a particle of a particular size is proportional to the square root of the surface to volume ratio of the product.
(c) work required in crushing is proportional to the new surface created. 
(d) for a given machine and feed, crushing efficiency is dependent on the size of the feed & product.

 

20. Why is SO2 bubbled through hot sugar cane juice?


(a) increase the crystal size. 
(b) increase its concentration.
(c) increase the amount of molasses. 
(d) act as an acidifying agent.


21. How does work index defined?


(a) gross energy (k Wh/ton of feed) needed to reduce very large feed to such a size that 80% of the product passes through a 100 micron screen. 
(b) energy needed to crush one tonne of feed to 200 microns.
(c) energy (k Wh/ton of feed) needed to crush small feed to such a size that 80% of the product passes a 200 mesh screen.
(d) energy needed to crush one ton of feed to 100 microns.

 

22. Which oil is preferred for manufacturing paint?


(a) Saturated oil 
(b) Non-drying oil
(c) Semi-drying oil
(d) Drying oil

23. What is a fluid energy mill used for?


(a) cutting
(b) grinding
(c) ultragrinding 
(d) crushing

 

24. The Cumulative analysis for determining surface is more precise than differential analysis, because of the


(a) assumption that all particles in a single fraction are equal in size.
(b) fact that screening is more effective.
(c) assumption that all particles in a single fraction are equal in size.
(d) assumption that all particles in a single fraction are equal in size, is not needed.

25. The ideal pulp for the manufacture of paper should have high content of which material?
(a) ellulose 
(b) lignin
(c) Lignin and ellulose
(d) none of these

26. Comparing sulphate process with sulphite process, what do we find in the later.


(a) both temperature & pressure in the former is less than that
(b) both temperature & pressure in the former is more than that 
(c) temperature is more in the former whereas pressure is more
(d) pressure is more in the former whereas temperature is less

 

27. What does Wet grinding in a revolving mill do as compared to dry grinding?


(a) gives less wear on chamber walls
(b) requires more energy
(c) increases capacity 
(d) decreses handling of the product

 

28. The operating speed of a ball mill should be ......... the critical speed.


(a) much more than 
(b) less than
(c) at least equal to
(d) slightly more than


29. During manufacturing which of the following paper does not require filler?


(a) Blotting paper
(b) Writing paper
(c) Bond paper 
(d) Coloured paper

 

30. White cooking liquor consists of caustic soda, in Kraft process of paper manufacture


(a) sodium sulphide & sodium carbonate. 
(b) sodium sulphite & sodium carbonate.
(c) sodium sulphite & sodium sulphide.
(d) All of the three

 

d) Computer Science Questions


Here are few questions asked in the HAL written test of Computer Science Engineering section. 

1. Which is the most significant difference between a simple desk calculator and computer? Choose from the following (note that some of the following may not even be true). 


(a) One has to know the method of calculation while using a calculator but a computer user can depend upon the computer to choose the method automatically. 
(b) the computer is useful in business applications while the desk calculator is not 
(c) the computer can print its results, while the desk calculator can only show it on a display 
(d) the computer is controlled by a program stored in its memory while calculator require step-by-step manual control 

2. Why is RAM used as a short memory?


(a) is volatile 
(b) is very expensive 
(c) has small capacity 
(d) None of the above

3. A computer derives its basic strength from 


(a) speed 
(b) accuracy
(c) memory 
(d) all of the above 

4. A term associated with the comparison of processing speeds of different computer systems is : 


(a) MIPS
(b) MPG 
(c) EFTS 
(d) CPS

5. The use of computer for business applications is attractive because of its 


(a) accuracy 
(b) reliability 
(c) speed 
(d) All of the above 

 

6. Modern computers compared to earlier computers are 


(a) faster and smaller
(b) less reliable 
(c) larger and stronger 
(d) slower but more reliable


7. A computer is capable of performing almost any task, provided that it can be 


(a) reduced to a series of logical steps
(b) memorized 
(c) analyzed 
(d) coded

 

8. Pick up the false statement 


(a) the space in the primary storage section is divided into four areas: input, working, storage, output and program storage.
(b) computer errors can usually be traced to faulty programs or inaccurate input data 
(c) the facts or informational raw materials represented by numeric and non-numeric symbols are called information 
(d) computer can manipulate both numeric and non-numeric symbols

9. A computer has very high speed, accuracy and reliability. Its intelligence quotient could be of the order of 


(a) 0
(b) 01 
(c) 50
(d) 200

10. A Computer can not do anything without?


(a) program 
(b) memory
(c) output device 
(d) chip

11. How does a computer possess information? 


(a) as directed by the operator 
(b) gradually
(c) at once 
(d) automatically

12. What does the processors of all computers, whether micro, mini or mainframe has?


(a) Control Unit 
(b) primary storage 
(c) ALU
(d) all of the above 

13. What is a correct statement about computers 


(a) Computers have the built-in ability to obey different types of instructions. 
(b) all comparisons are made in the control section 
(c) the arithmetic-logic section of the CPU selects, interprets and executes the program steps. 
(d) the secondary storage devices are usually connected on line to the CPU but for accepting data from them or returning data to them, human intervention is required 

14. Real time computing is possible because of the following characteristic of computer 


(a) storage capability 
(b) high speed 
(c) automatic in execution
(d) versatility 

15. What is not true about modern computer systems 


(a) these are simple and easy to take care of 
(b) even beginners, untrained persons can safely handle them 
(c) they require a highly disciplined approach 
(d) the negligent use of a computer system will almost always introduce time bombs into the system. 

 

17. What is false about microcomputers, mini-computers, etc.? 


(a) most micros use rigid disk storage devices rather than floppy disk drives
(b) a minicomputer can have more processing capability than a mainframe model 
(c) a microcomputer chip performs the arithmetic-logic and control functions of a microcomputer 
(d) ROM chips may be used in micros; to permanently store program instruction 

18. What does a collection of eight bits called? 


(a) byte 
(b) word 
(c) record 
(d) file 

19. What does a group of instructions that directs a computer called ?


(a) storage 
(b) memory 
(c) logic 
(d) None of the above

 

20. What does BIT represents? 


(a) binary digit 
(b) octal digit 
(c) decimal digit 
(d) hexa decimal digit 

21. Which of the following does not describe one or more characteristics of a computer?


(a) electronic 
(b) external storage 
(c) program modification at execution
(d) All of the above are characteristics. 

22. What is the general purpose of computers that can be adapted to countless uses simply by changing its? 


(a) keyboard 
(b) program 
(c) printer 
(d) None of the above

23. Which is the computer memory that does not forget?


(a) RAM 
(b) ROM
(c) PROM 
(d) None of the above 

24. Why is the Santa Clara Valley near Palo Alto, California popularly known as Silicon Valley of America?


(a) huge deposits of silicon are found there 
(b) many silicon chip manufacturing firms are located there 
(c) it is full of large grain sand
(d) Santa Claus visits it every Christmas

25. Computers are incapable of emotional feelings. However, some people attribute humanlike emotions to imitate objects including computers. What is it called?


(a) anthropogenesis 
(b) anthropomorphism 
(c) anthroolatory 
(d) cybernetics 

26. The most common binary code in use today is the 8 bit ASCII code. What do the letters ASCII stand for?


(a) American Scientific Code for Information Interchange 
(b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange 
(c) American Standard Code for Intelligence interchange 
(d) None of the 

 

27. In order to trace the incorrect input data or unreliable programs this of the following acronym recognizes the fact that “computer errors?" 


(a) IGO 
(b) ROM
(c) LIFO
(d) DASD

28. What is the Control Unit of a digital computer called? 
(a) Lock 
(b) Nerve centre 
(c) ICs 
(d) None of the above 

 

TechMahindra Placement-Paper : 45569
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TechMahindra Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

TechMahindra recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

Tech Mahindra- Test Pattern with Questions and Answers

 

Latest paper pattern of Tech Mahindra is given below:

 

Total Time : -1 hr.

Section A   : General English (35 questions)

Section B   : Number and Diagram series (20 questions Series )

Section C   : Quantitative Aptitude (20 questions) 

 

Note:There is no strict time limit on each section. You can start from any section.

         Remember there is 1:1 negative marking

 

Each section was divided into 6 sections and they can be completed in 10 minutes.

 

Section 1: Quantitative Maths: 

  1. Age problem
  2. Time & Speed
  3. Simple Trigonometry
  4. Algebra
  5. Mensuration
  6. Time & work
  7. Profit & loss
  8. Percentage.

Section 2: Logical Reasoning 

  1. Series
  2. Coding
  3. Blood relations
  4. Analogy

Section 3: 

  1. English Usage & verbal logic Para jumbles
  2. Antonym-synonyms
  3. Analogy section.
  4. Section 4: 
  5. Data Interpretation 

Section 5: 

  1. Reading Comprehension

Section 6: 

  1. Logic there were 2 flowcharts and some questions based on them.

Questions And Answers

 

Section A: English

 

1. In the question below the sentences have been given in Direct/Indirect speech. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

She said to her friend, "I know where is everyone"


A. She told that she knew where was everyone.
B. She told her friend that she knew where was everyone.
C. She told her friend that she knew where is everyone.
D. She told her friend that she knows where was everyon

Answer: B

 

Questions (-10) complete the sentence with appropriate words 

 

2. “You can have _ the chicken dish __ the fish dish for dinner tonight.”

 

A. as, as
B. whether, or
C. either, or

D. Nne of these

Answer: C

 

3._ my aunt _ my uncle live in India.

 

A. Either, nor
B.Both, and
C. Whether, or

D. None of these
Answer: B 

 

4. Choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.

Medical study of skin and its diseases


A. Dermatology 
B. Endocrinology
C. Gynealogy 
D. Orthopaedics

Answer: A

 

5. In the question given below a part of the sentence is italicised and underlined. Below are given alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. 

Will you kindly open the knot?


A. untie 
B. break
C. loose 
D. No improvement
Answer: A

 

Select the most closely related the capital word

 

6. FULSOME:

 

A. Excessive
B. Trival
C. Thorough
D. Eager
Answer: A

 

 

Rearrange the following five sentences in proper sequence so as to for a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.
1.But, we all helped in the first few days.
2.Chandrapur is considered as a rural area.
3.Manohar was transferred to his office recently.
4.Initially he was not getting adjusted to the city life.
5.Now, Manohar is very proud of his colleagues.

6. Before that he was working in chandrapur branch of our office.

 

7. Which of the following should be the third sentence ?

 

A. 5 
B. 6
C. 1 
D. 2
E. 3
Answer: D

 

8. Which of the following should be the second sentence ?

 

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4 
D. 5
E. 6
Answer: E

 

9. The young boy was not wearing ___________ cloths

 

A. a
B. any
C. nothing

D. None of these
Answer: C

 

10. GABBLE:


A. To bring to together
B. Add a proof
C. Take rapidly
D. Jump and skip about
Answer:C

 

Section B : Quantitative Aptitude

 

11. Which of the following integers has most number of divisors?

 

1) 176
2) 182
3) 99
4) 101

 

Answer: 2

Explanation: 176 = 2,4,8,11,16,22,44,88
182 = 2,7,13,14,26,91

 99 = 3, 9, 11, 33
101= 101

 

12. A man goes from city A to city B situated 60 kms apart by a boat. His onward journey was with the stream while the return journey was an upstream journey. It took him four and half hours to complete the round trip. If the speed of the stream is 10 km/hr, how long did it take him to complete the onward journey?

 

1) 3 hours
2) 3.5 hours
3) 2.25 hours
4) 1.5 hours
Answer: 4

 

13. If the wheel of a bicycle makes 560 revolutions in travelling 1.1 km, what is its radius?

 

1) 31.25 cm
2) 37.75 cm
3) 35.15 cm
4) 11.25 cm
Answer :1

 

14. A man driving his bike at 24 kmph reaches his office 5 minutes late. Had he driven 25% faster on an average he would have reached 4 minutes earlier than the scheduled time. How far is his office?

 

1) 24 km
2) 72 km
3) 18 km
4) Data Insufficient
Answer: 3

 

15. Train A traveling at 60 km/hr leaves Mumbai for Delhi at 6 P.M. Train B traveling at 90 km/hr also
leaves Mumbai for Delhi at 9 P.M. Train C leaves Delhi for Mumbai at 9 P.M. If all three trains meet at
the same time between Mumbai and Delhi, what is the speed of Train C if the distance between Delhi
and Mumbai is 1260 kms?

 

1) 60 km/hr
2) 90 km/hr
3) 120 km/hr
4) 135 km/hr
Answer: 3

 

16. When an object is dropped, the number of feet N that it falls is given by the formula N = ½gt2 wheret is the time in seconds from the time it was dropped and g is 32.2. If it takes 5 seconds for the object to reach the ground, how many feet does it fall during the last 2 seconds?

 

1) 64.4
2) 96.6
3) 161.0
4) 257.6
Answer: 4

 

17. The sum of any seven consecutive numbers is divisible by

 

1) 2
2) 7
3) 3
4) 11
Answer: 2

 

18. A certain number of bullets were shared by 3 people equally.Each of them fired 4 bullets and the sum of the remaining bullets was equal to the initial share each had got.what was the initial number of
bullets?

 

1)20
2)18
3)16
4)14
Answer: 2

 

19. A person was fined for exceeding the speed limit by 10mph. Another person was also fined for
exceeding the same speed limit by twice the same. If the second person was traveling at a speed of 35 mph, find the speed limit.


1) 20 mph
2) 15 mph
3) 18 mph

4) 22 mph
Answers: 1

 

20. If a car starts from A towards B with some velocity due to some problem in the engine after travelling30km.If the car goes with 4/5 th of its actuval velocity the car reaches B 45min later to the actual time. Ifthe car engine fails ofter travelling 45km, the car reaches the destination B 36min late to the actual time, what is the initial velocity of car and what is the distance between A and B in km

 

1) 40 & 100
2) 10 & 150
3) 20 & 130
4) 50
Answer: 3

 

21. If the operation,^ is defined by the equation x ^ y = 2x + y,what is the value of a
in 2 ^ a = a ^ 3

 

1) 0
2) 1
3) -1
4) 4
Answer: 2

 

22. If 9x-3y=12 and 3x-5y=7 then 6x-2y = ?

 

1) -5
2) 4
3) 2
4) 8
Answer: 4

 

23. If a and b are positive integers and (a-b)/3.5 = 4/7, then

 

1) b < a
2) b > a
3) b = a
4) b >= a
Answer: 1

 

24. A coffee shop blends 2 kinds of coffee,putting in 2 parts of a 33p. a gm. grade to 1
part of a 24p. a gm.If the mixture is changed to 1 part of the 33p. a gm. to 2 parts of
the less expensive grade,how much will the shop save in blending 100 gms.

 

1) Rs.90
2) Rs.1.00
3) Rs.3.00
4) Rs.8.00
Answer: 3

 

25) Two third of three fifth of one fourth of a number is 24. What is 40% of that number?


1) 96
2) 72
3) 120
4) 156
Answer: 1

Explanation let the number be x, then

X of 2/3 of 3/5 of ¼ = 24
X * 2/3 * 3/5 * ¼ = 24, x = 240.
Hence 40% of 240 = 40/100 * 240 = 96

 

26. There are 200 questions on a 3 hr examination. Among these questions are 50
Mathematics problems. It is suggested that twice as much time be spent on each
maths problem as for each other question. How many minutes should be spent on
Mathematics problems

 

1) 36
2) 72
3) 60
4) 100
Answer: 2

 

27. .If 13 = 13w/(1-w), then (2w) 2 =

 

1) 1/4
2) 1/2
3) 1
4) 2
Answer: 3

 

28. M men agree to purchase a gift for Rs. D. If three men drop out how much more
Will each have to contribute towards the purchase of the gift

 

1) D/(M-3)
2) MD/3
3) M/(D-3)
4) 3D/(M2-3M)
Answer: 4

 

29. 2 hours after a freight train leaves Delhi a passenger train leaves the same station
traveling in the same direction at an average speed of 16 km/hr. After traveling 4 hrs
the passenger train overtakes the freight train. The average speed of the freight train
Was?

 

1) 30
2) 40
3) 58
4) 60
Answer: 2

 

30.Divide 45 into four parts such that when 2 is added to the first part, 2 is subtracted from the second part, 2 is multiplied by the third part and the fourth part is divided by two, all result in the same number.

 

1) 8, 12, 5, 20
2)6,10,15,11
3)2,8,14,9
4)none of these
Answer: 3

 

SAIL Placement-Paper : 45541
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SAIL Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

SAIL recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

SAIL Management Trainee Electronics Model Questions And Answers

 

This paper contains generally asked questions in three different sections such as:

  1. Aptitude
  2. Technical
  3. General Knowledge

a) Aptitude Questions:

 

1. Jagan went to another town covering 240 km by car moving at 60 kmph. Then he covered 400km by train moving at 100 kmph and then rest 200 km he covered by a bus moving at 50 kmph. The average speed during the whole journey was:

  1. 80 kmph 
  2. 70 kmph
  3. 75 kmph 
  4. 72 kmph

Answer: 1

 

2. A shopkeeper buys 144 eggs at 90 paise each. In the way 20 eggs were broken. He sold the remaining eggs at Rs. 1.20 each. The percentage gain or loss is

  1. 14.8% gain 
  2. 12.9% gain
  3. 8.5% gain 
  4. 4.8% gain

Answer: 2

 

3. Perimeter of the back wheel = 9 feet, front wheel = 7 feet on a certain distance, the front wheel gets 10 revolutions more than the back wheel .What is the distance?

  1. 123
  2. 315
  3. 310
  4. 320

Answer : 2

 

4. A shop gives 10% discount on the purchase of an item. If paid for in cash immediately, a further discount of 12% is given. If the original price of the item is Rs. 250, what is the price of the article if a cash purchase is made?

  1. Rs. 200 
  2. Rs. 195
  3. Rs. 198 
  4. Rs. 190

Answer:3

 

5. Perimeter of front wheel =30, back wheel = 20. If front wheel revolves 240 times. How many revolutions will the back wheel take?

  1. 350
  2. 320
  3. 310
  4. 360

Answer: 4 

 

6. 20% of a 6 litre solution and 60% of 4 litre solution are mixed. What percentage of the mixture of solution

  1. 3%
  2. 36%
  3. 20%
  4. 15%

Answer: 2

 

7. City A's population is 68000, decreasing at a rate of 80 people per year. City B having population 42000 is increasing at a rate of 120 people per year. In how many years both the cities will have same population?

  1. 140
  2. 150
  3. 130
  4. 160

Answer: 3

 

8. A pipe of 2 inch diameter fills the water tank in one hour. If the diameter of the pipe is 4 inch in what time will the pipe fill the same tank?

  1. 10 minutes 
  2. 15 minutes 
  3. 30 minutes 
  4. 45 minutes

Answer: 2

 

9.Two cars are 15 kms apart. One is turning at a speed of 50kmph and the other at 40kmph . How much time will it take for the two cars to meet?

  1. 1/2
  2. 2/3
  3. 3
  4. 3/2

Answer: 4

 

10. A person wants to buy 3 paise and 5 paise stamps costing exactly one rupee. If he buys which of the following number of stamps he won't able to buy 3 paise stamps.

  1. 6
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 4

Answer: 2

 

11. A horse is tied at the corner of a rectangular field, whose length is 20m and width is 16m with a rope whose length is 14m. Find the area which the horse can graze?

  1. 156 sq.m. 
  2. 154 sq.m.
  3. 164 sq.m. 
  4. 144 sq.m.

Answer:2

 

12. There are 12 boys and 15 girls, How many different dancing groups can be formed with 2 boys and 3 girls.

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 5

Answer :3

 

13. Which of the following fractions is less than 1/3

  1. 22/62
  2. 15/46
  3. 2/3
  4. 1

Answer: 2

 

14. There are two circles, one circle is inscribed and another circle is circumscribed over a square. What is the ratio of area of inner to outer circle?

  1. 2:1
  2. 1:3
  3. 1:2
  4. 1:4

Answer: 3

 

15. Three types of tea the a,b,c costs Rs. 95/kg,100/kg and70/kg respectively. How many kgs of each should be blended to produce 100 kg of mixture worth Rs.90/kg, given that the quntities of band c are equal 

  1. 70,15,15
  2. 50,25,25
  3. 60,20,20
  4. 40,30,30

Answer: 2

 

16. The area of a triangle is equal to the area of a square whose each side is 60 metres. The height of the triangle is 90 metres. The base of the triangle will be

  1. 75 m 
  2. 85 m
  3. 65 m 
  4. 80 m

Answer: 4

 

17. Sam and Rita was sitting in a park in the evening looking at the sunset to the horizon. What is the direction of their right hand side?

  1. East 
  2. West
  3. North 
  4. South

Answer: 2

 

18. It takes 40 men eight days to earn Rs. 2000.How many men will earn Rs.200 in two days?

  1. 10 
  2. 14
  3. 16 
  4. 20

Answer: 3

 

19. Ten men can finish construction of a wall in eight days. How much men are needed to finish the work in half-a-day?

  1. 80 
  2. 100
  3. 120 
  4. 160

Answer: 4

 

20. It was Wednesday on July 15, 1964. What was the day on July 15, 1965?

  1. Thursday 
  2. Tuesday
  3. Friday 
  4. None of these

Answer: 1

 

b) Technical Questions:

 

1. Two coils in differential connection have self-inductance of 2 mH and 4 mH and a mutual inductance of 0.15 mH. The equivalent inductance of the combination is

  1. 5.7 mH
  2. 5.85 mH
  3. 6 mH
  4. 6.15 mH.

Answer: 1

 

2. Opto-couplers combine

  1. SITs and BJTs
  2. IGBTs and MOSFETS
  3. Power transformers and silicon transistor
  4. Infrared light-emitting diode and a silicon photo transistor

Answer: 4

 

 

3. In TV system, vertical pulses are separated out from horizontal pulses by the use of

  1. integrator
  2. differentiator
  3. sweep credit
  4. sync separator

Answer: 4

 

4. Two point charges Q and -Q are located on two opposite corners of a square as shown in figure. If the potential at the corner A is taken as 1V, then the potential at B, the center of the square will be

  1. Zero
  2. (1/2)^1/2V
  3. 1 V
  4. (2)^1/2V

Answer: 3

 

5. Frequency in the UHF range propagate by means of

  1. Ground waves
  2. Sky waves
  3. Surface waves
  4. Space waves.

 

Answer: 4

 

6. The efficiency of a chopper can be expected in the range

  1. 50 to 55 percent
  2. 65 to 72 percent
  3. 82 to 87 percent
  4. 92 to 99 percent

Answer: 4

 

7. The function of diplexer bridge in a TV transmitter is

  1. to prevent the loading of several transmitters by video transmitter
  2. to increase the bandwidth
  3. to increase the power output
  4. to increase the efficiency of transmission.

Answer: 1

 

8. Pure metals generally have

  1. high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
  2. high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
  3. low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
  4. low conductivity and high temperature coefficient

 

Answer:4

 

9. The number of LED displays in duration in logic probe are?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 1 or 2

Answer: 2

 

10. Which of these are two state device?

  1. Lamp
  2. magnetic tap
  3. punched card
  4. All the above

Answer: 4

 

11. A current transducer respond to?

  1. steady current only
  2. pulsating current only
  3. both pulasting and steady
  4. none of these

Answer: 2

 

12. Logic analyser is?

  1. a multi channel oscilloscope
  2. similar to logic pulser
  3. similar to current tracer
  4. none of above

Answer: 1

 

13. The output impenitence of a logic pulser is?

  1. Low
  2. High
  3. May be low or high
  4. Can't say

Answer: 1

 

14. Current I0 in the given circuit will be

  1. 10 A
  2. 3.33 A
  3. 20 A
  4. 2.5 A

Answer: 2

 

15. In the given circuit voltage V is reduced to half. The current will become

  1. I/2
  2. 2 I
  3. 1.5 I
  4. I / √R2 + (XL + XC)2

Answer: 1

 

16. The function          3 s           has
                        (s + 1) (s + 2)

  1. one zero, two poles
  2. no zero, one pole
  3. no zero, two poles
  4. one zero, no pole

Answer: 1

 

17. The diameter of an atom is of the order

  1. 10-6 m
  2. 10-10 m
  3. 10-15 m
  4. 10-21 m

Answer: 2

 

18. .If the d.c. valve of a rectified output is 300 V & peak to peak ripple voltage is 10 V, the ripple factor is

  1. 1.18%
  2. 3.33%
  3. 3.36%
  4. 6.66%

Answer: 2

 

19. .Compared to a CB amplifier the CE amplifier has higher

  1. current amplification
  2. output dynamic resistance
  3. leakage current
  4. input dynamic resistance
  5. all of the above 

Answer: 5

 

20. Which of the following binary number is equivalent to BCD?

  1. 1010
  2. 1000
  3. 1001
  4. None of these

Answer: 4

 

c) General Knowledge Questions

 

1. Which pass was opened between India and China for trade?

  1. Nathula 
  2. Khardungla
  3. Chumbi 
  4. Solang

Answer: 1

 

2. ‘Threat of global warming’ is increasing due to increasing concentration of:

  1. Ozone 
  2. Nitrous oxide
  3. Sulphur dioxide 
  4. Carbon dioxide

Answer: 4

 

 3. The Finance Commission is primarily concerned with recommending to the President about :

  1. The principle governing grants-in-aid to be given to the States
  2. Distributing the net proceeds of the taxes between the Centre and the States
  3. Neither nor
  4. Both and

Answer: 4

 

4. The ball used in which of the games is usually oval in shape?

  1. Rugby 
  2. Golf
  3. Polo 
  4. Volleyball

Answer: 1

 

5. Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance Bill sent for its consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of :

  1. One month 
  2. One year
  3. Seven days 
  4. Fourteen days

Answer: 4

 

6. Who is known a the first Law Officer of India?

  1. Chief Justice of India
  2. Law Minister of India
  3. Solicitor General of India
  4. Law Secretary

Answer: 3

 

7. Nathu La Pass is situated in which state?

  1. Arunachal Pradesh 
  2. Assam
  3. Meghalaya 
  4. Sikkim

Answer:4

 

8. .As per recommendations of the Twelfth Finance Commission,percentage share of States of the shareable central taxes is?

  1. 28.5 
  2. 29.5
  3. 30.5 
  4. 32.4

Answer: 3

 

9. In India, national income is estimated by :

  1. Planning Commission
  2. Central Statistical Organization
  3. Indian Statistical Institute
  4. National Sample Survey Organization

Answer: 2

 

10. Which one of the following is the time limit for the ratification of an emergency period by the Parliament?

  1. 14 days 
  2. 1 month
  3. 3 months 
  4. 6 months

Answer: 2

 

11. .Which one of the following is not an objective of fiscal policy of Indian Government?

  1. Full employment
  2. Price stability
  3. Regulation of inter-State trade
  4. Equitable distribution of wealth and income.

Answer: 3

 

12. How many times has Financial Emergency been declared in India so far?

  1. 5 times 
  2. 4 times
  3. Once 
  4. Never

Answer: 4

 

13. What is earlier name of the present ‘National Library in Kolkata’?

  1. Imperial library 
  2. British library
  3. Royal library 
  4. Albert library

Answer: 1

 

14. Which one of the following motions can the Council of Ministers in India move?

  1. No Confidence Motion
  2. Censure Motion
  3. Adjournment Motion
  4. Confidence Motion

Answer: 4

 

15. The capital of Mauritius is

  1. Male 
  2. Kabul
  3. Suva 
  4. Port Louis

Answer: 4