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IBPS Placement Paper : 43668
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : IBPS Exam AnlysisUpdated Date : Aug 2, 2014

IBPS Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

IBPS CWE clerical PO,MT Examinations procedure previous years solved question papers and analysis 2013-2014  Analysis of IBPS PO CWE 2013 -Exam held on 19th /20th Oct 2013


IBPS CWE New examination notifications upcoming recruitments through IBPS CWE Clericals, PO,MT Specialists officers new jobs, careers news IBPS CWE PO MT Clerical SPL officers RRBs new examination procedure and IBPS Previous Years free solved question papers with detailed explanations IBPS CWE common written examination aptitude, reasoning, bank based general knowledge, computer awareness, latest current affairs RBI latest updations  in formations Here you can find a comprehensive and detailed analysis of IBPS solved question papers learn and practice largest collection of ibps sample model previous years questions with answers  

IBPS Bank CWE New and latest Examinations recruitment notifications for all over India Public sector banks, nationalised, co-operative banks and other private banks IBPS has been conducting inter-scale promotion assessments for both Generalist and Specialist cadre employees across levels of the organizations. If you are looking for a career in the Human Resource related matter we offer opportunities for employment either in our organization or any other organization who has been utilizing our services in the area of recruitment, placement, promotion and related research. IBPS Personnel offer employment opportunities to all professionals by assessing their potential in a scientific method. IBPS-Bank financial Competitive Admission Testing Learning Skill India Exercise Technology Banking Recruitment Talent Computer Educational Behavioural

 

IBPS careers in banking exams

IBPS CWE -All details regarding IBPS common written examinations (CWE Exam) for various jobs positions in banks
Every years IBPS conducts on line common written examination for clerks, PO-Probationary officers, Management trainees-MT, Specialists officers SPL -in India IBPS started the CWE exam in the year 2011,before that the recruitment /selection procedure in each bank was done by the bank itself. In the latest bank careers news and experts in India says that in the next five years about 7.5 lakh people have to be recruitment  to the banks because of the retirement of existing employees an the opening of different new branches. Being a part of the IBPS team can really be a breakthrough journey for professionals as they get an opportunity to enrich their career experience. With the selection process, the Institute helps its clients in succession planning their manpower, thereby providing opportunities for the employees to grow and develop. 

 

IBPS CWE-Common Written Examination Clerical recruitment notifications IBPS CWE clerical previous years solved questions answers for referring upcoming latest recruitment of IBPS Common Written Examination for Clerical Cadre 2013-2014

 

IBPS recruits clerk once in every year .through on line exam with 200 questions in 120 minutes.1/4th of the marks penalized for each wrong answers in objective tests. Each section 40 questions 40 marks.  You must pass each section for qualifying examination. But not just qualifying examination, candidates should score more than 160 marks out of 200

 

IBPS Expected Date of clerical cadre examination date is December 

 

IBPS CWE PO-MT Probationary Officers, Management Trainee Specialists Officers Examination Procedure 

IBPS conducts recruitment for the Probationary officers, management trainee once in a years In the Year 2012 PO was not on line. but now it is also an on line exam IBPS Po MT Spl officers exam contains 50 questions 50 marks for each sections such as reasoning aptitude, english, computer knowledge ..For the PO recruitment along with these test a test for english composition is there which includes letter writing, essay, precis etc with maximum marks of 25 and for a time of one hour

 

IBPS RRB's regional rural banks exam, specialists officer recruitment and all other recruitment officer scale I,II,III Nabard RBI,SBI SBT all examinations almost same pattern and structure the difference is number questions and marks time etc For Crack IBPS CWE exam speed in calculations is the important factor.Practice all banks IBPS SBI RBI on line mock tests. Refer and practice previous years solved question papers of IBPS CWE PO RRBs Management trainees, probationary officers clerical ..Update your current affairs 


Analysis Examination details regarding  IBPS PO CWE 2013 (Exam held on 19th /20th Oct 2013)


The IBPS P.O. On-line Exam, one of the most reputed exams in the Indian banking sector, was held on the 19th (Saturday) and 20th (Sunday) of October 2013. The next set of dates for the exam are 26th/27th of Oct 2013 and 9th/10th of Nov 2013. It has been ascertained from students' assessment that overall, the examination was moderate, comparatively easier than the one held last year.

 

Duration of the Examination 120 Minutes
Number of sections 5
Negative Marking 0.25 of marks assigned to the question
Total Questions 200
Quantitative Aptitude 50 questions
Reasoning 50 questions
English Language 40 questions
General Awareness 40 questions
Computer Knowledge 20 questions

 

IBPS CWE Exam sectional analysis is as follows : 

IBPS PO CWE  Quantitative Aptitude : 

In general, the difficulty level of this section can be pegged at moderate to difficult. It was reported that there were no questions on Simplifications and Approximations. This was something unexpected and caught students off-guard. Since the above were replaced by questions from various topics of Arithmetic, which usually take more time to solve, this section was time-consuming. 
The break-up of the 50 questions of this section is as : 
Data Interpretation – 20 
Number series – 5 
Quadratic Equations (Comparisons) – 5
Questions from individual topics of Arithmetic – 15
Data Sufficiency – 5

IBPS  CWE  Reasoning : 

According to the feedback received from candidates who have appeared for this exam, the difficulty level of this section can be termed as more or less moderate. As has been the pattern ever since the exam has gone on-line, this time too non-verbal questions were conspicuous by their absence. 
The break-up of the 50 questions in this section is as : 
Deductions – 5 
Data Sufficiency – 5 
Input/output – 5 
Decision Making – 5 
Puzzles – 15 
Other topics – 15 ( Symb & Not based Conclusions, Assumptions / Inferences / Cause and effect, Direction sense / Word digit formation / ranking etc.) 

IBPS CWE  General Awareness : 

It was reported by students that most of the 40 questions in this section were from Banking Awareness and Indian Economy. Current affairs also formed the basis for a few questions. The difficulty level can be stated as easy to moderate. 

IBPS CWE English Language: 

As reported, this section can be called a difficult one, as the Comprehension questions, which students dread, dominated this section. In one of the slots on the 19th of October, there were two passages with 15 questions and in one of the slots of the other day, the two RC passages had 10 questions each. 
Earlier, when the exam used to have 50 questions in this section, this kind of pattern was common. But with almost half of this section dominated by questions on reading comprehension, students found it very lengthy and exhaustive. Had these questions been substituted by those of verbal ability, it could have become easy for candidates to work on this section with greater speed. The break-up of the 40 questions is as : 
Reading Comprehension – 15 -20
Cloze Test – 10
Para formation Questions – 5 (with six sentences to sequence)
Grammar – 5 - 10

IBPS CWE Computer Knowledge : 

The questions in this section were reported to be easy. No great preparation was needed to tick these multiple choice questions. In fact, answers to a few questions could be worked out by looking at the various choices that each of these questions had. As compared to other IBPS exams, this section presented very little challenge to students. 
This section was reported to be easy in all the slots on 19th and 20th Oct 2013. 


In short all students opinion that the 2013 IBPS CWE examination was moderate difficulty level.  Question paper lengthy and time consuming

MPPSC Placement Paper : 47148
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : MunnaUpdated Date : Jan 31, 2015

MPPSC Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

                                              MPPSC Solved Model Paper

1. The protection of Civil right act extends to ?
A. The whole of India
B. The whole of India except the scheduled area
C. The whole of India except the scheduled area
D. The whole of India except the union territories of Goa, Daman and diu
Ans: C

2. The schedule caste and scheduled tribes (prevention of atrocities) act, 1989 came into force on ?
A. 1st July 1980
B. 30th January 1990
C. 30th July 1989
D. 1st January 1990
Ans: B

3. The SC and ST act is a special provision for the advancement of SC and ST which is based on which one of the following doctrines ?
A. Doctrine of severability
B. Doctrine of preferred position
C. Doctrine of protective discrimination
D. Doctrine of Haronious Construction
Ans: C

4. Which of the following powers is NOT provided to specified special court under SC and ST act ?
A. Forfeiture of property of a convict of an offence
B. To authorize a person for extra investigation other than police
C. To remove a person from the area on whom there is a doubt of committing a crime
D. Take measurement and photograph of a person on whom there is a doubt of committing a crime
Ans: C

5. A court of session specified as special court to try the offences under the SC and ST act for the purpose of providing ?
A. Speedy trial
B. Time bound trial
C. Special protection to victims
D. All of above
Ans: D

6. Scientists of NDRI Karnal (Haryana) developed second clone of which one of following animal ?
A. Sheep
B. Buffalo
C. Cow
D. Goat
Ans: B

7. Which snake of the following is Non-poisonous?
A. Cobra
B. Viper
C. Coral-snake
D. Python
Ans: D

8. In which year was the project tiger launched to save Indian tiger ?
A. 1971
B. 1973
C. 1977
D. 1991
Ans: D

9. Which of the following is measured By Anemometer ?
A. Velocity of water flow
B. Depth of water
C. Force of the wind
D. Intensity of light
Ans: C

10. Dengue is a fever caused by transmitted to other human by ?
A. Virus and female aedes mosquito
B. Bacteria and female culex mosquito
C. Fungus and female aedes osquito
D. Protozoa and female anopheles mosquito
Ans: A

11. Carbon monoxide poisoning affects mainly which one of the following ?
A. Digestive activity
B. Liver Functioning
C. Kidney Functioning
D. Oxygen carryin capacity of blood
Ans: D

12. Statics is related to which one of the following ?
A. State of motion
B. State of rest
C. State of mind
D. Study of data
Ans :B

13. According to a new definition adopted by Internationa astronomical Union in 2006, which of the following is not a planet ?
A. Uranus
B. Neptune
C. Pluto
D. Jupitor
Ans: C

14. World AIDS day is celebrated on which date ?
A. 12TH January
B. 1st april
C. 1st may
D. 1st December
Ans: D

15. Which of the following is related with the field of electricity generation ?
A. MMTC
B. MTNL
C. NCL
D. NHPC
Ans: D

16. Ajanta Cave are connected with which of the following ?
A. Ramayana
B. Mahabharata
C. Jakata stories
D. Panchtantra Stories
Ans: C

17. Regarding the Indus valley civilization, consider the following statement
1) During this period cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India
2) It was predominatly a secular civilization and the religious eleent, through present did not dominate the scene
Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?
A. 1 Only
B. 2 Only
C. Bothe 1 and 2
D. Either 1 nor 2

18. Tripitaka is associated with which of the following ?
A. Jains
B. Buddhists
C. Sikhs
D. Hindus
Ans: B

19. “Rajatarangini” written by kalhan is associated with which of the following ?
A. Chandragupta reign
B. Anthology of lyrics
C. History of Kashmir
D. Reign of Krishna Deva raya
Ans: C

20. Who among the following was the advocate at the famous INA trials ?
A. Subhash Chandra bose
B. C. Rajagopalachari
C. Asaf ali
D. Bhulabhai Desai
Ans: D

21. Who among the following attended all the three round table conferences ?
A. Vallabhbhai patel
B. Madan mohan malviya
C. BR Ambedkar
D. None of above
Ans: C

22. Who among the following organized the society of revolutionaries “Abhinav Bharat” ?
A. Jatindra Nath Mukherjee
B. Madan lal dhingra
C. Vinayak damodar savarkar
D. Lala hardayal
Ans: C

23. Who among the following has been first person who delivered his speech in Hindi in UNO ?
A. Swami Vivekanand
B. Lal bahadur shashtri
C. Atal bihari vajpeyi
D. None of above
Ans: C

24. Amir Khusro was associated with whose reign among the following ?
A. Allauddin khilzi
B. Muhammad bin tughlaq
C. Ibrahi Lodhi
D. Firoz shah
Ans: A

25. Mohenjo daro is situated in which of the following ?
A. Gujarat, India
B. Punjab, India
C. Sindh, Pakistan
D. Afganistan
Ans: C

GoaPSC Placement Paper : 47140
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : VaniUpdated Date : Jan 30, 2015

GoaPSC Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

                                              GPSC Solved Exam Paper

1) Which of the following organization has Giant Panda as its symbol?
A) UNICEF
B) Greenpeace
C) World Bank
D) World Wide Fund for Nature

2) Name the inventor of Black Box fight recorder who died recently
A) David Warren
B) J.L. Baird
C) Thomas Alva Edison
D) Wilbur Wright

3) “What Congress and Ghandhi have done to the Untouchables” is a book written by
A) B.R. Ambedkar
B) V.D. Savarkar
C) Rajendra Prasad
D) S.C. Bose

4) Sri Shiva Shankar Menon holds the position of
A) Union Home Secretary
B) Planning Commission Chairman
C) Minister of State in Defense Ministry
D) National Security Advisor

5) Which famous Indian artist accepted Qatai citizenship in February 2010?
A) M.F. Hussain
B) Mallika Sarabhai
C) Zakir Hussain
D) None of above

6) Why was Jordan Romero in the news recently?
A) He is the youngest person to climb Mount Everest
B) He swam the English Channel in record time
C) He is the captain of the Mexican World Cup Football team
D) None of the above

7) Who among the following has been appointed New Chairman of the National Commission of Farmers?
A) Ajith Singh
B) K.C. Pant
C) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
D) None of the above

8) Who has won the World Cup Football as a player and coach?
A) Lisa Raymond
B) Paulo Rossi Italy
C) George Best England
D) Franz Beckenbauer Germany

9) What is the name of the car recently launched in India by Nisan?
A) Polo
B) Figo
C) Beat
D) Micra

10) Who among the following launched education reform movement among the Muslims in India?
A) Sri Syed Ahmed Khan
B) W.W. Hunter
C) Shah Waliullah
D) Sakkir Hussain

11) Which of the following is equivalent of Accra, Baku and Apia?
A) Ghana
B) Bamako
C) Turkey
D) Tanzania

12) To which party does David Cameron the recently elected British Prime Minister belong to
A) Labour party
B) Conservative Party
C) Liberal Democrats Party
D) None of the above

13) Which of the following leaders died in the battle filed in the Revolt of 1857?
A) Tantia Tope
B) Bahadur Shah II
C) Nana Saheb
D) Rani Jhansi

14) Who among the following was known as the “Indian Gladstone”?
A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B) Gopala Krishna Gokhale
C) Dadabhai Naoroji
D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

15) Prabuddha Bharata was a paper published in English by
A) Louis Vivian Derozio
B) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
C) Swami Vivekananda
D) Swami Dayanand

16) The Radical Democratic Party was founded in 1940 by
A) N.D. Muzambar
B) S.C. Bose
C) B.R. Ambedkar
D) M.N. Roy

17) Based on the 1981-91 decennial growth rate of population, state with the highest and lowest growth rate are respectively
A) Arunachal Pradesh and Goa
B) Nagaland and Kerala
C) Arunachal Pradesh and kerala
D) Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu

18) Which one of the following incidents prompted Vinoba Bhave to initiate the Boothan Movement?
A) Nalgonda incident
B) Sri Kakulam incident
C) Naxalbari incident
D) Madhubani incident

19) The poorest state with 39.9% people living below poverty line is
A) Jharkand
B) Orissa
C) Bihar
D) Assam

20) Which of the following is the largest man made lake in India?
A) Didwan Lake
B) Vembanad Lake
C) Indira Sagar Lake
D) Chilka Lake

21) In India a special Ministry for women and social welfare was formed at the centre in the year
A) 1983
B) 1986
C) 1976
D) 1981

22) The Article in the Constitution of India which provides for the appointment of a special officer for scheduled Castes and Scheduled tribes by the President of India is
A) Article 164
B) Article 341
C) Article 342
D) Article 338

23) Who was the permanent chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D) Sardar Patel

24) The 42nd Amendment extended the term of the Lok Sabha is
A) 7 years
B) 6 years
C) 8 years
D) 9 years

25) The Sarkaria Commission was set up to review the relation between
A) Prime Minister and the President
B) Executive and Judiciary
C) Legislative and Executive
D) Centre and the State

26) One of the following members was not included in the drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Shri N Madhava Rao
D) Shri KM Munshi

27) The provisions concerning the suspension of Fundamental rights by the President during emergencies was borrowed from the
A) Constitution of U.S.A.
B) Constitution of Canada
C) Constitution of Ireland
D) Weimar Constitution

28) Article 164 of the Constitution of India provides for separate Ministers of Tribal Welfare in
A) Rajasthan, Kerala and Nagaland
B) Orissa, Bihar and Meghalaya
C) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Orissa
D) Madhyapradesh, Assam and Orissa

29) Who appoints the Municipal Commissioner of the Municipalities?
A) State Government
B) Mayor
C) President
D) Governor

30) The historic INA trial commenced in
A) 1940
B) 1944
C) 1945
D) 1948

MPSC Placement Paper : 47119
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : RamyaUpdated Date : Jan 29, 2015

MPSC Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

                                                   MPSC Previous Paper

1. Arrange the following States in descending order of their forest area, according to forest survey report 2009 :
(a) Arunachal Pradesh 
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh 
(d) Chattisgarh
Answer options :
(1) (c), (d), (a), (b) 
(2) (a), (c), (b), (d)
(3) (d), (c), (b), (a) 
(4) (c), (a), (d), (b)

2. Which of the following hills connect Eastern and Western Ghats ?
(1) Biligri 
(2) Nilgiri 
(3) Nimgiri 
(4) Nailamala

3. Match thc following and choose the correct option from those given below :
Shifting  Cultivation State
(a) Jhum (i) Chattisgarh
(b) Podu (ii) Keral
(c) Ponam (iii) Assam
(d) Dahiya (iv) Andhra Pradesh
Answer options :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

4. Match the foliowing and choose the correct option from those given below :
River  Water fall
(a) Sharavati (i) Gokak
(b) Kaveri (ii) Chulia
(c) Ghatprabha (iii) Shivsamudram
(d) Chambal (iv) Girsappa
(a) (b) (c) (4
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

5. Which of the following factors determine diurnal and seasonal vxiation in intensity and amount of solar radiation ?
(a) Inclination of the axis of the earth.
(b) Length of the day.
(c) Extent of clouds
(d) Angle of inclination of the Sun's rays
Answer options :
(1) (a) and (b) 
(2) (b) and (c) 
(3) (c) and (d) 
(4) All the above

6. Accumulation of mercury into human body Leads to --------------- disease
(1) Itai-itai 
(2) Methaemoglobinanemia
(3) Minamata 
(4) Polio

7. The continuous increase in concentration of a toxicant at successive trophic levels in food chain is :
(1) Biodegradation 
(2) Biomagnifiratlon
(3) Bioaccumulation 
(4) Biorernediation

8. The main gas responsible for ozone depletion is :
(1) Carbon dioxide 
(2) Nitrogen dioxide
(3) Methane 
(4) Chloro fluro carbon

9. Heterotrophic organisms, chiefly bacteria and fungi that breakdown the complex compounds of dead protoplasm and release simple usable substances for other organisms are :
(1) Autotrophs 
(2) Decomposers 
(3) Consutners 
(4) Omnivorous

10. The First National Park established in India was -------?
(1) Jim Corbett 
(2) Sanjay Gandhi 
(3) Gir 
(4) Kanha

11. Which of the following is considered as a land mark year in the history of legislative action in India for environment concerns during which National Committee for Environment Planning and Co-ordination (NCEPC) was set up 7
(1) 1973 
(2) 1971 
(3) 1972 
(4) 1974

18. Kidneys are helping to maintain pH balance by which of the following ?
(I) Adding hydrogen ions to filtrate
(2) Removal of hydrogen ions from blood
(3) Dissolving calcium and sodium ions in blood
(4) Removing carbonate ions from blood

19. One of the worst natural disasters of the World was the cyclone struck in Bangladesh. As many as 3,00,000 people, lost their lives, it is said. When did the disaster struck Bangladesh, then East Pakistan ?
(1) 1970
(2) 1960
(3) 1950
(4)1940

20. Silicon Valley, California, United States is one of the greatest science parks in the world today as it contains hundreds of hightech information technology industries. Which of the following two statements about the Sillicon Valley is correct ?
(A) Silicon Valley was once called the "Valley of Heart's Delight"
(B) It was so called because hundreds and thousands of varieties of flowers bloomed therein.
(1) Only (A) 
(2) Only (B)
(3) Both (A) and (B) 
(4) Neither (A) nor (B)

21. Human development report of 2011, presented Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) estimates of 109 countries. What proportion of population according to this report, in these countries experience multidimensional poverty?
(1) 1/2
(2) 1/3
(3) 1/4
(4) 1/5

22. What are the core values of development as described by Amartya Sen and Goulet D ?
Choose the correct option given below :
(1) Sustenance, self esteem, freedom, capabilites, entitlement.
(2) Health, nutrition, education, capabilities, entitlement
(3) Food, clothing, shelter, dl.inking water, sanitation
(4) Increase in national income, per capita income, basic needs, freedom, education

23. The June 2012, Iiio + 20 conference on sustainable developn~enta dvocated the "green economy" model. In whose book the term '~eenec onomy' was coined ?
(1) Ainartva Sen, D. Friedman, Samueisan
(2) D. Pearce, A Markandya, E.Barbier
(3) I. Quadeer, W. Berry, N. Matekar
(4) D. Greenberg, J Taylor, Schmidth

24. The velocity of radio waves is
(I) Greater than velocity of light 
(2) As that of velocity of light
(3) Less than velocity of light 
(4) Exactly double the velocity of light

25. According to 2011 census how many cities in India have mare than 1 million population ?
(1) 52 
(2) 53 
(3) 54 
(4) 55

BPSC Placement Paper : 47110
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : ShikhaUpdated Date : Jan 28, 2015

BPSC Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

                                                    BPSC Solved Paper

 

1. Increase in net RBI credit for central government represents:
(a) Budgetary Deficit
(b) Revenue Deficit
(c) Fiscal Deficit
(d) Monetized Deficit
Ans. (d)

2. The famous book “The Philosophy of Management” was written by:
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Oliver Scheldon
(c) F. W. Taylor
(d) Urwick
Ans. (b)

3. Arrange the following ingredients of communication process in the proper order:
1. Message
2. Receiver
3. Encoder
4. Channel
5. Decoder
(a) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
(b) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
(c) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
(d) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
Ans. (c)

4. Marginal Revenue will be negative if the demand is:
(a) Relatively elastic
(b) Unitary elastic
(c) Relatively inelastic
(d) Perfectly elastic
Ans. (c)

5. Price control; is one of the monopoly regulations which is most advantageous for:
(a) The producer
(b) The consumer
(c) The government
(d) The seller
Ans. (b)

6. Which one of the following is considered as the first principle of organization?
(a) Delegation
(b) Co-ordination
(c) Unity of command
(d) Supervision
Ans. (b)

7. Find the odd one out:
(a) Human relations theory
(b) Informal functioning
(c) Humanistic theory
(d) Structural theory
Ans. (d)

8. The real aim of production is:
(a) To create material goods
(b) To eliminate poverty
(c) To satisfy people’s wants
(d) To provide basic necessities.
Ans. (c)

9. At the point of inflexion, the marginal utility is:
(a) Increasing
(c) Maximum
(b) Decreasing
(d) Negative
Ans. (c)

10. “Production” may be defined as an act of:
(a) Creating utility
(b) Earning profit
(c) Destroying utility
(d) Providing services
Ans. (a)

11. The Scientific Management stressed upon:
1. Rationality
2. Specialization
3. Technical Competence
4. Predictability
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) l, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)

12. Arrange the Maslow’s Need Hierarchy in the descending order:
1. Social
2. Self-Actualization
3. Physiological
4. Ego
5. Security
(a) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
(b) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
(d) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
Ans. (d)

13. According to which theory, leadership is multi dimensional?
(a) Behavioural Theory
(b) Situational Theory
(c) Trait Theory
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

14. Which of the following according to Hertzberg are not the motivators?
1. Responsibility
2. Recognition
3. Interpersonal relations
4. Work itself
Ans. (c)

15. The practice of placing a candidate at the right job is:
(a) Selection
(b) Placement
(c) Interview
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

16. Selection process in any organization is usually proceeded by the preparation of:
(a) Human resources audit
(b) Operations audit
(c) Human resources inventory
(d) Human resources accounting
Ans. (c)

17. A written statement of the main duties and responsibilities which a particular job entails is called:
(a) Job analysis
(b) Job specification
(c) Job description
(d) Job evaluation
Ans. (c)

18. Partnership is a form of business organization in which business debts can be recovered from:
(a) The managing partners
(b) MI the managers and partners
(c) The firm and the managers
(d) The firm and all the partners
Ans. (d)

19. The main objective of Stock Exchange is to:
(a) Provide facilities for speculation
(b) Safeguard the interest of investors
(c) Help in the capital formation in the country
(d) Provide a ready market for securities
Ans. (b)

20. Contango charge is paid by a:
(a) Bull speculator to bear speculator
(b) Bear speculator to bull speculator
(c) Lame duck to bull speculator
(d) Bull to lane duck speculator
Ans. (a)

21. MRTP Act came into force in:
(a) 1969
(b) 1970
(c) 1971
(d) 1980

22. Dumping is an example of:
(a) Monopolistic practice in international trade
(b) Monopoly in international trade
(c) Oligopoly in international trade
(d) Perfect competition in international trade
Ans. (a)

23. A critical activity is defined as one whose:
(a) Total float is zero
(b) Free float is zero
(c) Duration is the longest
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

24.‘t’ Distribution was discovered by:
(a) Karl Pearson
(b) Fisher
(c) Laplace
(d) Gosset
Ans. (d)

25. Scheduled bank is that bank which is:
(a) Nationalized
(b) Not nationalized
(c) Bared at foreign country
(d) Include in the second schedule of RBI
Ans. (d)

DRDO-CEPTAM Placement Paper : 47044
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : MahimaUpdated Date : Jan 23, 2015

DRDO-CEPTAM Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

                                      DRDO Ceptam - Solved Exam Paper

Aptitude Questions:

1. If the following numbers are rewritten by interchanging the digits in ten’s place and hundred’s place and then arranging them in the descending order. What will be the second digit of the newly formed fifth number from your right ?
479, 736, 895, 978, 389, 675
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans : (C)

2. P is 60 m South-East of Q. R is 60 m North-East of Q. Then R is in which direction of P ?
(A) North
(B) North-East
(C) South
(D) South-East
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 3–5) Read the following information for answering th questions that follow—
On a playing ground A, B, C, D and E are standing as described belo facing the North.
(i) B is 50 metres to the right of D.
(ii) A is 60 metres to the South of B
(iii) C is 40 metres to the West of D.
(iv) E is 80 metres to the North of A.

3. If a boy walks from C, meets D followed by B, A and then E, how many metres has he walked if he has travelled the straight distance all through ?
(A) 120
(B) 150
(C) 170
(D) 230
Ans : (D)

4. What is the minimum distance (in metre approximately) between C and E ?
(A) 53
(B) 78
(C) 92
(D) 120
Ans : (C)

5. Who is to the South-East of the person who is to the left of D ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E
Ans : (A) 

6. A man was walking in the evening just before the sun set. His wife said that, his shadow fell on his right. If the wife was walking in the opposite direction of the man, then which direction the wife was facing ?
(A) North
(B) West
(C) South
(D) East
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 7–11) In each of the following questions choose the set of numbers from the four alternative sets that is similar to the given set.

7. Given set : (4, 9, 18)
(A) (8, 14, 22)
(B) (10, 15, 25)
(C) (6, 12, 23)
(D) (12, 17, 26)
Ans : (D)

8. Given set : (10, 14, 17)
(A) (4, 11, 14)
(B) (9, 12, 15)
(C) (8, 13, 18)
(D) (6, 9, 12)
Ans : (A)

9. Given set : (7, 27, 55)
(A) (21, 35, 52)
(B) (18, 42, 65)
(C) (16, 40, 72)
(D) (13, 30, 58)
Ans : (C)

10. Given set : (39, 28, 19)
(A) (84, 67, 52)
(B) (52, 25, 17)
(C) (70, 49, 36)
(D) (65, 45, 21)
Ans : (A)

11. Given set : (246, 257, 358)
(A) (233, 343, 345)
(B) (273, 365, 367)
(C) (143, 226, 237)
(D) (145, 235, 325)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 12–16) Each question contains six or seven statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.

12. (1) All books are having pages.
(2) All kings are having pages.
(3) All kings are books. 
(4) Some heavy things are having pages.
(5) Some heavy things are books.
(6) Some books are heavy.
(7) Some heavy things are having pages.
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 6, 1, 4
(C) 4, 6, 1
(D) 1, 5, 7
Ans : (D)

13. (1) No athletes are vegetarians.
(2) All cricket players are athletes.
(3) Some athletes play cricket.
(4) Some cricket players are vegetarians.
(5) No cricket player is a vegetarian.
(6) All athletes are vegetarians.
(A) 1, 2, 5
(B) 3, 4, 1
(C) 1, 5, 2
(D) 2, 5, 6
Ans : (A)

14. (1) All grandmothers cook well.
(2) No man is a grandmother.
(3) Some men do not cook well.
(4) All those who cook well are men.
(5) No one who cooks well is a man.
(6) All those who cook well are grandmothers.
(7) Some men are not grandmothers.
(A) 2, 6, 5
(B) 2, 5, 6
(C) 1, 4, 2
(D) 6, 4, 7
Ans : (B)

15. (1) Looting is a crime.
(2) Some crooked people are criminals.
(3) All those involved in looting are criminals.
(4) Some crooked people are involved in looting.
(5) All criminals are looked down in society.
(6) Some crooked people are not criminals.
(A) 1, 4, 6
(B) 3, 6, 2
(C) 1, 2, 6
(D) 3, 4, 2
Ans : (D)

16. (1) Some women are those who are successful in life.
(2) Some men are those who have patience.
(3) No man is a woman.
(4) All those who have patience are successful in life.
(5) Some who are successful in life are men.
(6) Some men are not those are successful in life.
(A) 1, 3, 6 
(B) 4, 2, 6
(C) 1, 5, 3
(D) 2, 4, 5
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 17–21) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answers—
(A) If the data in statement (I) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (II) alone are not sufficient to answer the question;
(B) If the data in statement (II) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (I) alone are not sufficient to answer the questions;
(C) If the data even in both statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question;
(D) If the data in both statement (I) and (II) together are necessary to answer the question.

17. In which direction is Mahatmaji’s statue facing ?
I. The statue is towards the northern end of the city.
II. The statue’s shadow falls towards East at 5 O’clock in the evening.
Ans : (C)

18. What is the total number of pupils in the final year class ?
I. The number of boys in the final year class is twice as much as the number of girls in that class.
II. The sum of the ages of all the pupils in the class is 399 years and their average age is 19 years.
Ans : (B)

19. Who is the tallest among A, B, C and D ?
I. A is taller than C.
II. B is taller than C and D.
Ans : (C)

20. How many Sundays are there in a particular month of a particular year ?
I. The month begins on Monday.
II. The month ends on Wednesday.
Ans : (D)

21. What is the total number of pages in this book ?
I. I counted 132 pages from the beginning of this book.
II. My wife counted 138 pages starting from the end of the same book.
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 22–26) In each of the questions given below, there is a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and assumptions and then decide, which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.

22. Statement : During pre-harvest kharif seasons, the government has decided to release vast quantity of foodgrains from FCI.
Assumptions :I. There may be a shortage of foodgrains in the market during this season.
II. The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI.
III. There may be a demand from the farmers to procure kharif crop immediately after harvest.
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only I and II are implicit
(C) Only II and III are implicit
(D) All are implicit
Ans : (D)

23. Statement : To improve the employment situation in India, there is a need to recast the present educational system towards implementation ofscientific discoveries in daily life.
Assumptions :I. The students after completing such education may be able to earn their livelihood.
II. This may bring meaning of education in the minds of the youth.
III. The state may earn more revenue as more and more people will engage themselves in self employment.
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only III is implicit
(C) Only I and III are implicit
(D) None is implicit
Ans : (A)

24. Statement : To increase profit, the oil exporting countries decided to reduce the production of crude by 5 million barrels per day.
Assumptions :I. The price of crude may increase due to less production.
II. The demand of crude may remain same in future.
III. Other countries may continue buying crude from these countries.
(A) All are implicit
(B) Only II and III are implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) None is implicit
Ans : (C)

25. Statement : “We do not want you to see our product on newspaper, visit our shop to get a full view.” – an advertisement.
Assumptions :I. People generally decide to purchase any product after seeing the name in the advertisement.
II. Uncommon appeal may attract the customers.
III. People may come to see the product.
(A) All are implicit
(B) None is implicit
(C) Only II and III are implicit
(D) Only I and II are implicit
Ans : (A)

General Knowledge:

1. Which of the following stars lies nearest to our solar system ?
(A) Barnard’s Star
(B) Sirius A
(C) Alpha Centauri A
(D) Proxima Centauri
Ans : (D)

2. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute approximately—
(A) 5•8%
(B) 4•5%
(C) 2•59%
(D) 1•2%
Ans : (C)

3. The term ‘Bishop’ in sports is related to—
(A) Chess
(B) Hockey
(C) Badminton
(D) Bridge
Ans : (A)

4. Yakshagan is the famous dance form of the State of—
(A) Orissa
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Karnataka
Ans : (D)

5. Balance of Payments means—
(A) Difference between export and imports
(B) Balance to be paid to the exporters
(C) Balance to be paid to the industrialists
(D) Balance coming in allocation of funds for States
Ans : (A)

6. A light year is equivalent to about—
(A) 365 days
(B) Six million miles
(C) Six billion miles
(D) Six trillion miles
Ans : (D)

7. Denmark, Iceland, Norway, Sweden and Finland are together called—
(A) Slovakia
(B) Scandinavia
(C) Netherlands
(D) Australasia
Ans : (B)

8. The device used for locating submerged objects under sea is—
(A) Sonar
(B) Radar
(C) Laser
(D) Maser
Ans : (A)

9. Which article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to ammend Constitution ?
(A) 376
(B) 370
(C) 368
(D) 390
Ans : (C)

10. What is the name of the first successfully cloned deer ?
(A) Dawn
(B) Deluxe
(C) Demor
(D) Dewey
Ans : (D)

11. The idea of motion pictures was propounded by—
(A) N. R. Finsen
(B) T. A. Edison
(C) J. L. Baird
(D) Berliner
Ans : (B)

12. In Greek mythology, Apollo is the god of which of the following ?
(A) Love
(B) Peace
(C) Prophecy
(D) Medicine
Ans : (C)

13. NASA’s new space telescope is—
(A) Wise
(B) Rise
(C) Barack
(D) Telle
Ans : (A)

14. Bull fighting is the national game of—
(A) Italy
(B) Poland
(C) Spain
(D) Sudan
Ans : (C)

15. In a rare recognition, the Government of Mauritius decides to introduce a book written by Uttarakhand Chief Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank in the School Syllabus of the island nation, what is the name of the book ?
(A) Sound of Hills
(B) Sparsh Ganga
(C) Heaven
(D) Amrit
Ans : (B)

16. Who has been selected for the ‘Niwano Peace Prize, 2010’ for her contribution to the uplift of poor women in India ?
(A) Ela Bhatt
(B) Jhumpa Lahiri
(C) Punam Suri
(D) Mandakni Apte
Ans : (A)

17. On which of the following dates in 2010 did the safeguard agreement with regard to civilian nuclear facilities between India and the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) come into force ?
(A) February 28
(B) February 21
(C) February 11
(D) February 4
Ans : (D)

18. The tax which the kings used to collect from the people in the Vedic period was called—
(A) Bali
(B) Vidatha
(C) Varman
(D) Kara
Ans : (B)

19. The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are—
(A) Red blood cells
(B) Neutrophils
(C) Lymphocytes
(D) Platelets
Ans : (C)

20. Correct expansion of the term ‘http’ in Internet address is—
(A) Hybrid text transfer protocol
(B) Hyper text transfer protocol
(C) Higher transfer text protocol
(D) Higher text transfer protocol
Ans : (B)

SBI Placement Paper : 47031
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : NishaUpdated Date : Jan 20, 2015

SBI Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

                          SBI PO Exam - Solved Previous Year Question Paper

Reasoning Ability:

Directions (Q. 1-5): Read each statement carefully and answer the following questions:

1. Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression R > O = A > S < T is definitely true?
1) O > T 
2) S < R 
3) T > A
4) S = O 
5) T < R

2. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark (?) in the given expression in order to make the expressions P > A as well as T ≤ L definitely true?
P > L ? A≥ N = T
1) ≤ 
2) > 
3) <
4) ≥ 
5) Either ≤ or <

3. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expressions B > N as well as D ≤ L definitely true?
B _ L _ O _ N _ D
1) =, =, ≥, ≥ 
2) >, ≥, =, > 
3) >, <, =, ≤
4) >, =, =, ≥ 
5) >, =, ≥, >

4. Which of the following should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expression A < P definitely false?
___ ≤ ___ < ___ > ___
1) L, N, P, A 
2) L, A, P, N 
3) A, L, P, N
4) N, A, P, L 
5) P, N, A, L

5. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expression F > N and U > D definitely false?
F __ O __ U __ N __ D
1) <, <, >, = 
2) <, =, =, > 
3) <, =, =, <
4) ≥, =, =, ≥ 
5) >, >, =, <

Directions (Q. 6 - 10): Study the following information and answer the following questions:

A, B, C, D, E, G, and I are seven friends who study in three different standards, namely 5th, 6th, and 7th, such that not less than two friends study in the same standard. Each friend has a different favourite subject, namely History, Civics, English, Marathi, Hindi, Maths and Economics also but not necessarily in the same order. A likes Maths and studies in the 5th standard with only one other friend who likes Marathi. I studies with two other friends. Both the friends who study with I like languages (here languages include only Hindi, Marathi and English). D studies in the 6th standard with only one person and does not like Civics. E studies with only one friend. The one who likes History does not study in the 5th or 6th standard. E does not like languages. C does not like English, Hindi or Civics.

6. Which combination represents E's favourite subject and the standard in which he studies?
1) Civics and 7th 
2) Economics and 5th 
3) Civics and 6th
4) History and 7th 
5) Economics and 7th

7. Which of the following is I's favourite subject?
1) History 
2) Civics 
3) Marathi
4) Either English or Marathi 
5) Either English or Hindi

8. Who among the following studies in the 7th standard?
1) G 
2) C 
3) E
4) D 
5) Either D or B

9. Which of the following combinations is definitely correct?
1) I and Hindi 
2) G and English 
3) C and Marathi
4) B and Hindi 
5) E and Economics

10. Which of the following subjects does G like?
1) Either Maths or Marathi 
2) Either Hindi or English
3) Either Hindi or Civics 
4) Either Hindi or Marathi
5) Either Civics or Economics

Directions (Q. 11 - 15): Study the information and answer the following questions.
In a certain code language 'economics is not money' is written as 'ka la ho ga','demand and supply economics' is written as 'mo ta pa ka', 'money makes only part' is written as 'zi la ne ki' and 'demand makes supply economics' is written as 'zi mo ka ta'.

11. What is the code for 'money' in the given code language?
1) ga 
2) mo 
3) pa
4) ta 
5) la

12. What is the code for 'supply' in the given code language?
1) Only ta 
2) Only mo 
3) Either pa or mo
4) Only pa 
5) Either mo or ta

13. What may be the possible code for 'demand only more' in the given code language?
1) xi ne mo 
2) mo zi ne 
3) ki ne mo
4) mo zi ki 
5) xi ka ta

14. What may be the possible code for 'work and money' in the given code language?
1) pa ga la 
2) pa la tu 
3) mo la pa
4) tu la ga 
5) pa la ne

15. What is the code for 'makes' in the given code language?
1) mo 
2) pa 
3) ne
4) zi 
5) ho

Directions (Q. 16 - 20): Study the given information and answer the following questions:
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of wordsand numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the numbers are two-digit numbers).
Input: 40 made butter 23 37 cookies salt extra 52 86 92 fell now 19

Step I: butter 19 40 made 23 37 cookies salt extra 52 86 92 fell now
Step II: cookies 23 butter 19 40 made 37 salt extra 52 86 92 fell now
Step III: extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19 40 made salt 52 86 92 fell now.
Step IV: fell 40 extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19 made salt 52 86 92 now.
Step V: made 52 fell 40 extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19 salt 86 92 now.
Step VI: now 86 made 52 fell 40 extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19 salt 92
Step VII: Salt 92 now 86 made 52 fell 40 extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19
Step VII is the last step of the above arragement as the intended arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input: 32 proud girl beautiful 48 55 97 rich family 61 72 17 nice life.

16. How many steps will be required to complete the given input?
1) Five 
2) Six 
3) Seven
4) Eight 
5) Nine

17. Which of the following is the third element from the left end of step VI?
1) beautiful 
2) life 
3) 61
4) nice 
5) 17

18. Which of the following is step III of the given input?
1) proud 72 girl 48 family 32 beautiful 17 55 97 rich 61 nice life.
2) Life 55 girl 48 family 32 beautiful 17 proud 97 rich 61 72 nice
3) girl 48 family 32 beautiful 17 proud 55 97 rich 61 72 nice life
4) family 32 beautiful 17 proud girl 48 55 97 rich 61 72 nice life
5) girl 48 life 55 family 32 beautiful 17 proud 97 rich 61 72 nice

19. What is the position of 'nice' from the left end in the final step?
1) Fifth 
2) Sixth 
3) Seventh
4) Eighth 
5) Ninth

20. Which element is third to the right of 'family' in Step V?
1) beautiful 
2) 17 
3) proud
4) 97 
5) 32

General Awareness:

1. Who was the Captain of Australian Cricket Team which currently (March 2013) visited India?
1) Michael Clarke 
2) Shane Watson 
3) Shane Warne
4) Michael Hussey 
5) Ricky Ponting

2. Government, as part of the recapitalisation plan, infused capital in State Bank of India recently. Indicate the approximate capital infusion.
1) Rs.500 Cr. 
2) Rs.1,000 Cr. 
3) Rs.1,500 Cr.
4) Rs.2,000 cr. 
5) Rs.3,000 Cr.

3. The NRIs while investing in the equity of a company cannot buy more than a prescribed percentage of the paid-up capital of that company. What is the prescribed percentage?
1) 2% 
2) 3% 
3) 4%
4) 5% 
5) 6%

4. Every year March 20 is celebrated as what day?
1) World Sparrow Day 
2) International Women's Day
3) World Cuckoo Day 
4) International Children's Day
5) International Mother's Day

5. One of the famous Indian sportspersons released his/her autobiography 'Playing to Win' in November 2012. Name the sportsperson correctly.
1) Saina Nehwal 
2) Mary Kom 
3) Yuvraj Singh
4) Sachin Tendulkar 
5) Sushil Kumar

6. Which of the following terms is associated with the game of Cricket?
1) Bouncer 
2) Love 
3) Goal
4) Mid Court 
5) Collision

7. Who is the author of the book Women of Vision?
1) Ravinder Singh 
2) Preeti Shenoy 
3) Amish Tripathi
4) Durjoy Dutta 
5) Alam Srinivas

8. Prof. Muhammad Yunus, the recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize 2006, is the exponent of which of the following concepts in the filed of banking?
1) Core Banking 
2) Micro Credit
3) Retail Banking 
4) Real Time Gross Settlement
5) Internet Banking

9. Invisible export means export of
1) Services 
2) Prohibited goods
3) Restricted goods 
4) Good as per OGL list
5) Other than those given as options

10. The European Union has adopted which of the following as a common currency?
1) Dollar 
2) Dinar 
3) Yen
4) Euro 
5) Peso

11. Banks is India are required to maintain a portion on of their demand and time liabilities with the Reserve Bank of India. This portion is called
1) Reverse Repo 
2) Cash Reserve Ratio
3) Bank Deposit 
4) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
5) Government Securities

12. Pre-shipment finance is provided by the banks only to
1) Credit Card Holders 
2) Students aspiring for further studies
3) Brokers in equity market 
4) Village Artisans
5) Exporters

13. Banking Ombudsman is appointed by
1) Government of India 
2) State Governments
3) RBI 
4) ECGC
5) Exim Bank

14. The Holidays for the Banks are declared as per
1) Reserve Bank Act
2) Banking Regulation Act
3) Negotiable Instruments Act
4) Securities and Exchange Board of India Act
5) Companies Act

15. Interest on Savings deposit nowadays is
1) Fixed by the RBI 
2) Fixed by the respective Banks
3) Fixed by the depositors
4) Fixed as per the contract between Bank and the Consumer Court
5) Not paid by he Bank

16. Interest below which a bank is not expected to lend to customers is known as
1) Deposit Rate 
2) Base Rate 
3) Bank Rate
4) Prime Lending Rate 
5) Discount Rate

17. The customers by opening and investing in the Tax Saver Deposit Account  Scheme in a Bank would get benefit under
1) Sales Tax 
2) Customs Duty 
3) Excise Duty
4) Professional Tax 
5) Income Tax

18. In Banking business, when the borrowers avail a Term Loan, initially they are given a repayment holiday and this is referred as
1) Subsidy 
2) Interest waiver 
3) Re-phasing
4) Interest concession 
5) Moratorium

19. One of the IT companies from India has become the first Indian Company to trade on NYSE Euronext London and Paris markets from February 2013 onwards. Which is this company?
1) Wipro Infotech Ltd.
2) L&T Infotech
3) HCL Technologies Ltd.
4) Infosys Technologies Ltd.
5) Polaris Financial Technology Ltd.

20. BSE (Bombay Stock Exchange), the oldest stock exchange in Asia, has joined hands with one more international index in February 2013. This association has resulted in change of name of BSE index. What is the change of name effected?
1) Dow Jones BSE Index 
2) NASDAQ BSE Index
3) S&P BSE Index 
4) Euronext BSE Index
5) Other than those given as options

21. A non-performing asset is
1) Money at call and short notice 
2) An asset at cease to generate income
3) Cash balance in till 
4) Cash balance with the RBI
5) Balance with other banks

22. RBI released its guidelines for entry of new banks in the private sector in the month of Febraury 2013. One of the norms is at least a prescribed percentage of branches of a new bank should be set up in unbanked rural centres with a population upto 9,999. What is the percentage of such branches prescribed in the norms?
1) 10% 
2) 15% 
3) 18%
4) 25% 
5) Other than those given as options

23. The Union Budget for 2013-14 proposed by the Finance Minister on 28th February 2013 announced introduction of a new variety of bonds by the Government. What is the name of these bonds?
1) Deep Discount Bonds 
2) Zero Coupon bonds
3) Bullet Bonds 
4) Inflation Indexed Bonds
5) Inflation Variable Bonds

24. Government usually classifies its expenditure in terms of planned and non-planned expenditure. Identify which is the correct definition of planned expenditure.
1) It represent the expenditure of all the State Governments.
2) It represents the total expenditure or the Central Government.
3) It is the expenditure which is spent through centrally sponsored programmes and flagship schemes of the Government.
4) It reprensents the expenditure incurred on Defence.
5) Other than those given as options

25. Which of the following organisations is made specifically responsible for empowering Micro, Small and Medium enterprises in India?
1) NABARD 
2) RBI 
3) SIDBI
4) ECGC 
5) SEBI

English Language:

Directions (Q. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Financial Inclusion (FI) is an emerging priority for banks that have nowhere else to go to achieve business growth. The viability of FI Business is under Question, because while banks and their delivery partners continue to make investments, they haven't seen commensurate returns. In markets like India, most programmes are focussed on customer on boarding, an expensive process which people often find difficult to afford, involving issuance of smart cards to the customers. However, largescale customer acquisition hasn't translated into large-scale business, with many
accounts lying dormant and therefore yielding no return on the bank's investment. For the same reason. Business Correspondent Agents, who constitute the primary channel for financial inclusion, are unable to pursue their activity as a full-time job. One major reason for this state of events is that the customer on-boarding process is often delayed after the submission of documents (required to validate the details of the concerned applicant) by the applicant and might take as long as two weeks. By this time initial enthusiasm of applicants fades away. Moreover, the delivery partners don't have the knowledge and skill to propose anything other than the most basic financial products to the customer and hence do not serve their banks' goal to expanding the offering in unbanked markets.

Contrary to popular perception, the inclusion segment is not a singular impoverished, undifferentiated mass and it is important to navigate its diversity to identify the right target customers for various programmes. Rural markets do have their share of rich people who do not use banking services simply because they are inconvenient to access or have low perceived value. At the same time, urban markets, despite a high branch density, have multitude of low wage earners outside the financial net. Moreover, the branch timings of banks rarely coincide with the off-work
horus of the labour class.

Creating affordability is crucial in tapping the unbanked market. No doubt pricing is a tool, but banks also need to be innovative in right-sizing their proposition to convince customers that they can derive big value even from small amounts. One way  'of' doing this is to show the target audience that a bank account is actually a lifestyle enabler, a convenient and safe means to send money to family or make a variety of purchases. Once banks succeed in hooking customers with this value proposition they must sustain their interest by introducing a simple and intuitive user application,
ubiquitous access over mobile and other touch points, and adopting a banking mechanism which is not only secure but also reassuring to the customer. Technology is the most important element of financial inclusion strategy and an enabler of all others. The choice of technology is therefore a crucial decision, which could make or mar the agenda. Of the various selection criteria, cost is perhaps the most important. This certainly does not mean buying the cheapest package, but rather choosing that solution which by scaling transactions to huge volumes reduces per unit operating
cost. An optimal mix of these strategies would no doubt offer an innovative means of expansion in the unbanked market.

1. Which of the following facts is true as per the passage?
1) People from rural areas have high perceived value of banking services.
2) Cost is not a valid Criterion for technological package selection for financial inclusion initiatives.
3) The inclusion segment is a singular impoverieshed, undifferentiated mass.
4) The branch timings of banks generally do not coincide with the off-work hours of the labour class in urban markets.
5) All the given statements are true.

2. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons do the delivery partners fail to serve their bank's goal to expand in the unbanked markets?
(A) They do not have adequate client base to sell their financial products.
(B) They do not have adequate knowledge and skills to explain anything beyond basic financial products to the customers.
(C) They do not have the skills to operate advanced technological aids that are a prerequisite to tap the unbanked market.
1) Only (B) 
2) Only (C) 
3) All (A), (B) & (C)
4) Only (A) 
5) Both (B) and (C)

3. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons is the viability of financial inclusion under question?
1) Banks always prefer the cheapest package (to cust cost) while making a choice of technology to be used.
2) The Business Correspondent Agents are highly demotiviated to pursue their activity as a full-time job.
3) The investments made by banks and their delivery partners are not yielding equal amounts of returns.
4) Banks do not have adequate number of delivery partners required to tap the unbanked market.
5) Banks do not have adequate manpower to explore the diversity of the unbanked market and thereby identify the right target customers for various programmes.

4. In the passage, the author has specified which of the following characteristics of the customer on-boarding process?
1) It involves collection of documents from the applicants in order to validate their details.
2) It involves issuance of smart cards to the customers.
3) It suffers from latency as it takes a long time after submission of documents by the customer.
4) It is an expensive process which people find difficult to afford.
5) All of the given characteristics have been specified

5. What did the author try to highlight in the passage?
(A) The ailing condition of financial inclusion business at present
(B) Strategies that may help banks expand in the unbanked market
(C) Role of government in modifying the existing financial-inclusion policies
1) Both (A) and (B) 
2) All (A), (B) and (C) 
3) Only (C)
4) Only (A) 
5) Only (B)

6. According to the passage, which of the following ways may help banks sustain the interest of their customers after hooking them?
(A) Adoption of a banking mechanism which is not only secure but reassuring to the customers
(B) Increasing the number of delivery partners in rural market.
(C) Introduction of a simple and intuitive user application
1) Only (A) 
2) Only (C) 
3) Only (B)
4) All (A), (B) and (C) 
5) Both (A) and (C)

Directions (Q. 7-8): Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
7. Multitude
1) Impoverished 
2) Handful 
3) Acknowledged
4) Plenty 
5) Solitued

8. Ubiquitous
1) Quintessential 
2) Popular 
3) Omnipresent
4) Simplified 
5) Abnormal

Directions (Q. 9-10) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
9. Dormant
1) Emaciated 
2) Pertinent 
3) Cornered
4) Rejected 
5) Active

10. Delayed
1) Perturbed 
2) Popularised 
3) Expedited
4) Stabilised 
5) Repressed

Directions (Q. 11-20): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The evolution of Bring your Own Device (BYOD) trend has been as profound as it has been rapid. It represents the more visible sign that the boundaries between personal life and work life are blurring. The 9 am - 5 pm model of working solely from office has become archaic and increasingly people are working extended hours from a range of locations. At the very heart of this evolution is the ability to access enterprise networks from anywhere and anytime. The concept of cloud computing serves effectively to extend the office out of office. The much heralded benefit of BYOD is greater productivity. However, recent research has suggested that this is the greatest myth of BYOD and the reality is that BYOD in practice poses new challenges that may outweigh the benefits. A worldwide survey commissioned by Fortinet chose to look at attitudes towards BYOD and security from the user's point of view instead of the IT Managers'. Specifically the survey was conducted in 15 territories on a group of graduate employees in their early twenties because they represent the fist generation to enter the workplace with an expectation of own device use. Moreover, they also represent tomorrow's influencers and decision makers. The survey findings reveal that for financial organisations, the decision to embrace BYOD is extremely dangerous.Larger organisations will have mature IT strategies and policies in place. But what about smaller financial business? They might not have such well developed strategies to protect confidential data.

Crucially, within younger employee group, 55% of the people share an expectation that they should be allowed to use their own devices in the workplace or for work purposes. With this expectation comes the very real risk that employees may consider contravening company policy banning the use of own devices. The threats posed by this level of subversion cannot be overstated. The survey casts doubt on the idea of BYOD leading to greater productivity by revealing the real reason people want to use their own devices. Only 26% of people in this age group cite efficiency as the reason they want to use their own devices, while 63% admit that the main reason is so they have access to their favourite applications. But with personal applications so close to hand the risks to the business must surely include distraction and time wasting. To support this assumption 46% of people poled acknowledged time wasting as the greatest threat to the organisation, while 42% citing greater exposure to theft or loss of confidential data. Clearly, from a user perspective there is great deal of contradiction surroundnig BYOD and there exists an undercurrent of selfishness where users expect to use their own devices, but mostly for personal interest. They recognise the risks to the organisation but are adamant that those risks are worth taking.

11. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons did Fortinet conduct the survey on a group of graduate employees in their early twenties?
(A) As this group represents the future decision makers.
(B) As this group represents the first generation who entered the workforce with a better understanding of sophisticated gadgets.
(C) As this group represents the first generation to enter the workplace expecting that they can use their own devices for work purpose.
1) All (A), (B) and (c) 
2) Only (C) 
3) Both (A) and (C)
4) Only (A) 
5) Only (B)

12. Which of the following is not true BYOD?
1) BYOD enables employees to access enterprise network from anywhere and anytime.
2) Due to evolution of BYOD trend the 9 am- 5 pm model of working solely from office has become outdated.
3) Recent research has confirmed that BYOD boosts organisational productivity.
4) The concept of cloud computing facilitates the BYOD trend.
5) All the given facts are true

13. According to the passage, why would the decision to embrace BYOD prove dangerous to smaller financial businesses?
1) Their employers have poor knowledge about their devices, which in turn poses a threat the confidential data of the organisation.
2) Their employees are more vulnerable to misplacement of devices.
3) They may lack mature IT strategies and policies required to protect confidential data.
4) They cannot afford to deal with damage liability issues of employee-owned devices.
5) Their employees have a tendency to change jobs frequently.

14. According to the passage, the expectation of Younger employees that they should be allowed to use their own devices in the workplace, entails which of the following risks?
A) Younger employees may deliberately transfer confidential data of their companies to rivals if they are not allowed to use their own devices for work purpose.
B) Younger employees may strongly feel like leaving the company if it prevents usage of their own device and join some other company that does not have such stringent policies.
C) Younger employees may consider flouting company policy prohibiting usage of their own devices in the workplace or for work purposes.
1) Only (C) 
2) Only (B) 
3) Both (A), (C)
4) only (A) 
5) All (A), (B) and (C)

15. According to the findings of the survey conducted by Fortinet, why do majority of employees prefer using their own devices for work purpose?
1) As they often find that the devices provided by the company lack quality.
2) As they have access to their favourite applications while working
3) As majority of them believe that output doubles when they use their own devices for work purpose
4) As handling data from their own devices reinforces their sence of responsibility
5) As it helps them create a brand of their own

16. What is/are the author's main objective(s) in writing the passage?
(A) To break the myth that BYOD promotes employee efficiency and organisational productivity
(B) To suggest ways to control subversion across levels of corporate chain of command
(C) To throw light upon the fact that employees, even after knowing the risks involved, prefer to use their own devices for work purpose, mostly for personal benefits
1) Both (A) and (C) 
2) All (A), (B) and (C) 
3) Only (C)
4) Only (A) 
5) Only (B)

Directions (Q. 17-18): Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

17. Heralded
1) Suspected 
2) Publicised 
3) Dragged
4) Objective 
5) Benefit

18. Outweigh
1) Control 
2) Venture 
3) Perish
4) Determine 
5) Surpass

Directions (Q. 19-20): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

19. Embrace
1) Contradict 
2) Disobey 
3) Curtail
4) Reject 
5) Obscure

20. Subversion
1) Compliance 
2) Sanity 
3) Popularity
4) Destabilisation 
5) Clarity

Directions (Q. 21-25): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/ error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of that part with error as your answer. If there is 'No error', mark 5)

21. 1) There cannot be any situation where/ 2) somebody makes money in an asset / 3) located in India and does not pay tax/ 4) either to India or to the country of his origin. / 5) No error

22. 1) India has entered a downward spiral / 2) Where the organised, productive /3) and law abide sectors are subject to / 4) savage amounts of multiple taxes. /5) No error

23. 1) The bank may have followed / 2) an aggressive monetary tightening policy /3) but its stated aim of / 4) curbing inflation have not been achieved. / 5)No error

24. 1) Equal Opportunities for advancement / 2) across the length and breadth /3) of an organisation will / 4) keep many problems away. / 5) No error

25. 1) A customised data science degree / 2) is yet to become / 3) a standard programme/ 4) to India's Premier educational institutes. / 5) No error

Directions (Q. 26-30): Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

26. When you want to digitalise a city .......... with millions, you don't bet ...............the odds.
1) proceeding, into 
2) teeming, against
3) undergoing, adhere 
4) dangling, for 
5). falling, above

27. The numbers ............. by the legitimate online music service providers indicate that a growing number of users are ......... to buy music.
1) morphed, ignoring 
2) labelled, thriving 
3) figured, fanatic
4) painted, interested 
5) touted, willing

28. If India is ........... on protecting its resources, international business appears equally .............. to safeguard its profit.
1) dreaded, fragile 
2) stubborn, weak 
3) bent, determined
4) approaching, settled 
5) obsessed, prepared

29. Brands .......... decision-simplicity strategies make full use of available information to ......... where consumers are on the path of decision making and direct them to the best market offers.
1) diluting, divulge 
2) tempting, maintain
3) imputing, overdrive 
4) pursuing, assess 
5) employing, trust

30. Lack of financing options, ........... with HR and technological ........... make small and medium enterprises sector the most vulnerable component of our economy.
1) except, loophole 
2) coupled, challenges
3) armed, benefits 
4) registered, strategies 
5) strengthened, facilities

Bank-of-Baroda-BOB Placement Paper : 47021
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : AshaUpdated Date : Jan 17, 2015

Bank-of-Baroda-BOB Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

                            Bank of Baroda Solved Previous Year Question Paper

                  

                                                            This set of question paper contains questions on reasoning,banking related questions,general awareness,numerical aptitude and compure knowledge.

Reasoning:

1. In certain code DROWN is written as MXNSC. How is BREAK written in that code?
(1) LBFSC
(2) JBDSA 
(3) JZDQA
(4) LZFQC
(5) None of these

2. Among M, N, T, R and D each having a different height, T is taller than D but shorter than M. R is taller than N but shorter than D. Who among them is the tallest?
(1) D
(2) T
(3) M 
(4) R
(5) N

3. How many such digits are there in the number 5436182 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?
(1) None
(2) One 
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

4. What should come next in the letter series given below?
D D E D E F D E F G D E F G H D E F G H I D E F G H I J D
(1) D
(2) E 
(3) F
(4) J
(5) None of these

5. The letters in the word MORTIFY are changed in such a way that the vowels are replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and the consonants are replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet. Which of the following will be the fourth letter from the right end of the new set of letters?
(1) S
(2) H
(3) G
(4) N
(5) None of these 

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Leaf
(2) Flower
(3) Petal
(4) Fruit
(5) Tree 

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Garlic
(2) Ginger
(3) Carrot
(4) Radish
(5) Brinjal 

8. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ALPE using each letter only once in each word?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) 24
(2) 48
(3) 32
(4) 72
(5) 64

10. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHAMBERS each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two 
(4) Three
(5) More than three

11-15. In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statement to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer :
(1) if only Conclusion I follows.
(2) if only Conclusion II follows.
(3) if either Conclusion I or II follows.
(4) if neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
(5) if both Conclusions I and II follow.

Statements :
11. Some toys are desks.
Some desks are pens.
All pens are rods.
Conclusions :
I. Some rods are toys.
II. Some pens are toys.
(Ans : 4)

Statements :
12. Some tables are huts.
No hut is ring.
All rings are bangles.
Conclusions :
I. Some bangles are tables.
II. No bangle is table.
(Ans : 2)

Statements :
13. All stars are clouds.
All clouds are rains.
All rains are stones.
Conclusions :
I. All rains are stars.
II. All clouds are stones.
(Ans : 2)

Statements :
14. All windows are doors.
Some doors are buildings.
All buildings are cages.
Conclusions :
I. Some cages are doors.
II. Some buildings are windows
(Ans : 1)

Statements :
15. Some chairs are rooms.
All rooms are trees.
All trees are poles.
Conclusions :
I. Some poles are chairs.
II. Some trees are chairs.
(Ans : 5)

Banking Related Questions:

1. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) Banks cannot accept demand and time deposits from public
(2) Banks can accept only demand deposits from public
(3) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public
(4) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public 
(5) Banks can accept demand and time deposits only from government

2. Which of the following is the correct statement?
(1) State Bank of India is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
(2) A nationalized bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
(3) A cooperative bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
(4) RBl is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
(5) None of the above

3. Interest payable on savings bank accounts is
(1) not regulated by RBI
(2) regulated by Sate Governments
(3) regulated by Central Government
(4) regulated by RBI 
(5) regulated by Finance Minister

4. The usual deposit accounts of banks are
(1) current accounts, electricity accounts and insurance premium accounts
(2) current accounts post office savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(3) loan accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(4) current accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(5) current bill accounts and term deposit accounts

5. Fixed deposits and recurring deposits are
(1) repayable after an agreed period
(2) repayable on demand
(3) not repayable
(4) repayable after death of depositors
(5) repayable on demand or after an agreed period as per bank’s choice

6. Accounts are allowed to be operated by cheques in respect of
(1) both savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts
(2) savings bank accounts and current accounts
(3) both savings bank accounts and loan accounts
(4) both savings bank accounts and cash accounts only
(5) both Current accounts and fixed deposit accounts

7. Which of the following is correct statement?
(1) Normally no interest is paid on current deposit accounts
(2) Interest is paid on current accounts at the same rate as term deposit accounts
(3) The rate of interest on current account and savings account are the same
(4) No interest is paid on any deposit by the bank
(5) Savings deposits are the same as current deposits

8. Mortgage is a
(1) security on movable property for a loan given by a bank
(2) security on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
(3) concession on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
(4) facility on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
(5) security on immovable property for a deposit received by a bank

9. Which of the following is known as cross selling by banks?
(A) Sale of a debit card to a credit card holder.
(B) Sale of Insurance policy to a depositor.
(C) Insurance of cash against cheque presented by a third party.
(1) Only (A) 
(2) Only (B) 
(3) Only (C)
(4) Both (A) and (C) 
(5) All (A), (B) and (C)

10. Financial inclusion means provision of
(1) financial services namely, payments, remittances, savings, loans and insurance at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
(2) ration at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
(3) house at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
(4) food at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
(5) education at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same

11. When a bank returns a cheque unpaid, it is called
(1) payment of the cheque
(2) drawing of the cheque
(3) canceling of the cheque
(4) dishonour of the cheque
(5) taking of the cheque

12. NEFT means
(1) National Electronic Funds Transfer system
(2) Negotiated Efficient Fund Transfer system
(3) National Efficient Fund Transfer solution
(4) Non Effective Fund Transfer system
(5) Negotiated Electronic Foreign Transfer system

13. Upper limit prescribed for RTGS transaction is
(1) Rs. 1 lac 
(2) Rs. 2 lacs 
(3) Rs. 5 lacs 
(4) Rs. 50 lacs 
(5) No upper limit is prescribed

14. Distribution of insurance products and insurance policies by banks as corporate agents is known as
(1) General Insurance 
(2) Non-life Insurance 
(3) Bancassurance
(4) Insurance Banking 
(5) Deposit Insurance

15. In order to attract more foreign exchange the Government of India decided to allow foreign investment in LLP firms. What is full form of ‘LLP’ as used in this reference?
(1) Local Labour Promotion
(2) Low Labour Projects
(3) Limited Loan Partnership
(4) Longer Liability Partnership
(5) Limited Liability Partnership

16. Interest on Saving bank account is now calculated by banks on
(1) minimum balance during the month
(2) minimum balance from 7th to last day of the month
(3) minimum balance from 10th to last day of the month
(4) maximum balance during the month
(5) daily product basis

17. Largest shareholder (in percentage shareholding) of a nationalized bank is
(1) RBI 
(2) NABARD 
(3) LICI 
(4) Government of India
(5) IBA

18. When the rate of inflation increases
(1) purchasing power of money increases
(2) purchasing power of money decreases
(3) value of money increases
(4) purchasing power of money remains unaffected
(5) amount of money in circulation decreases

19. A centralized databases with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is own as
(1) Investment Banking 
(2) core Banking
(3) Mobile Banking 
(4) National Banking
(5) Specialized Banking

20. The Unit Trust of India came into existence in
(1) 1960 
(2) 1962 
(3) 1964
(4) 1966 
(5) 1968

General Awareness:

1. This Sikkim high court Chief facing impeachment on charges of corruption and judicial misconduct resigned on 29 July 2011. Identify him.
a. Justice PD Dinakaran
b. Justice V Ramaswamy
c. Justice Soumitra Sen
d. Justice P C Joshi

2. US credit rating was downgraded to__ from AAA by Standard & Poor’s.
a) AA+
b) A
c) A+
d) B+

3. Which Indian state on 11 August 2011 flagged off the first-ever consignment of certified organic food to be exported to the United States?
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Tamil Nadu
c. Rajasthan
d. Arunachal Pradesh

4. Tory Tan won the presidential election in Singapore to become the country’s___ President.
a) Sixth
b) Seventh
c) Fifth
d) Eighth

5. The European Union on 2 September 2011 announced a ban on oil imports from Syria. The European Union is an economic and political union of __member states.
a) 27
b) 22
c) 20
d) 16

6. Leila Lopes became the first woman from her country to be crowned Miss Universe on 12 September 2011 in Sau Paulo, Brazil. Which country does she belong to?
a. Ethupia
b. Angola
c. Ghana
d. Nigeria

7. Which one of the following nations declared the Indian Mujahideen terror group as a global terrorist organization?
a) USA
b) Pakistan
c) China
d) Australia

8. Wangari Maathai an environmentalist & first African woman to win a Nobel Peace Prize died on 25 September 2011 in Nairobi. Which African country did she belong to?
a. Ghana
b. Kenya
c. Euthopia
d. South Africa

9. World Tourism Day (WTD) is observed anually on 27 September. What was the theme for WTD 2011?
a. Tourism – Linking Cultures
b. Tourism & Biodiversity
c. Tourism opens doors for women
d. Sport and tourism

10. IBSA summit concluded in Pretoria, South Africa. What is the full form of IBSA?
a) India Brazil South America
b) India Brazil South Africa
c) India Brazil Saudi Arabia
d) India Bangladesh South Africa

11. Who won the 2011 man Booker Prize for his short novel The Sense of an Ending?
a. Carol Birch
b. Patrick deWitt
c. Julian Barnes
d. AD Miller

12. Name the Irish poet and human rights activist who was named Ireland’s ninth president on 30 October 2011 after winning 57% of votes in the final count of the presidential election held on 27
October 2011.
a. Michael D Higgins
b. Mary McAleese
c. Douglas Hyde
d. Mary Robinson

13. IAEA Report stated that Iran carried out Nuclear Weapons-Related Activities. Where the report was released?
a) New Delhi
b) New York
c) London
d) Vienna

14. Recently, which one of the following nations was suspended by the Arab league?
a) Syria
b) Lebanon
c) Saudi Arabia
d) Jordan

15. The Arab League on 27 November 2011 imposed a set of sanctions against Syria for its failure to comply with the League mediated peace plan to end violence in the country. When was
Arab league set up?
a) 22 March 1945
b) 21 august 1945
c) 22 March 1946
d) 22 September 1950

16. Memogate scandal is related to which one of the following countries?
a) Pakistan
b) Sri Lanka
c) China
d) India

17. India and Pakistan on 25 January 2012 agreed to transit fee formula for Tapi gas pipeline project in New Delhi. Tasi gas pipeline project comprises
a) India, Pakistan and Tajikistan
b) India, Pakistan and Russia
c) India, Pakistan and Iran
d) India, Pakistan and Afghanistan

18. A massive avalanche claimed the life of more than hundred Pakistani soldiers on 9 April 2012. The incident occurred at which of the following places?
a. Eastern Karakoram mountain range
b. Southern Karakoram mountain range
c. Northern Karakoram mountain range
d. Southern Karakoram mountain range

19. Who did the World Bank appoint as its new president on 16 April 2012?
a. Jim Yong Kim
b. Robert Zoellick
c. Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala
d. Lumen Darcy

20. Amadou Toumani Toure, who was ousted from his position following a military coup, was the president of _ _ _ _ _ _
a. Tunisia
b. Azerbaijan
c. Mali
d. Maldives

Numerical Aptitude:

Find out the missing term
1. U, O, I, __ , A
A. E
B. C
C. S
D. G

2. If A's height is 40% less than that of B, how much percent B's height is more than that of A?
A. 3 1/3 %
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 66 2/3%

3. If 3x - 3x-1 = 18 then the value of xx is
A. 3
B. 8
C. 27
D. 216

4. If 1 is added to the denominator of a fraction, the fraction becomes 1/2. If 1 is added to the numerator of a fraction, the fraction becomes 1. The fraction is
A. 1/3
B. 2/3 
C. 3/4
D. 3/2

5. The difference between two positive integers is 3. If the sum of their squares is 369, then the sum of the numbers
A. 27 
B. 29
C. 33
D. 81

Choose the correct alternative :
6. 6 : 18 : : 4 ?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8 
D. 16

7. Pointing to a photograph, a woman says, "This man's son's sister is my mother - in - law". How is the woman's husband related to the man in the photograph.
A. Grandson 
B. Son
C. Son - in - law
D. Nephew

8. If 5% more is gained by selling an article for Rs. 350 than by selling it for Rs. 340, the cost of the article is
A. Rs. 50
B. Rs. 200
C. Rs. 160
D. Rs. 225

9. A and B can do a piece of work in 18 days, B and C in 24 days, A and C in 36 days. If A, B and C work together, they will complete the work in
A. 4 days
B. 8 days
C. 12 days
D. 16 days 

10. A train 108m long moving at a speed of 50 km/hr crosses a train 112m long coming from opposite direction in 6 seconds. The speed of the second train is
A. 48 km/hr
B. 54 km/hr
C. 82 km/hr
D. 66 km/hr

11. The simple interest on Rs. 1820 from March 09, 2012 to Many 21, 2012 at 7 1/2% rate will be
A. Rs. 22.50
B. Rs. 27.30 
C. Rs. 28.80
D. Rs. 29

Find out the wrong term in the series :
12. 89, 78, 86, 80, 85, 82, 83
A. 83
B. 82
C. 86
D. 78

13. There are five different houses, A to E, in a row. A is to the right of B and E is to the left of C and right of A. B is to the right of D. Which of the house is in the middle?
A. A 
B. B
C. D
D. E

14. A metallic cone of radius 12cm and height, 24cm is melted and made into spheres of radius 2cm each. How many spheres are there?
A. 108 
B. 120
C. 144
D. 180

15. In a 100m race, A covers the distance in 36 seconds and B in 45 seconds. In this race a beats is
A. 25m
B. 20m 
C. 9m
D. 22.5m

Computer Knowledge:

1.In a network, the computer that stores the files and process the data is named as
a) Server
b) Terminal
c) Modem
d) All of the above

2. Viruses are called that because
a) They are viruses
b) They can copy themselves and spread
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above

3. Which of the can't spread virus
a) An e-mail with attachment
b) A plain text mail
c) Downloading files over the web
d) None of the above

4. There is a new anti-virus software update available, when it is downloaded to your computer
a) Everyday
b) Only in the night
c) When you next switch on your computer
d) All of the above

5. Numbers are stored and transmitted inside a computer in
a) Binary form
b) ASCII code form
c) Alphabets form
d) Numerical form

6. CPU capacity can be measured in
a) BPS
b) MIPS
c) MHz
d) MPI

7. MPIS stands for
a) Million Instructions Per Second
b) Million Instructions Per Season
c) Monthly Instructions Per Second
d) Million Inputs Per Second

8. LAN speeds are measured in
a) BPS
b) KBPS
c) MBPS
d) MIPS

9. Modem speeds are measured in
a) BPS
b) KBPS
c) MBPS
d) MIPS

10. BPS stands for
a) Bits Per Second
b) Bits Per Season
c) Bytes Per Second
d) Bits Per System

11. Technology no longer protected by copyright, available to everyone, is considered to be:
(A) proprietary
(B) open
(C) experimental
(D) in the public domain
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

12. A typical modern computer uses
(A) Magnetic cores
(B) LSI chips
(C) Magnetic tapes
(D) More than 1000 vacuum tubes
(E) None of these

13.ALU is called for _____ of a computer
(A) Heart
(B) Master dispatcher
(C) Primary memory
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these

14. A single dimensional array is called
(A) List
(B) Subscripts
(C) Matrix
(D) File
(E) None of these

15.How many types of drawing objects are available in drawing Tool Bar ?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 12
(E) None of these

16.Data processing is___
(A) data collection
(B) similar to computer programming
(C) associated with commercial work
(D) akin to data coding
(E) None of these

17.In computer terminology, information means
(A) Raw data
(B) Data in more useful
(C) Alphanumeric data
(D) Program
(E) None of these

18.What is meant by the term RAM?
(A) Memory which can only be read
(B) Memory which can be both read and written to
(C) Memory which is used for permanent storage
(D) Memory which can only be written to
(E) None of these

19. In UNIX, which command is used to sort the lines of data in a file in reverse order
(A) sort
(B) sh
(C) st
(D) sort –r
(E) None of these

20. The commonly used UNIX commands like date, ls, cat etc. are stored in
(A) /dev directory
(B) /bin directory
(C) /tmp directory
(D) /unix directory
(E) None of these

SBT Placement Paper : 47019
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : ArjunUpdated Date : Jan 17, 2015

SBT Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

                                   SBT Previous Year Solved Question Paper

 

Reasoning:

1. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ADIC using each letter only once in each word?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group, which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Violin
(2) Harp
(3) Guitar
(4) Flute
(5) Sitar

3. If it is possible to mark only one meaningful word with the first,fourth, fifth and tenth letters of the word TELEVISION, which of the fallowing would be the second letter of that word from the right end? If no such word can be made, give 'X' as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as 'Y'.
(1) X
(2) L
(3) N
(4) E
(5) Y

4. In a certain code TRUMP is written SUTQN. How is FIRED written in that code?
(1) GJQEF
(2) JGEQF
(3) JQFEF
(4) JGQFE
(5) JGQEF

5. In a certain language 'give me more' is coded as '7 3 5', 'she has more' is coded as '9 7 1' and 'she asked me gently' is coded as '6 3 2 1'. Which of the following is the code for 'give' in that language?
(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 9
(5) 1

6. If each of the vowels in the word GOLIATHS is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series, and then the alphabets so formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following will be sixth from the left of the new arrangement thus formed?
(1) S
(2) P
(3) G
(4) J
(5) F

7. In a certain language 'WEAK' is coded as 4$9β' and REST' is coded as 7$8#' and 'WREK' is ceded as '4$β7'. How will 'KEWRA' be coded in the same code?
(1) 7 4 $ β #
(2) β 7 $ 8 #
(3) # β 9 7 4
(4) $ β 7 9 4
(5) 4 7 8 β $

8. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FORMATION each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

9. If the digits in the number 79246358 are arranged in descending order from left to right, what will be the difference between the digits which are third from the right and second from the left in the new arrangement?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
(5) 5

10. 'Music' is related to 'Notes' in the same way as 'Language' is related to _____
(1) Sentences
(2) Combination
(3) Grammar
(4) Alphabets
(5) Syntax

Directions  Qns(11-15) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow :
If 'P * Q means 'P is the mother of Q'.
If 'P x Q' means 'P is the father of Q'.
If 'P + Q' means 'P is the sister of Q'.
If 'P - Q' means 'P is the brother of Q'.
If 'P > Q' means 'P is the son of Q'.
If 'P < Q' means 'P is the daughter of Q'.

11. In the expression 'A x B + R > S' how is S related to A?
(1) Daughter
(2) Son
(3) Niece
(4) Nephew
(5) Cannot be determined

12. Which of the following means P is the father of S ?
(1) P x Q < R * S
(2) R x P < Q - S
(3) R + S > Q + P
(4) S + Q - R * P
(5) Cannot be determined

13. In the expression 'P + Q> A - B' how is P related to B?
(1) Daughter
(2) Son
(3) Niece
(4) Nephew
(5) Cannot be determined

14. Which of the following means D is the aunt of C?
(1) D > B * A * C
(2) D + B - C * A
(3) D - B - A x C
(4) D + B x A x C
(5) None of these

15. In the expression 'W > X < Y * Z 'how is W related to Z?
(1) Nephew
(2) Uncle
(3) Son
(4) Brother-in-law
(5) None of these

Marketing and Computer Awareness:

1. Marketing in Banks is required for _____
(1) Getting new customers
(2) Retaining existing customers
(3) Lending
(4) Accepting of deposits
(5) All of these

2. Service Marketing is the same as _____
(1) Relationship Marketing
(2) Transaction Marketing
(3) Internal Marketing
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

3. Market size Means ___
(1) Size of marketing staff
(2) Size of the Organization
(3) Scope for profits
(4) Scope for marketing
(5) None of these

4. Market share means ___
(1) Market price of shares
(2) Sensex
(3) Share market
(4) Share of business among peers
(5) Market volatility

5. Internal Marketing means ____
(1) Selling to oneself
(2) Selling to the employees
(3) Selling of samples
(4) Selling to foreign markets
(5) None of these

6. A 'Call' means ____
(1) A Profession
(2) Teletalk
(3) Calling on a Prospect
(4) A Call Centre
(5) All of these

7. A 'Call Centre' is ___
(1) A Place where Salesmen meet every day
(2) A training Centre
(3) A Back Office set up where customer queries are answered
(4) Customers meeting place
(5) All of these

8. A presentation means ___
(1) Display of products
(2) Explaining the utility of products
(3) A gift
(4) Display of Communication skills
(5) All of these

9. A DSA means ____
(1) Directly Selling Authority
(2) Directly Selling Agent,
(3) Direct Selling Authority
(4) Direct Selling Agent
(5) Distributors & Selling Agencies

10. 'Benchmark' means _____
(1) Products lined up on a bench
(2) Salesmen sitting on a bench
(3) Set standards
(4) Marks on a bench
(5) None of these

11. Value - added services means ______
(1) Giving full value for money
(2) Better value for higher price
(3) Costlier service
(4) Additional service
(5) All the above

12. CRM means ____
(1) Customer Relationship Management
(2) Customer Retention Manager
(3) Customer Relatives Meet
(4) Channel Route Market
(5) Channel Representative Manager

13. A 'Target Group' in Marketing ______
(1) To whom the sales should be directed
(2) A Group of Sellers
(3) A Group of Buyers
(4) A Group of Products
(5) All the above

14. The Target Group for Credit Cards is ____
(1) All Card holders
(2) All existing borrowers
(3) Individuals with taxable income
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

15. Bancassurance means ___
(1) Assurance given by banks to Loanees
(2) Assurance to bank with one bank
(3) Assurance to repay loans
(4) Assurance to give good service
(5) Selling insurance products through banks

16. Cross - selling means _____
(1) Selling with a cross face
(2) Selling to Red Cross members
(3) Selling to Blue Cross members
(4) Selling across countries
(5) Selling other products to existing customers

17. ATM means _______
(1) Any Time Marketing
(2) Any Time Money
(3) Any Time Machine
(4) Automatic Teller Machine
(5) Automatic Teller Money

18. Digital Marketing is ______
(1) a way of Direct Marketing
(2) a way of Indirect Marketing
(3) a strategy of the DSAs
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

19. Market segmentation helps in ________
(1) Identifying the target group
(2) Focussed marketing
(3) Improved lead generation
(4) Only (1) & (2)
(5) All (1), (2) & (3)

20. Only one of the following is true. Find the same.
(1) Marketing is not required in a monopolistic situation
(2) Marketing is not required in Public enterprises
(3) Marketing depends on competitors performance
(4) Marketing has no role to play in production levels
(5) Motivated employees do not require sales incentives.

 

Numerical Aptitude:

Directions (1-10) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

1. 38% of 4500 - 25% of ? = 1640
(1) 260
(2) 270
(3) 280
(4) 290
(5) None of these

2.  (?)2 + 152 - 332 = 97
(1) 33
(2) 32
(3) 34
(4) 30
(5) None of these

3. (7921 + 178) - 5.5 = √?
(1) 1512
(2) 1521
(3) 1251
(4) 1531
(5) None of these

4.  9/10 + 3/11 + 7/15 = ?
(1) 1 217/330
(2) 1 221/330
(3) 1 211/330
(4) 1 197/330
(5) None of these

5. 1/4th of 1/2 of 3/4th of 52000 = ?
(1) 4875
(2) 4857
(3) 4785
(4) 4877
(5) None of these

6. 57/67 * 32/171 * 45/128 = ?
(1) 15/262
(2) 15/268
(3) 15/266
(4) 17/268
(5) None of these

7. 283 * 56 + 252 = 20 * ?
(1) 805
(2) 803
(3) 807
(4) 809
(5) None of these

8. (5863 - √2704) * 0.5 = ?
(1) 2955.5
(2) 2905.5
(3) 2590.5
(4) 2909.5
(5) None of these

9. 3√42875 - ? = 21
(1) 18
(2) 13
(3) 15
(4) 11
(5) None of these

10. 25639 - 5252 - 3232 = ?
(1) 17255
(2) 17551
(3) 17515
(4) 17155
(5) None of these

11. The average speed of a train is 3 times the average speed of a car. The car covers a distance of 520 kms in 8 hours. How much distance will the train cover in 13 hours?
(1) 2553 kms
(2) 2585 kms
(3) 2355 kms
(4) 2535 kms
(5) None of these

12. The area of a triangle is half the area of a square. The perimeter of the square is 224 cms. What is the area of the triangle ?
(1) 1856 cm2
(2) 1658 cm2
(3) 1558 cm2
(4) 1586 cm2
(5) None of these

13. Yesterday Priti typed an essay of 5000 words at the speed of 60 words per minute. Today she typed the same essay faster and her speed was 15% more than yesterday. What is the approximate difference in the time she took to type yesterday and the time she took to type today?
(1) 20 minutes
(2) 30 minutes
(3) 10 minutes
(4) 40 minutes
(5) 1 hour

14. How much will be the compound interest to be paid on a principle amount Rs. 85,000/- after 3 years at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a ?
(1) Rs. 16623.36/-
(2) Rs. 16236.36/-
(3) Rs. 16326.36/-
(4) Rs. 16632.36/-
(5) None of these

General Awareness:

1. Hillary Clinton who was in India recently is the U.S. Secretary of _____
(1) Commerce
(2) State
(3) Treasury
(4) Defence
(5) None of these

2. If Indian Banking industry had demonstrated its resilience to external shocks in 2008-09, the credit goes to _______
(A) Policies of the RBI and the Govt. of India
(B) Strength of Indian Business Houses
(C) Foreign aid/investments to Indian companies
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) All (A), (B) and (C)
(5) None of these

3. Tembhli village which was in news is in _____
(1) Bihar
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Orissa
(4) West Bengal
(5) Maharashtra

4. Rohan Bopanna who represented Indian in an international event is a _____
(1) Billiards Player
(2) Golf Player
(3) Chess Player
(4) Table Tennis Player
(5) Lawn Tennis Player

5. AIBA Women's World Boxing championship was organized in September 2010 in ___
(1) Rome
(2) New Delhi
(3) London
(4) Vienna
(5) Barbados

6. Mr. A. K. Antony a Union Minister in the Indian Cabinet recently signed an agreement with South Korea. This mean the agreement is for the Cooperation in the field of ______
(1) Agriculture
(2) Rural Development
(3) Defence
(4) Steel & Iron
(5) None of these

7. What is financial inclusion?
(1) To provide a permanent employment to the unemployed
(2) To Provide a 100 days job to all those who are in need of a job
(3) To provide banking services to all those loving in remote areas
(4) To ensure that all financial transactions amounting Rs. 5,000/- and above are done througth banks.
(5) To provide finances for all

8. Recently the term 3G was very much in news and even a conference on it was organized in India. What is the letter 'G' denotes in 3G
(1) Grade
(2) Group
(3) Global
(4) Guild
(5) Generation

9. Some major banks and financial institutions in various Western countries were to wind up their business and/or declare themselves in financial problems during last few years. This trend is technically known as
(1) Devaluation
(2) Deformation
(3) Global Slowdown
(4) Political backdrop
(5) Globalization

10. Which of the following International sports events was organized in Delhi in October 2012 in which several countries participated?
(1) Asian Games
(2) World Cup Cricket Tournament
(3) Asian Hockey Tournament
(4) Commonwealth Games
(5) None of these

11. Exporters in India get insurance cover and risk cover from which of the following organizations?
(1) SIDBI
(2) NABARD
(3) ECGC
(4) RBI
(5) None of these

12. Which of the following place in India does not have a Stock Exchange?
(1) Kolkata
(2) Ahmedabad
(3) Mumbai
(4) Delhi
(5) Udaipur

13. Sir Mota Singh who was Knighted by the Queen Elizabeth II earlier this year is _______
(1) first Sikh Judge in UK
(2) first Sikh Minister in UK
(3) first Indian to become Vice Chancellor in Cambridge
(4) first Indian to become Governor of a State in USA
(5) None of these

14. 'Ayodhya' which was in news recently is a place in _____
(1) Madhya Pradesh
(2) Bihar
(3) Rajasthan
(4) Jharkhand
(5) Uttar Pradesh

15. Which of the following is the name of a private sector Bank in India?
(1) IDBI Bank
(2) Axis Bank
(3) Corporation Bank
(4) UCO Bank
(5) All are Private Banks

16. The Govt. of India does not provide any direct financial assistance to which of the following schemes?
(1) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment guarantee scheme
(2) Rural Health Mission
(3) Indira Aawas Yojana
(4) Jeevan Stathi Yojana
(5) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana

17. What does the letter 'S' denotes in 'AFSPA' an abbreviation we very often see in newspapers?
(1) Slow
(2) Special
(3) State
(4) Solid
(5) Sovereign

18. Which of the following terms is used in banking and finance?
(1) Abiotic
(2) Demand Deposit
(3) Fat scales
(4) A diabetic
(5) Cathode

19. Which of the following is a food crop?
(1) Maize
(2) Cotton
(3) Palm
(4) Jute
(5) Jatropha

20. Vedanta Alurnina is a company operating in the area of _______
(1) Shipping
(2) Mining
(3) Cement
(4) Textiles
(5) Banking

English Language:

Directions (1-10) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words are printed in hold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time there lived a queen in the city of Benaras. Her name was Khema and she was the wife of King Bahuputtaka. One night, the Queen had a dream of beautiful golden goose that spoke with great wisdom, almost as if he was a sage. She told her husband that she desperately wanted to see a bird just like the one in her dream. So the King asked his ministers to find out all that they could about a bird such as this. He was told that such a bird did exist but was extremely rare and difficult to find. They advised him to build a beautiful lake on the outskirts of Benaras so that be may attract such rare and lovely creatures to reside there. In this way the queen might have her wish.

Towards the north, on Mount Cittakuta, there lived about ninety thousand wild geese headed by a beautiful golden goose called King Dhatarattha. He got to her of this exquisite lake surrounded by water lilies and lotuses floating on the surface. The King had invited all the birds to come and live on it, promising that none of them would ever be harmed. Corn was scattered on a daily basis in order to attract the birds So a couple of geese went up to their King, the golden goose and lold him that they were quite tired of living up on the mountains and would like to see this wonderful lake where they had been promised food and protection. The king agreed to their request and took the flock down south towards Benaras Meanwhile, at the lake king Bahuputtaka had placed hunters all around in order to capture any golden goose that happened to pass by. So the next morning when the headhunter saw this flock of geese approaching he was very excited to see their golden leader. He immediately went about setting up a snare amongst the water lilies and lotuses, as he knew that the leader would definitely be the first to alight.

The whole flock came flying down in one mighty swoop and as expected it was the King's foot that touched the water first. He was ensnared and could not escape. Seeing  this, the other geese flew back to Mount Cittacuta for safety. All except one. He was the chief captain, Sumukha. King Dhatarattha entreated him to fly to safety too, as he would surely be captured if he stayed by his side. But Sumukha replied that he would never desert his master in the face of danger and would either try to save him or die by his side.

Al this point the hunter approached and as Sumukha saw him he decided to appeal to his compassion. The hunter asked the golden goose how come he had not noticed the trap that was set. The golden goose replied that when one's time was up it was no used to struggle against what was fated and one must just accept it. The huntsman was very impressed with his grace and wisdom. He then turned to Sumukha and asked why he had not fled with the other birds even though he was free to do so. Sumukha answered that the golden goose was his King, best friend and master and that he could never desert him even at the cost of his own life. Hearing this, the hunter realised that these were a couple of rare birds of great nobility. He did not much care for his own King's reward and decided to do the right thing and set them free. He told Sumukha that as he was ready to die for his King he would set them both free to fly wherever they wish.

1. Why were the geese keen on visiting the lake in Benaras?
(1) They were invited personally by king Bahuputlaka.
(2) They were tired of their old lake.
(3) They were amused by the water lilies and lotuses.
(4) The lake was not very far from the mountains.
(5) To lake was to be a source of good food and protection.

2. Why did the king approach the ministers?
(1) In order to find out the best location for the lake.
(2) In order to find out if a golden goose existed.
(3) To enquire about his wife's dreams.
(4) To devise a plan to capture all rare bird species.
(5) To enquire about the best hunter in the locality.

3. Why did the head hunter release the king, the golden goose?
(1) He was impressed by his wisdom and nobility.
(2) The geese were a rare species of birds.
(3) The golden goose, king Dhatarattha promised him a handsome rewards.
(4) The hunter sympthised with the golden goose.
(5) The hunter did not want the chief captain to lose a friend.

4. What was the king's intention behind building a lake ?
(1) To attract all rare species of living animals and birds.
(2) To beautify the city of Benaras.
(3) He did not want to go against the wishes of his wife.
(4) He wanted to capture the golden goose.
(5) He enjoyed bird watching and wanted to create a habitat for them.

5. Why did the flock of geese panic and retreat to Mount Cittacuta?
(1) Their king took the wrong route to the lake and they lost their way.
(2) Their king, the golden geese was captured.
(3) Their chief captain, Sumukha betrayed the king.
(4) They spotted many hunters by the lake.
(5) None of these

6. What advice did the ministers give to the king?
(1) That no such golden goose existed and he was only wasting his time searching for one.
(2) To create an artificial golden goose for the queen.
(3) To build a lake in order to attract the golden goose.
(4) To open a sanctuary of rare birds for the queen.
(5) To have a beautiful garden surrounded by flowers and trees.

7. Which of the following statements would best describe the qualities of Sumukha?
(A) Betrayer of the flock.
(B) The Selfless Goose.
(C) Loyal towards the king.
(D) The naive and ignorant goose.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C) and (D)
(4) Only (A) and (D)
(5) Only (B) and (D)

Directions (8-10) : Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

8. Exquisite :
(1) Expensive
(2) Delicate
(3) Elaborate
(4) Wonderful
(5) Efficient

9. Snare :
(1) Trap
(2) Alarm
(3) Plan
(4) Arrangement
(5) Protection

10. Desert :
(1) Displease
(2) Encourage
(3) Instigate
(4) Escort
(5) Abandon

Direction (11-15) : In each of the following sentences, an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the alternative which best describes its use in the sentence.

11. The course of events made it necessary for Joseph to start working.
(1) events that were planned.
(2) long list of future events.
(3) A succession of unexpected events.
(4) nature of events that followed after Joseph joined work.
(5) None of these

12. The team put their plant into execution the very next day,
(1) proposed a plan.
(2) discussed their plan
(3) started thinking about a plan.
(4) started carrying out their plan.
(5) None of these

13. Mrs Nayak opened the discussion on the "alarming rate of poverty in India"
(1) stated the discussion, (Ans)
(2) gave her opinion in the discussion.
(3) did not agree on the discussion.
(4) welcomed the people to the discussion.
(5) None of these

14. The new law on "Right to Food Safety" will come into force next month.
(1) be forced upon the people.
(2) be associated from next month onwards.
(3) be implemented next month.
(4) be withdrawn next month.
(5) be widely rejected next month.

15. When the girl wanted to stay out past midnight, her father put his foot down.
(1) gave in to her request.
(2) walked away disapprovingly.
(3) obstructed her from leaving the house.
(4) requested her to be home on time.
(5) None of these

Directions (16-20) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (S) i.e. 'No Error' (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. A public safety advertising (1)/ campaign in Russia (2)/ hope to draw attention (3)/ of pedestrians crossing the road (4). No Error (5)
(Ans : 3)

17. Nuclear waste will still being (1)/ radioactive even after twenty thousand years, (2)/ it must be disposed (3)/ of very carefully (4). No Error (5)
(Ans : 1)

18. My friend lived at the top (1)/ of an old house (2)/ which attic had been (3)/ converted into a flat. (4) No Error (5)
(Ans : 3)

19. The Renaissance was (1)/ a time to 're-awakening' (2)/ in both the arts (3)/ and
the sciences (4) No Error (5)
(Ans : 2)

20. A cash prize was (1)/ award to the most (2)/ successful salesman of the year (3)/ by the President of the company. (4) No Error (5)
(Ans : 2)

Directions (21-25) : Each sentence below has a blank/s, each blank indicates that something has been omitte. Choose the word/s that best fit/s the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

21. The state-of-the-art school is ___ with a medical clinic and fitness center.
(1) establish
(2) illustrative
(3) having
(4) equipped
(5) compromising

22. Many leading members of the opposition party ___ to justify the party's decision.
(1) having tried
(2) has tried
(3) have been trying
(4) tries
(5) is trying

23. The charity ____ most of its money through private donations.
(1) receives
(2) borrows
(3) uses
(4) proposes
(5) invests

24. The Bhagavad Gita is a part of the Mahabharata, but it stands ____ and is _____in itself.
(1) dependent, incomplete
(2) together, justified
(3) separate, dignified
(4) apart, complete
(5) united, connected

25. The artist's work of art is worthy ___ praise.
(1) for
(2) of
(3) to
(4) about
(5) to be

Canara-Bank Placement Paper : 47017
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : NishanthUpdated Date : Jan 16, 2015

Canara-Bank Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

                                      Canara Bank Model Question Paper

 

Aptitude Questions:

1)A is 3 years older to B and 3 years younger to C, while B and D are twins. How many years older is C to D?
a)2
b)3
c)6
d)12

2)12 year old Manick is three times as old as his brother Rahul. How old will Manick be when he is twice as old as Rahul?
a)14 years
b)16 years
c)18 years
d)20 years.

3)A woman says, “If you reverse my own age,the figures represent my husband’s age. He is, of course, senior to me and the difference between our ages is one-eleventh of their sum.” The woman’s age is
a)23 years
b)34 years
c)45 years
d)None of these

4)In a town, 65% people watched the news on television, 40% read a newspaper and 25% read a newspaper and watched the news on television also. What percent of the people neither watched the news on television nor read a newspaper?
a)5
b)10
c)15
d)20

5)Raj starts from his office facing west and walks 100 metres straight then takes a right turn and walks 100 metres. Further he takes General awareness and Aptitude test 15 a left turn and walks 50 metres. In which direction is Raj now from the starting point?
a)North-East
b)South-West
c)North
d)North-West

6)Mohan starts from his house and walks 4 km. straight. He then turns towards his right and walks 2 kms. He turns again to his right and walks 2 kms. If he is North West now, then in which direction did he start in the beginning?
a)North
b)South
c)North-West
d)West

7)A number consists of two digits. The digit at the ten’s place is two times the digit at the one’s place. The number, formed by reversing the digits is 27 less than the original number. Then the original number is
a)49
b)94
c)63
d)36

8)A number consists of two digits of which the ten’s digit exceeds the one’s digit by 6. The number itself is equal to ten times the sum of digits. Then the number is
a)42
b)60
c)15
d)51

9)A number consists of two digits. The digit at the ten’s place is two times the digit at the one’s place. The number formed by reversing the digits is 36 less than the original number. Then the original number is
a)84
b)63
c)48
d)42

10)A boy is now one-third as old as his father Twelve years hence he will be half as old as his father. Then the present age of the boy is 
a)10 years
b)11 years
c)12 years
d)13 years

11)5 years ago, the age of a man was 7 time the age of his son. The age of the man will be 3 times the age of his son in five years from now. How old is the man now?
a)30 years
b)40 years
c)50 years
d)60 years

12)A said to B,” I am 15 years older than you. After 5 years my age will be double of your age.” Then the present age of A is
a)10 years
b)15 years
c)20 years
d)25 years

13)The present age of Ram is 20 years and of his father is 40 years. How many years ago the age of his father was three times of his age?
a)10 years
b)8 years
c)6 years
d)4 years

14) The age of Deepak and Vikas are in the ratio 7:5. Ten years hence, the ratio of their ages will be 9:7. Then the present age of Deepak is
a)20 years
b)25 years
c)30 years
d)35 years

 

15) A is 3 years younger than C but one year older than D. D is one year older than B but 4 years younger than C. C is 15 years old. What is the age of B in years?
a)10
b)11
c)12
d)13

 

English Language:

Read the following passage carefully and answer all questions given below it.

John Maynard Keynes, the trendiest dead economist of this apocalyptic moment, was the godfather of government stimulus. Keynes had the radical idea that throwing money at recessions through aggressive deficit spending would resuscitate flatlined economies- and he wasn’t too particular about where the money was thrown. In the depths of the Depression, he suggested that the Treasury could “fill old bottles with banknotes, bury them at suitable depths in disused coal mines” then sit back and watch a money-mining boom create jobs and prosperity. “It would, indeed, be more sensible to build houses and the like, “he wrote, but “the above would be better than nothing.”

As President-elect Barack Obama prepares to throw money at the current downturn-a stimulus package starting at about $800 billion, plus the second $350 billion chunk of the financial bailout-we all really do seem to be Keynesians now. Just about every expert agrees that pumping $1 trillion into a moribund economy will rev up the ethereal goods-and-services engine that Keynes called “aggregate demand” and stimulate at least some shortterm activity, even if it is all wasted on money pits. But Keynes was also right that there would be more sensible ways to spend it. There would also be less sensible ways to spend it. A trillion dollars’ worth of bad ideas-sprawl-inducing highways and bridges to nowhere, ethanol plants and pipelines that accelerate global warming, tax breaks for overleveraged McMansion builders and burdensome new long-term federal entitlements-would be worse than mere waste. It would be smarter to buy every American an iPod, a set of Ginsu knives and 600 Subway foot-longs.

It would be smarter still to throw all that money at things we need to do anyway, which is the goal of Obama’s upcoming American Recovery and Reinvestment Plan. It will include a mix of tax cuts, aid to beleaguered state and local governments; and spending to address needs ranging from food stamps to computerized health records to bridge repairs to broadband network to energy-efficiency retrofits, all designed to save or create 3 million to 4 million jobs by the end of 2010. Obama has said speed is his top priority because the faster Washington injects cash into the financial bloodstream, the better it stands to help avert a multiyear slump with double-digit unemployment and deflation. But he also wants to use the stimulus to advance his long-term priorities : reducing energy use and carbon emissions, cutting middle-class taxes, upgrading neglected infrastructure, reining in health-care costs and eventually reducing the budget deficits that exploded under George W. Bush. Obama’s goal is to exploit this crisis in the best sense of the word to start pursuing his vision of a greener, father, more competitive, more sustainable economy.

Unfortunately, while 21st century Washington has demonstrated an impressive ability to spend money quickly, it has yet to prove that it can spend money wisely. And the chum of a 1 with 12 zeros is already creating a feeding frenzy for the ages. Lobbyists for shoe companies, zoos, catfish farmers, mall owners, airlines, public broadcasters, car dealers and everyone else who can afford their retainers are lining up for a piece of the stimulus. States that embarked on raucous spending and tax cuttng sprees when they were flush are begging for bailouts now that they’re broke. And politicians are dusting off their unfunded mobster museums, waterslides and other pet projects for rebranding as shovel-ready infrastructure investments. As Obama’s aides scramble to assemble something effective and transformative as well as politically achievable, they acknowledge the tension between his desires for speed and reform.

1. What, according to Keynes, is the “aggregate demand” ?
(a) Stimulation of a short-term activity
(b) Goods and Services Sector
(c) Attempting to rev up the sluggish economy
(d) Pumping one trillion dollars into economy

Answer: (b) Goods and Services Sector

2. Which of the following is/are corrective measure(s) as part of the long term priorities of Obama that was an outcome of his predecessor’s regime ?
(1) Countering recession through immediate rescue operations.
(2) Reining the budget deficit.
(3) Creating a more sustainable economy.

(a) (1) & (2) only
(b) (2) & (3) only
(c) (1) & (3) only
(d) None of these

Answer: (d) None of these

3. John M. Keynes was advocate of which of the following suggestions ?
(a) Spending money recklessly during recessions is suicidal
(b) Government stimulus to economy may not help because of red-tapism
(c) Aggressive deficit spending is likely to be fatal for economic meltdown
(d) Exorbitant spending during recessions is likely to boost economy

Answer: (d) Exorbitant spending during recessions is likely to boost economy

4. The author of the passage calls Barack Obama and his team as “Keynesians” because .
(a) Barack Obama and his team have decided to fil old bottles with banknotes
(b) His team is advising Barack to refrain from Keynes’ philosophy
(c) Barack Obama has been reluctant to follow Keynes’ philosophy
(d) Building houses has been under the active consideration of Barack Obama and his team

Answer: (a) Barack Obama and his team have decided to fil old bottles with banknotes

5. Which of the following is TRUE about Keynes’ philosophy ?
(a) Actual spending money during meltdown is more important than where and on what it is spent
(b) Filling old bottles with banknotes and burying them is an atrocious proposal
(c) Government should be selective in approach for spending money during recession
(d) Creating jobs and prosparity during recessions is almost an impracticable proposal

Answer: (c) Government should be selective in approach for spending money during recession

6. According to the author of the passage, food stamps, bridge repairs, etc. are the projects that .
(a) Do not warrant urgent spending as they have a lower utility value
(b) Need the least investment and priority as compared to building houses for the needy
(c) May not have any favourable impact on attempts to counter recession
(d) None of these

Answer : (d) None of these

7. Obama desires to accelerate the process of pumping money with utmost rapidity as he believes that it would .
(1) Help create reasonably high employment opportunities
(2) Avoid deflation
(3) Inject cash into the already troubled economy

(a) (1) and (2) only
(b) (2) and (3) only
(c) (1) and (3) only
(d) All (1) (2) and (3)

Answer: (d) None of these

8. Obama’s upcoming American Recovery and Reinvestment Plan focuses on which of the following ?
(1) Recovery of all debts from the debtors in a phased manner.
(2) Pumping money very liberally in projects that are mandatory.
(3) Investing money recklessly in any project regardless of its utility.

(a) (1) only
(b) (2) only
(c) (3) only
(d) (2) and (3) only

Answer: (d) (2) and (3) only

9. Highways, bridges, ethanol plants, etc. are considered by the author as .
(a) Reasonably appropriate propositions to spend money on
(b) Tax saving schemes bestowed on builders
(c) Imprudent proposals to waste money on
(d) Measures that affect the environment adversely

Answer: (d) Measures that affect the environment adversely

Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

10. Moribund
(a) Declining
(b) Thriving
(c) Waning
(d) Pessimistic

11. Beleaguered
(a) Stressful
(b) Harassed
(c) Carefree
(d) Uneventful

12. Raucous
(a) Strident
(b) Soft
(c) Rough
(d) Unprecedented