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IBPS Placement-Paper : 43668
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : IBPS Exam AnlysisUpdated Date : Aug 2, 2014

IBPS Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

IBPS recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

IBPS CWE clerical PO,MT Examinations procedure previous years solved question papers and analysis 2013-2014  Analysis of IBPS PO CWE 2013 -Exam held on 19th /20th Oct 2013


IBPS CWE New examination notifications upcoming recruitments through IBPS CWE Clericals, PO,MT Specialists officers new jobs, careers news IBPS CWE PO MT Clerical SPL officers RRBs new examination procedure and IBPS Previous Years free solved question papers with detailed explanations IBPS CWE common written examination aptitude, reasoning, bank based general knowledge, computer awareness, latest current affairs RBI latest updations  in formations Here you can find a comprehensive and detailed analysis of IBPS solved question papers learn and practice largest collection of ibps sample model previous years questions with answers  

IBPS Bank CWE New and latest Examinations recruitment notifications for all over India Public sector banks, nationalised, co-operative banks and other private banks IBPS has been conducting inter-scale promotion assessments for both Generalist and Specialist cadre employees across levels of the organizations. If you are looking for a career in the Human Resource related matter we offer opportunities for employment either in our organization or any other organization who has been utilizing our services in the area of recruitment, placement, promotion and related research. IBPS Personnel offer employment opportunities to all professionals by assessing their potential in a scientific method. IBPS-Bank financial Competitive Admission Testing Learning Skill India Exercise Technology Banking Recruitment Talent Computer Educational Behavioural

 

IBPS careers in banking exams

IBPS CWE -All details regarding IBPS common written examinations (CWE Exam) for various jobs positions in banks
Every years IBPS conducts on line common written examination for clerks, PO-Probationary officers, Management trainees-MT, Specialists officers SPL -in India IBPS started the CWE exam in the year 2011,before that the recruitment /selection procedure in each bank was done by the bank itself. In the latest bank careers news and experts in India says that in the next five years about 7.5 lakh people have to be recruitment  to the banks because of the retirement of existing employees an the opening of different new branches. Being a part of the IBPS team can really be a breakthrough journey for professionals as they get an opportunity to enrich their career experience. With the selection process, the Institute helps its clients in succession planning their manpower, thereby providing opportunities for the employees to grow and develop. 

 

IBPS CWE-Common Written Examination Clerical recruitment notifications IBPS CWE clerical previous years solved questions answers for referring upcoming latest recruitment of IBPS Common Written Examination for Clerical Cadre 2013-2014

 

IBPS recruits clerk once in every year .through on line exam with 200 questions in 120 minutes.1/4th of the marks penalized for each wrong answers in objective tests. Each section 40 questions 40 marks.  You must pass each section for qualifying examination. But not just qualifying examination, candidates should score more than 160 marks out of 200

 

IBPS Expected Date of clerical cadre examination date is December 

 

IBPS CWE PO-MT Probationary Officers, Management Trainee Specialists Officers Examination Procedure 

IBPS conducts recruitment for the Probationary officers, management trainee once in a years In the Year 2012 PO was not on line. but now it is also an on line exam IBPS Po MT Spl officers exam contains 50 questions 50 marks for each sections such as reasoning aptitude, english, computer knowledge ..For the PO recruitment along with these test a test for english composition is there which includes letter writing, essay, precis etc with maximum marks of 25 and for a time of one hour

 

IBPS RRB's regional rural banks exam, specialists officer recruitment and all other recruitment officer scale I,II,III Nabard RBI,SBI SBT all examinations almost same pattern and structure the difference is number questions and marks time etc For Crack IBPS CWE exam speed in calculations is the important factor.Practice all banks IBPS SBI RBI on line mock tests. Refer and practice previous years solved question papers of IBPS CWE PO RRBs Management trainees, probationary officers clerical ..Update your current affairs 


Analysis Examination details regarding  IBPS PO CWE 2013 (Exam held on 19th /20th Oct 2013)


The IBPS P.O. On-line Exam, one of the most reputed exams in the Indian banking sector, was held on the 19th (Saturday) and 20th (Sunday) of October 2013. The next set of dates for the exam are 26th/27th of Oct 2013 and 9th/10th of Nov 2013. It has been ascertained from students' assessment that overall, the examination was moderate, comparatively easier than the one held last year.

 

Duration of the Examination 120 Minutes
Number of sections 5
Negative Marking 0.25 of marks assigned to the question
Total Questions 200
Quantitative Aptitude 50 questions
Reasoning 50 questions
English Language 40 questions
General Awareness 40 questions
Computer Knowledge 20 questions

 

IBPS CWE Exam sectional analysis is as follows : 

IBPS PO CWE  Quantitative Aptitude : 

In general, the difficulty level of this section can be pegged at moderate to difficult. It was reported that there were no questions on Simplifications and Approximations. This was something unexpected and caught students off-guard. Since the above were replaced by questions from various topics of Arithmetic, which usually take more time to solve, this section was time-consuming. 
The break-up of the 50 questions of this section is as : 
Data Interpretation – 20 
Number series – 5 
Quadratic Equations (Comparisons) – 5
Questions from individual topics of Arithmetic – 15
Data Sufficiency – 5

IBPS  CWE  Reasoning : 

According to the feedback received from candidates who have appeared for this exam, the difficulty level of this section can be termed as more or less moderate. As has been the pattern ever since the exam has gone on-line, this time too non-verbal questions were conspicuous by their absence. 
The break-up of the 50 questions in this section is as : 
Deductions – 5 
Data Sufficiency – 5 
Input/output – 5 
Decision Making – 5 
Puzzles – 15 
Other topics – 15 ( Symb & Not based Conclusions, Assumptions / Inferences / Cause and effect, Direction sense / Word digit formation / ranking etc.) 

IBPS CWE  General Awareness : 

It was reported by students that most of the 40 questions in this section were from Banking Awareness and Indian Economy. Current affairs also formed the basis for a few questions. The difficulty level can be stated as easy to moderate. 

IBPS CWE English Language: 

As reported, this section can be called a difficult one, as the Comprehension questions, which students dread, dominated this section. In one of the slots on the 19th of October, there were two passages with 15 questions and in one of the slots of the other day, the two RC passages had 10 questions each. 
Earlier, when the exam used to have 50 questions in this section, this kind of pattern was common. But with almost half of this section dominated by questions on reading comprehension, students found it very lengthy and exhaustive. Had these questions been substituted by those of verbal ability, it could have become easy for candidates to work on this section with greater speed. The break-up of the 40 questions is as : 
Reading Comprehension – 15 -20
Cloze Test – 10
Para formation Questions – 5 (with six sentences to sequence)
Grammar – 5 - 10

IBPS CWE Computer Knowledge : 

The questions in this section were reported to be easy. No great preparation was needed to tick these multiple choice questions. In fact, answers to a few questions could be worked out by looking at the various choices that each of these questions had. As compared to other IBPS exams, this section presented very little challenge to students. 
This section was reported to be easy in all the slots on 19th and 20th Oct 2013. 


In short all students opinion that the 2013 IBPS CWE examination was moderate difficulty level.  Question paper lengthy and time consuming

DRDO-CEPTAM Placement-Paper : 46173
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : ankushUpdated Date : Oct 1, 2014

DRDO-CEPTAM Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

DRDO-CEPTAM recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

ICICI Placement-Paper : 46162
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : wahed ali khanUpdated Date : Sep 26, 2014

ICICI Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

ICICI recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

ONGC Placement-Paper : 46139
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : Vaghela Pintu BharatbhaiUpdated Date : Sep 25, 2014

ONGC Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

ONGC recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

Infosys Placement-Paper : 46107
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : bhargaviUpdated Date : Sep 20, 2014

Infosys Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

Infosys recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

Ashok Leyland Placement-Paper : 46100
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : niladri mandalUpdated Date : Sep 19, 2014

Ashok Leyland Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

Ashok Leyland recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

HCL Placement-Paper : 46085
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : narendraUpdated Date : Sep 19, 2014

HCL Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

HCL recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

Robert Bosch Placement-Paper : 45944
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : Renuka MunagalaUpdated Date : Sep 10, 2014

Robert Bosch Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

Robert Bosch recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

 

Robert- Bosch Interview Experience

 

My name is Renuka Munagala. I am writing my Interview Experience here. There are three rounds in the selection procedure of Robert- Bosch. The three rounds are 

     

Round 1 : Online test ( It consisted of technical, verbal, aptitude and logical reasoning questions )

  1. Technical = 35 questions
  2. Verbal, aptitude and logical reasoning=25 questions
  3. (Each question carries 1 mark and there was a negative marking of 0.5 marks for each question) 

Round 2 : Technical Interview

 

Round 3 : HR Interview

 

The questions asked to me in all the rounds are given below :

 

A] Round 1- Online Test Questions :

 

a) Online Test Technical Questions 

 

For this section please refer the following  subjects :

 

Digital Electronics

  1. Code conversions(Binary code, Gray code, Excess-3 code and others like 8421, 2421 etc)

  2. K-map

  3. Combinational circuits and sequential circuits differences and examples for both  (  ( Combinational:adder,subtractor, decoder, encoder, multiplexer, demultiplexer, magnitude comparator. Sequential: latch, flip-flop, shift registers, counters(very important… also refer difference between synchronous and asynchronous counters, and various conditions for maximum clock frequency to be applied) )

  4. Moore and Mealey models differences

  5. Multivibrators using logic gates

  6. Astable multivibrator

  7. Bistable multivibrator

  8. Monostable multivbrator

  9. Logic families

  10. DTL

  11. Modified DTL

  12. TTL

  13. ECL

  14. Semiconductor Memories(very important)

  15. RAM, ROM and different types in them

  16. Diodes, BJT, JFET, MOSFET, Opamp

  17. Microprocessor(8085,8086): architecture, instruction set, interrupts, registers

  18. Microcontroller(PIC16F877A, 8051): architecture, instruction set, interrupts, registers

Questions asked are :

 

1) One question on zener diode, its temperature coefficient was given

 

(I don’t remember the exact value) say voltage decreases at x V/0C(some volts per degree centigrade) and voltage was asked for some other temperature

 

2) Conversion of binary code to gray code

 

3) Small circuits were given using AND,OR, EXOR gates and asked what would be the functioning of the circuit(options were edge detector, zero detector) if you analyze the circuit assuming the inputs as 00,01,10,11 you can figure out the functioning of the circuit

 

4) Few questions on combinational and sequential circuits

 

       a) ROM is what kind of circuit---?  

 

Answer : Combinational Circuit (built with the help of decoders and programmable OR gate)

 

       b)  Demultiplexer and Decoder

     

       c)  Circuit was given on decoder(2:4 decoder) and output was asked )

 

       d)  How do we overcome the “Race Around Condition(RAC)” in JK flip flop..?? 

 

Answer:  (i) Use Master-Slave JK flip flop

               (ii) Choose flip flop propagation delay Δt such that

 

                         tp < ∆t <T 

 

             Where  ∆t =  Praopagation delay of flip flop

                         T  =  Clock frequency

                         tp =  Pulse width of the clock applied

 

(RAC occurs only in level triggered FFs. It does not occur in edge triggered FFs)

 

e) Setup time, Hold time and Propagation delay  in a flip flop

 

f) Counters – given some n- bit asynchronous counter and propagation delay of the flip flop used, asked to find the maximum clock frequency to be applied :

 

Answer:  fmax=1/(n*tp)  (only for asynchronous counter… add -stroke pulse width to the denominator and then compute if it is given in the question)

 

Where   fmax = Maximum clock frequency to be applied

                    n =   n bit counter

                   tp = Propagation delay of the flip flop

 

g) Circuit was given and output was asked. It was a counter… may be a ring counter


h) One question modulus of counter

 

     i)  Frequency at the output 2nd  flip flop in a 4 bit counter (don’t remember which counter it was)

 

     ii) Ring counter(N bit): output frequency at each FF(flip flop) is f/N


     iii) Johnson counter(N bit): output frequency at each FF is f/2N


     iv) Asynchronous counter(N bit): output frequency at each FF (starting from LSB) is f/2^i  

          where i is  FF no. from LSB

 

5) Two questions on ROM- no. of address lines were given and the size of the memory was given and no of data lines was asked

 

Answer : If no of address lines were x, no of data lines were y, then Size of the memory=  2^x y

 

6) Two questions on Analog to digital converters(ADCs)-  N bit ADC, Vmax is given, find the resolution

 

7) Two questions on 8085 microprocessor(flag register) and 8051 microcontroller

 

8) 4 to 5 questions on C and C++ programming languages, most of them were output questions

 

b) Online Test Aptitude Questions 

 

In aptitude various topics were covered like

  1. Time and Work

  2. Pipes and Cisterns,

  3. Alligations and Mixtures 

  4. Find the next pattern

  5. Logarithms 

  6. Mensuration

c) Online Test Logical Reasoning  Questions 

 

Five people, five degrees and five jobs.. question was like A did not do degree in economics and politics, so he will not be given so & so job… similar info was given for B,C,D,E and 4 four questions were asked like who does what job or who holds what degree etc.

 

d) Online Test Verbal  Questions 

 

In verbal one paragraph was given and four questions were asked from it, two synonyms, one antonym,2-3 questions on choose the correct word that fills the blank. 

 

B ] Round 2 - Technical Interview Questions :

 

1.  Tell me about yourself ( while I was answering this question, he checked my resume)

 

2.  Asked me about the mini project I had done, I had explained him in detail about the project (at least 1 mini project is necessary since some were rejected for not having done any mini project. If you had done any mini project, prepare thoroughly about it, not just the project, anything other things associated with it say current  trends in it, what components are used and why etc. if you can explain with confidence your project, then you have won half battle )

 

3. Difference between microcontroller and microprocessor, explain with the help of a diagram

 

4. Asked me if I knew anything about the processors. I said I knew 8085 microprocessor. He asked me to explain it with the help of the architecture of it, while I was explaining about the processor, he asked me few definitions related to it like explain how a stack pointer with the help of instructions, what is program counter, what is the flag register and what are the various bits present in that register, few instructions were asked like explain what happens for MVI data, what is the accumulator and what is its use, what are various interrupts present in the processor, their priority order, what happens when an interrupt occurs, explain me what happens with the program counter and stack pointer content  when an interrupt occurs, what is an interrupt routine, what are status signals, frequency used in it.

 

5. He asked how much strong I am in C. I said I know only basics of it. He asked me some basic questions related to C programming like what is a preprocessor directive,  what is a structure explain me with the help of a example, what is pointer  and write the syntax of it, what is a qualifier, what is an enum (make sure that you have basic idea about the programming languages you have written in the resume)

 

C ] Round 3 - HR interview Questions :

 

He introduced about himself and then looking at my resume he asked me

  1. Tell me about the meaning of your name

  2. Tell me about yourself

  3. Tell me about your family

  4. Tell me about your mini project

  5. What do you know about Bosch and why do you want to join Bosch

  6. And final question was: Any questions??

All the best....

 

ONGC Placement-Paper : 45943
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : Aman ChatergiUpdated Date : Sep 10, 2014

ONGC Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

ONGC recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

 

ONGC Placement Paper

 

In this paper I am discuss about the written exam of ONGC.The ONGC Exam Papers consist of two sections such as 

 

       1) General Knowledge Section
       2) Technical Knowledge Section


a) General Knowledge Section

 

The General Knowledge section consist of 50 questions which are asked generally  from the below given subjects. All questions are multiple choice type and no negative marks for the wrong answers. So you can attempt all the answers.

  1. GDP
  2. Economic policies
  3. Literacy
  4. Indian History
  5. Judicial system
  6. Biology

b) Technical Knowledge Section

 

The Technical Knowledge Section consists of 75 questions which are multiple choices and no negative marking for the wrong answers. Generally the questions will be asked from subjecting you are chosen or for the post you are applied. For example, if have chosen electrical engineering, then the questions would be from Transformers, Power Systems, Motors, Power Electronics, Electrical Theory, etc. For example if you give option for Electronics Engineering the questions would be from control Systems, Networks, AWT, Electronics, Electronic devices and Circuits, etc.

 

Some questions asked in previous exams are given below. I think it will help you for writting ONGC examinations.

 

1] Mechanical Engineering Questions and Answers

 

1) In a spring-mass system, the mass is 0.1 kg and the stiffness of the spring is 1 kN/m. By introducing a damper, the frequency of oscillation is found to be 90% of the original value. What is the damping coefficient of the damper?

 

A) 1.2 N.s/m 
B) 3.4 N.s/m 
C) 8.7 N.s/m 
D) 12.0 N.s/m 

 

Answer : C

 

2) A solar collector receiving solar radiation at the rate of 0.6 k W/m2 transforms it to the internal energy of a fluid at an overall efficiency of 50%. The fluid heated to 350 K is used to run a heat engine which rejects heat at 313 K. If the heat engine is to deliver 2.5 kW power, the minimum area of the solar collector required would be

 

A) 8.33m2 
B) 16.66m2
C) 39.68m2 
D) 79.36m2

 

Answer : D

 

3)  A company has two factories S1, S2 and two warehouses D1, D2. The supplies from S1 and S2 are 50 and 40 units respectively. Warehouse D1 requires a minimum of 20 units and a maximum of 40 units. Warehouse D2 requires a minimum of 20 units and, over and above, it can take as much as can be supplied. A balanced transportation problem is to be formulated for the above situation. The number of supply points, the number of demand points, and the total supply (or total demand) in the balanced transportation problem respectively are

 

A) 2, 4, 90
B) 2, 4, 110
C) 3, 4, 90 
D) 3, 4, 110

 

Answer : C

 

4) During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type of tool motion will be 

 

A) circular Interpolation — clockwise
B) circular Interpolation — counterclockwise
C) linear Interpolation
D) rapid feed

 

Answer : A

 

5)  An incompressible fluid (kinematic viscosity, 7.4 x 10-7 m2/s, specific gravity, 0.88) is held between two parallel plates. If the top plate is moved with a velocity of 0.5 m/s while the bottom one is held stationary, the fluid attains a linear velocity profile in the gap of 0.5 mm between these plates; the shear stress in Pascals on the surface of top plate is

 

A) 0.651 x 10-3
B) 0.651
C) 6.51
D) 0.651 x 103

 

Answer : B

 

6) The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5,5) to (10,10) while performing an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10,5). Which one of the following NC tool path commands performs the above mentioned operation?

 

A) N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5 
B) N010 G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5 
D) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5

 

Answer : D

 

7)  During a Morse test on a 4 cylinder engine, the following measurements of brake power were taken at constant speed.

All cylinders firing 3037 kW
Number 1 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 2 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 3 cylinder not firing 2100 kW
Number 4 cylinder not firing 2098 kW
The mechanical efficiency of the engine is

 

A) 91.53% 
B) 85.07%
C) 81.07% 
D) 61.22%

 

Answer : C

 

8) In terms of theoretical stress concentration factor (Kt) and fatigue stress concentration factor (Kf ), the notch sensitivity ‘q’ is expressed as

 

A) (Kf -1) (Kt -1)
B) (Kf -1) (Kt +1)
C) (Kt -1) (Kf -1)
D) (Kf +1) (Kt +1)

 

Answer : A

 

9) Starting from x0 = 1, one step of Newton-Raphson method in solving the equation x3 + 3x -7 = 0 gives the next value (x1) as

 

A) x1 = 0.5
B) x1= 1.406
C) x1= 1.5
D) x1 = 2

 

Answer : C

 

10)  A component can be produced by any of the four processes I, II, III and IV. Process I has a fixed cost ofRs. 20 and variable cost of Rs. 3 per piece. Process II has a fixed cost Rs. 50 and variable cost of Re. 1 per piece. Process III has a fixed cost of Rs. 40 and variable cost of Rs. 2 per piece. Process IV has a fixed cost of Rs. 10 and variable cost of Rs. 4 per piece. If the company wishes to produce 100 pieces of the component, from economic point of view it should choose

 

A) Process I 
B) Process II 
C) Process III 
D) Process IV

 

Answer : B

 

11) The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at

 

A) 103 cycles
B) 104 cycles
C) 10 6 cycles
D) 10 9 cycles

 

Answer : C

 

12) Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used inthe new generation domestic refrigerators. Itschemical formula is

 

A) CH C1 F2
B) C2 C13 F3
C) C2 C12 F4
D) C2 H2 F4

 

Answer : D

 

13)  A solid cylinder (surface 2) is located at the centreof a hollow sphere (surface 1). The diameter of the sphere is 1m, while the cylinder has a diameter and length of 0.5 m each. The radiation configuration factor F11 is

 

A) 0.375
B) 0.625
C) 0.75
D) 1

 

Answer : C

 

14) A soldering operation was work-sampled over two days (16 hours) during which an employee soldered 108 joints. Actual working time was 90% of the total time and the performance rating was estimated to be 120 percent. If the contract provides allowance of 20 percent of the total time available, the standard time for the operation would be 

 

A) 8 min
B) 8.9 min
C) 10 min
D) 12 min

 

Answer : D

 

15) For a fluid flow through a divergent pipe of length L having inlet and outlet radii of R1 and R2 respectively and a constant flow rate of Q, assuming the velocity to be axial and uniform at any cross- section, the acceleration at the exit is

 

A) 2Q(R1 - R2) p LR23
B) 2Q2 (R1 - R2) p LR23
C) 2Q2 (R1 - R2) p2LR25
D) 2Q2 (R2 - R1) p2LR25

 

Answer : C

 

16) In an interchangeable assembly, shafts of size 25.000+0.040mm mate with holes of size 25.000+0.020 mm. The maximum possible clearance in the assembly will be 

 

A) 10 microns
B) 20 microns
C) 30 microns
D) 60 microns

 

Answer : D

 

17) In PERT analysis a critical activity has

 

A) maximum Float
B) zero Float
C) maximum Cost
D) minimum Cost

 

Answer : B

 

18) An incompressible fluid (kinematic viscosity, 7.4 x 10-7 m2/s, specific gravity, 0.88) is held between two parallel plates. If the top plate is moved with a velocity of 0.5 m/s while the bottom one is held stationary, the fluid attains a linear velocity profile in the gap of 0.5 mm between these plates; the shear stress in Pascals on the surface of top plate is

 

A) 0.651 x 10-3
B) 0.651
C) 6.51
D) 0.651 x 103

 

Answer : B

 

19) In terms of theoretical stress concentration factor(Kt) and fatigue stress concentration factor (Kf ), the notch sensitivity ‘q’ is expressed as

 

A) (Kf -1) (Kt -1)
B) (Kf -1) (Kt +1)
C) (Kt -1) (Kf -1)
D) (Kf +1) (Kt +1)

 

Answer : A

 

20) A maintenance service facility has Poisson arrival rates, negative exponential service time and operates on a ‘first come first served’ queue discipline. Break downs occur on an average of 3 per day with a range of zero to eight. The maintenance crew can service an average of 6 machines per day with a range of zero to seven. The mean waiting time for an item to be serviced would be

 

A) 16 day
B) 13 day
C) 1 day
D) 3 days

 

Answer : A

 

21) The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at

 

A) 103 cycles
B) 104 cycles
C) 106 cycles
D) 109 cycles

 

Answer : C

 

22)  Starting from x0 = 1, one step of Newton-Raphson method in solving the equation x3 + 3x -7 = 0 gives the next value (x1) as

 

A) x1 = 0.5
B) x1= 1.406
C) x1= 1.5
D) x1 = 2

 

Answer : C

 

23) Water at 42°C is sprayed into a stream of air at atmospheric pressure, dry bulb temperature of 40°C and a wet bulb temperature of 20°C. The air leaving the spray humidifier is not saturated. Which of the following statements is true?

 

A) Air gets cooled and humidified
B) Air gets heated and humidified
C) Air gets heated and dehumidified
D) Air gets cooled and dehumidified

 

Answer : (B)

 

24) During a Morse test on a 4 cylinder engine, the following measurements of brake power were taken at constant speed.
All cylinders firing 3037 kW
Number 1 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 2 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 3 cylinder not firing 2100 kW
Number 4 cylinder not firing 2098 kW
The mechanical efficiency of the engine is

 

A) 91.53% 
B) 85.07%
C) 81.07% 
D) 61.22%

 

Answer : C

 

25) The angle between two unit-magnitude coplanar vectors P(0.866, 0.500,0) and Q(0.259, 0.966,0) will be

 

A) 0°
B) -30°
C) 45°
D) 60°

 

Answer : C

 

26)  In a rolling process, sheet of 25 mm thickness is rolled to 20 mm thickness. Roll is of diameter 600 mm and it rotates at 100 rpm. The roll strip contact length will be

 

A) 5 mm
B) 39 mm
C) 78mm
D) 120mm

 

Answer : A

 

27) A lot has 10% defective items. Ten items are chosen randomly from this lot. The probability that exactly 2 of the chosen items are defective is
A) 0.0036
B) 0.1937
C) 0.2234
D) 0.3874

 

Answer : B

 

28) Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used in the new generation domestic refrigerators. Its chemical formula is

 

A) CH C1 F2 
B) C2 C13 F3 
C) C2 C12 F4
D) C2 H2 F4

 

Answer : D

 

29) When the temperature of a solid metal increases,

 

A) strength of the metal decreaes but ductility increases 
B) both strength and ductility of the metal decrease
C) both strength and ductility of the metal increase
D) strength of the metal increases but ductility decreases

 

Answer : (A)

 

30) A company produces two types of toys: P and Q. Production time of Q is twice that of P and the company has a maximum of 2000 time units per day. The supply of raw material is just sufficient to produce 1500 toys (of any type) per day. Toy type Q requires an electric switch which is available @ 600 pieces per day only. The company makes a profit of Rs. 3 and Rs. 5 on type P and Q respectively. For maximization of profits, the daily production quantities of P and Q toys should respectively be

 

A) 100, 500 
B) 500, 1000
C) 800, 600
D) 1000, 1000

 

Answer : C
 
31) A spherical thermocouple junction of diameter 0.706 mm is to be used for the measurement Aof temperature of a gas stream. The convective heat transfer co-efficient on the bead surface is 400 W/m2K. Thermophysical properties of thermocouple material are k = 20 W/mK, C = 400 J/kg K and r = 8500 kg/m3. If the thermocouple initially tot 30°C is placed in a hot stream of 300°C, the time taken by the bead to reach 298°C, is

 

A) 2.35 s
B) 4.9 s
C) 14.7 s
D) 29.4 s

 

Answer : B

 

32)  Stokes theorem connects

 

A) a line integral and a surface integral
B) a surface integral and a volume integral 
C) a line integral and a volume integral 
D) gradient of a function and its surface integral

 

Answer : A

 

33) In a machining operation, doubling the cutting speed reduces the tool life to 1/8 of the original value. The exponent n in Taylor

 

A) 1/8 
B) 1/4
C) 1/3 
D) 1/2

 

Answer : C

 

34) In a rolling process, sheet of 25 mm thickness is rolled to 20 mm thickness. Roll is of diameter 600 mm and it rotates at 100 rpm. The roll strip contact length will be

 

A) 5 mm
B) 39 mm
C) 78 mm
D) 120 mm

 

Answer : A

 

35) A welding operation is time-studied during which an operator was pace-rated as 120%. The operator took, on an average, 8 minutes for producing the weld-joint. If a total of 10% allowances are allowed for this operation, the expected standard production rate of the weld-joint (in units per 8 hour day) is

 

A) 45
B) 50
C) 55
D) 60

 

Answer : A

 

36) The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5,5) to (10,10) while performing an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10,5). Which one of the following NC tool path commands performs the above mentioned operation?

 

A) N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5 
B) N010 G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5 
D) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5

 

Answer : D

 

37) In PERT analysis a critical activity has 

 

A) maximum Float 
B) zero Float
C) maximum Cost 
D) minimum Cost

 

Answer : B

 

3] General Knowledge Questions and Answers

 

1) India had a plan holiday:

 

A) after the China-India War of 1962
B) after the drought of 196

B) after the liberation of Bangladesh in 1971
D) after the India-Pakistan War in 1965

 

Answer : B


2) If the usual rule of calculation of time were aplied for the extremes of Gujarat and Arunachal Pradesh, then aproximately time

 

A) at Gujarat would be ahead of that at Arunachal Pradesh by about 3 hours
B) at Gujarat would be ahead of that at Arunachal Pradesh by about 2 hours
C) at Arunachal Pradesh would be ahead of that at Gujarat by 2 hours
D) at Arunachal Pradesh would be ahead of that at Gujarat by 2 hours

 

Answer : D

 

3) While the time in India is 4 pm, that coresponding time (aproximate) in?

 

A) Auckland (New Zealand) is 6 pm

B) London (England) is 10.30 am
C) Tokyo(Japan) is 2 p.m.
D) Cairo (Egypt) is 5 p.m.

 

Answer : B

 

4) Consider the folowing statements:

 

1. Lord Mountbaten was sent to India in place of Lord Wavel as the Governor General of India in March 1947.
2. In July 1947, Britsh Government pased the Act containing the main provisions of the Mountbaten 
Plan. This is known as the Indian Independence Act.
Which of these statements is/are corect?

 

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both land 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer : C

 

5)  The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a living entiy because it can:

 

A) move from one cel to another
B) disturb host cel respiration
C) undergo auto-reproduction
D) cause disease in the host

 

Answer : A

 

6)  Which of the folowing States is the first to have enacted a comprehensive legislation to protect the 
girl child?

 

A) Karnataka
B) Goa
C) Maharashtra

D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: D
 

7) Which one of the folowing European countries borders Atlantic Ocean?

 

A) Portugal
B) Austria
C) Finland
D) Romania

 

Answer : A

 

8)  Select the corect sequence in the decreasing order of contribution to the forest-cover of India:

 

A) Dense forest—Open forest— Mangrove forest
B) Open forest—Dense forest—Mangrove forest
C) Dense forest—Mangrove forest—Open forest
D) Open forest—Mangrove forest—Dense forest

 

Answer : B

 

9)  Consider the folowing statements:

 

1. ‘Astra’ is an air-to-air guided misile which was recently test-fired.

2. Recently test-fired ‘Akash’ is a medium range surface to surface misile.
Which of these statements is/are corect?

 

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2.

 

Answer : A

 

10) Which of the folowing countries is not included in 0-8 (Group of eight industrialized countries)

 

A) Italy
B) Rusia
C) Holand
D) Canada.

 

Answer: C

 

11) Match List (Dance Forms) with List-I (State) and select the corect answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Dance Forms)               List-I (State)
A. Kathakali                               1. Tamil Nadu
B. Kuchipudi                              2.  Kerala
C. Bharat Natyam                      3. Andhra Pradesh
                                                  4. Orisa
                                                  5. Karnataka
Code:
A B C

 

A) 2 3 4
B) 5 3 2

C) 2 3 1
D) 5 4 2

 

Answer : C

 

12) Match List-I (Tennis Player) with List-I (Country) and select the corect answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Tennis Player)                    List-I (Country)
A. Justine Henin-Hardene            1. Belgium
B. Kim Clijsters                             2. England
C. Tim Henman                            3 Australia
D. Andy Rodick                            4. US
                                                     5. Spain
Code:
A B C D

 

A) 1 4 3 4

B) 5 1 2 3
C) 1 1 2 4
D) 5 4 3 2

 

Answer : C

 

13) Gros National Product of a country Is the sum of the market value of al the gods and services 
produced in a year

 

A) plus export earnings
B) plus market value of imports.
C) minus foreign aid
D) plus net Income from abroad

 

Answer : D

14) In the Constiution of India promotion of International peace and security is included In the-

 

A) Preamble of the Constiution
B) Directive Principles of State Policy
C) Fundamental Duties
D) Ninth Schedule

 

Answer : B

 

15)  Consider the folowing statements related to the Prime Minister of India:

 

1. He signs the bils pased by the two Houses of the Parliament on behalf of the President during his 
absence.

2. He asists the President in making al the apointments.
3. He communicates to the President al the decisions of the Council of Ministers.
Which of these statements are corect?

 

A) 1, 2, and 3
B) land 2
C) land 3
D) 2 and 3

 

Answer : D

 

16) Bauxite is the principal ore of:

 

A) Coper
B) Aluminum
C) Iron
D) Zinc

 

Answer : B

17) Separation of the Judiciary from the executive in public service of the State is enjoined by -

 

A) the Preamble of the Constitution of India
B) a judicial decision

C) the Seventh Schedule of the Constiution of India
D) a Directive Principle of State Policy

 

Answer : 4

 

18)  Consider the folowing statements:

 

1. Grenland is an overseas teritory of France.
2. Bermuda an overseas teritory of UK is situated in Western Atlantic.
3. State of Bahrain is situated in the Persian Gulf.
Which of these statements is/are corect?

 

A) l, 2, and 3

B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3
C) land 3

 

Answer : C

 

19) Which one amongst the folowing is the oldest Dynasty?

 

A) Palava Dynasty
B) Chola Dynasty
C) Maurya Dynasty
D) Gupta Dynasty

 

Answer : C

20) Who among the folowing Indian rulers was a contemporary of Akbar?

 

A) Rani Durgawati
B) Ahilya Bai
C) Martanda Varma
D) Raja Sawai Jai Singh

 

 Answer : A

 

21) Consider the folowing statements related to Raja Rammohan Roy:
1. He advocated widow remariage.
2. He strongly .advocated for the aboliton of Sati system
3. He advocated for the promotion of English education.Which of these statements is/are corect?

 

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3

 

Answer : C

 

22)  The Chalukya King who defeated Harshavardhana on the banks of the Narmada was:

 

A) Pulakesin I

B) Srimukha
C) Mangalesa

D) Kirtivarman I

 

Answer : A

 

23) Tisue culture is:

 

A) growing of tiny plant fragments in a nutrient solution
B) a system of physical exercise for the regeneration of body tisues
C) growing of plant fragments on tisue paper
D) culturing of bacteria on tisue paper

 

Answer : A

24) The six distinct schols of Indian philosophy—Vedanta, Mimamsa, Sankhya, Yoga, Nyaya, Valsesika became fuly articulated during the:

 

A) Vedic age
B) Gupta age
C) Kushana age
D) Mauryan age

 

Answer : D

 

25)  Gautama Budha atained pari- nirvana at:

 

A) Lumbini
B) Sarnath
C) Kushinagar

D) Bodh Gaya

 

Answer : C

 

26) Who among the folowing belongs to the period of Kanishka?
1. Budhaghosa
2. Nagarjuna
3. Vasumitra
4. Asvaghosa
Select the corect answer using the codes given below:
Code:

 

A) 2, 3, and 4
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 1, 3, and 4

D) 1 and 4

 

Answer : A

 

27)  Which one of the folowing pairs is not corectly matched?

 

A) Jacques Chirac : President of France
B) Gerhard Schroeder : Chancelor of Germany
C) Silvio Berlusconi : Prime Minister of Italy
D) Jean Chrétien : President of Austria

 

Answer : 4

28) Consider the folowing statements:
1. In India, the maximum part of electric energy is generated by the hydroelectric plants.
2. In India, the maximum part of electric energy is generated by the thermal power plants.
3. Neyveli Lignite Corporation Ltd. is located in Tamil Nadu
Which of these statements is/are corect?

 

A) 2 and 3
B) land 3
C) 2 only
D) 3 only

 

Answer : A

 

29) The layer of the atmosphere which makes radio communication posible is

 

A) troposphere
B) tropopause
C) ionosphere
D) stratosphere

 

Answer : C

 

30. Which one of the folowing pairs is not corectly matched?

 

A) Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Manav Sangrahalaya : Bhopal
B) Ramakrishna Mision Instiute of Culture : Kolkata
C) Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Public Library : Lucknow
D) Anthropological Survey of India (Headquarters) : Kolkata

 

Answer : A

 

31)  Consider the folowing statements: The Estimates Commite
1. is an ad hoc commite.
2. has members from both the Houses of Parliament.
3. has members drawn entirely from the Lok Sabha.
Which of these statements is/are corect?

 

A) land 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 only
D) 3 only

 

Answer : C

 

32) The Fundamental Duties of the Indian citzens were laid down by which of the folowing Amendments to theConstiution of India?

 

A) 40th Amendment
B) 41st Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 43rd Amendment

 

Answer : D

 

33) Match List-I (Substance) with List-I(Constituent) and, select the corect answer using the codes given belowthe Lists:
List-I (Substance)         List-I (Constituent)
A. White paint                1. Titanium dioxide
B. Glas                           2. Phosphorus
C. Artifcial fertilzer          3. Sodium silcate
D. Match-stick                4. Potasium sulphate
                                       5. Potasium chloride
Code:
A B C D

 

A) 4 3 5 2
B) 1 2 4 3
C) 4 2 5 3

D) 1 3 4 2
Answer : D

34) Consider the folowing statements:
1. In July 203, East Bengal Club won the L.G Asean Cup fotbal tournament defeating Bec Tero Sasana Club of Indonesia at Jakarta
2. Sandip Nandy of East Bengal Club was adjudged the best goalkeper of this tournament.
3. Baichung Bhutia of East Bengal Club was the highest goal scorer of the tournament.
Which of these statements are corect?

 

A) 2 and 3
B) 1 and 3
C) land 2
D)1, 2, and 3

 

Answer : B

 

35) Match List-I (Major Port) with List-I (State) and select the corect answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Major Port)                       List-I (Estate)
A. Jawaharlal Nehru Port           1. Tamil Nadu
B. Paradip Port                           2. Maharashtra
C. Kandla Port                            3. OrisaD. Enore Port

                                                   4. Gujarat
Code:
A B C D

 

A) 4 1 2 3
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 2 1 4 3

 

Answer:  2

 

36) Match List-I with List-I and select the corect answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I                                List-I
A. Linux                            1. Internet
B. Pentium                       2. Programming language
C. C++                             3. Microprocesor
D. Modem                        4. Operating system
                                         5. Laser printerCodes:
A B C D

 

A) 2 1 5 3
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 2 3 5 1
D) 4 1 2 3

 

Answer : B

 

37) Match List-I (Disease) with List-I (Nature of Disease) and select the corect answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Disease)                 List-I (Nature of Disease)
A. Filaria                            1.Hereditary
B. Epilepsy                        2. Waterborne
C. Enteric fever                 3. Contagious
D. Mumps                          4. Insect-Transmited
Code:
A B C D

 

A) 2 3 4 1
B) 4 1 2 3

C) 2 1 4 3
D) 4 3 2 1

 

Answer: B

 

38) Consider the folowing statements:

 

 1. Indo-Tibetan Border Police was raised after the Chinese agresion.
 2. Border Security Force was raised in 1965.
 3. Sardar Valabhbhai Patel National Police Academy is located in Udaipur.

Which of these statements are corect.?

 

A) 2 and 3

B) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) land 3

 

Answer : B


39) Consider the folowing statements:

 

1.The President of India can promulgate an Ordinance at any time if he is satisfied that circumstances 
exist which render it necesary for him to take immediate action.
2.The Vice-President of India can be re-elected to his post.
Which of these statements is/are corect?

 

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : B

40)  Bhimbetka which was ben confered the status of World Heritage Site is situated in:

 

A) Orisa
B) Rajasthan
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Bihar

 

Answer : C

 

41) Prof. Raghuram Rajan is/was asociated as Chief Economist of:

 

A) World Trade Organization
B) World Bank
C) International Monetary Fund
D) Economic and Social Council of the UNO

 

Answer : C

 

42)  Consider the folowing statement related to the 50th National Film Awards:
1. Aishwarya Rai got the Best Actres award for her role in the film Devdas.
2. Aparna Sen got the Best Director award for the film Mr. and Mrs. Iyer
3. Konkona Sen got the Best Actres award or her role in the film Mr. and Mrs.Iyer4. Sanjay Lela Bhansali got the Best Director award for the film Devdas.
Which of these statements are corect?

 

A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4

 

Answer : B

 

43) The autobiography Living History has ben authored by—

 

A) Margaret Atwod
B) Benazir Bhuto
C) Hilary Clinton
D) Monica Lewinsky

 

Answer : D

 

44) Match list-I (Person) with List-I (Organization) and select the corect answer using the codes given 
below the Lists:

 

List-I (Person)                 List-I (Organization)

 

A. C. P. Jain                     1. Indian Oil Corporation
B. M. S. Ramachandran   2. National Thermal Power Corporation
C. Sunil Arora                   3. Securites and Exchange Board of India
D. G. N. Bajpai                 4. Indian AirlinesCode:
A B C D

 

A) 4 1 2 3
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 2 1 4 3

 

Answer : D

45) Jharkhand does not share boundary with

 

A) West Bengal
B) Orisa
C) Chatisgarh
D) Madhya Pradesh

 

Answer : D

 

46 ) Which one of the folowing pairs is not corectly matched?

 

A) Nalin Surie : Ambasador to America
B) Shiv Shankar Menon : High Commisioner to Pakistan
C) S. K. Sinha : Governor of Jammu & Kashmir
D) K. Kasturirangan : Chairman, Indian Space Research Organization

 

Answer : D

 

47) No Biosphere Reserve. has ben set up at —

 

A) Nilgiri
B) Sunderbans
C) Gulf of Manar
D) Gulf of Kuchch

 

Answer : D

48) Consider the folowing statements:
 

 1. State Central Library is located at Mumbai.
 2. National Library is located at New Delhi.Which of these statements is/are corect?

 

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer : A

 

49) Match List-I (Place) with List -I (State) and select the corect answer using the codes given below the Lists:

 

List-I (Place)       List-I (State)

 

A. Sriharikota      1. Karnataka
B. Thumba          2. Andhra Pradesh
C. Hasan             3. OrisaD. Chandipur  

                            4. Kerala
                            5. Tamil Nadu
Code:
A B C D

 

A) 1 3 5 4
B) 2 4 1 3
C) 1 4 5 3
D) 2 3 1 4

 

Answer : B

 

50) Consider the folowing statements:

 

 1. Antrix is the commercial arm of ISRO for marketing Indian space capabilties.
 2. Megha-Tropiques is a joint satelite mision of ISRO and Rusian Space Agency for atmospheric               studies.
Which of these statements is/are corect?

 

A) 1 only

B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
C) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer : A

 

3] Civil Engineering Questions and Answers


1) Steel of yield strength 400 MPa has been used in a structure. What is the value of the maximum allowable tensile strength?

 

A) 240 MPa
B) 200 MPa
C) 120 MPa
D) 96 MPa

 

Answer : D

 

2)  Which one of the following is not a desirable property of the subgrade soil as a highway meterial?

 

A) Stability
B) Ease of compaction
C) Good drainage
D) Bitumen adhesion

 

Answer : D

 

3)  Consider the following statements:In surverying operations, the word ‘reciprocal’ can be associated with
 1. ranging
 2. levelling
 3. contouring

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer : B

 

4. How many- sidereal days are there in a solar year?


A) 365.2840
B) 366.2422
C) 360.2500
D) 365.0000

 

Answer : B

 

5) Consider the following statements

 

A sidereal year can be defined as the time interval:
 1. between two successive transits .of the sun through the meridian of any of the fixed stars
 2. between two successive passages of the sun through perigee

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 
A) 3 only
B) 1and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 1 only

 

Answer : B

 

6) Which one of the following methods of computing area assumes that the short, lengths of the boundary between the ordinates are parabolic ares?

 

A) Average ordinate rule
B) Middle ordinate rule
C) Simpson’s rule
D) Trapezoidal rule

 

Answer : C

 

7)  Which one the following errors is more severe in plane-table surveying?


A) Defective sighting
B) Defective orientation
C) Movement of board between sights
D) Non-horizontality of board when points sighted are at large differences of their elevation .


Answer : B

 

8) Which one of the following sets of factors is related to design of thickness rigid pavement by Westergaard method?


A) CBR value and stiffness index of soil
B) Deflection factor and traffic index
C) Swelling index and bulk modulus
D) Radius of relative stiffness and modulus of subgrade reaction


Answer : D


8)  Which one of the following tests is performed in the laboratory to determine the extent of weathering of aggregates for road works?


A) Soundness test
B) Crushing test
C) Impact test
D) Abrasion test


Answer : A


9) Which one of the following geometric features requires the magnitudes of weaving angle and weaving distance for its design?


A) Rotary design
B) Right-angle intersection
C) Roundabout

D) Grade-separated junction


Ans. (a)


10)  Which one of the following methods is used in the design of rigid pavements?


A) CBR method
B) Group index method
C) Westergaard’s method
D) McLeod’s method


Answer : C


11) In which one of the following yards, are reception, sorting and dispatch of railway wagons done?


A) Loco yard
B) Marashalling yard
C) Goods yard

D) Passenger yard


Answer : B

 

12) Hot bitumen is sprayed over freshly constructed bituminous surface followed by spreading of 6.3 mm coarse aggregates and rolled. Which one of the following is indicated by this type of construction?


A) Surface dressing
B) Gravel-bitumen mix
C) Liquid seal coat
D) Seal coat


Answer : A


13) Radius of relative stiffness of cement concrete pavement does not depend upon which one of the following?


A) Modulus of subgrade reaction
B) Wheel load

C) Modulus of elasticity of cement concrete
D) Poisson’s ratio of concrete


Answer : B


14) For conditions obtaining in India, at which location in a cement concrete payement will the combined stresses due to traffic wheel studies is needed for well as for ‘highway load and temperature have to be critically checked during design?


A) Corner
B) Corner and interior
C) Corner and edge
D) Corner, edge and interior


Answer : D

 

15)  Consider the following factors:


1. The change in the shape and size of the channel cross-section
2. The change in the slope of the channel
3. The presence of obstruction
4. The change in the frictional forces at the boundaries


Which of the above factors would cause a gradually varied flow?


A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
B) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4 only
D) 3 and 4 only


Answer : A

 

16) Consider the following in relation to group index of soil:


 1. Liquid limit
 2. Sandy loam
 3. Plasticity index
 4. Per cent passing 75 microns sieveWhich of the above is/are used for estimating the group index?


A) 1 only
B) 1and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 3 and 4


Answer : D


17) Which set of traffic functional design as well as for ‘highway capacity’ design?


A) Origin and destination studies
B) Parking and accident studies
C) Speed and volume studies
D) Axle load studies


Answer : A


18)  Which one of the following traffic survey schemes is most relevant when deciding on locating major ‘routes’ in a city?


A) Traffic volume survey
B) Origin and destination survey
C) Speed survey
D) Traffic capacity survey


Answer : B


19) Which one of the following equipments is useful in determining spot speed in traffic engineering?


A) Endoscope
B) Periscope
C) Radar
D) Tachometer

 

Answer : C


20. Under which one of the following categories is the river Ganga classified in the reach through UP and Bihar?

 

A) Straight river
B) Meandering river
C) Braided river
D) Deltaic river


Answer : B

 

21) Consider the following chemical emulsions:


1. Methyl alcohol
2. Cetyl alcohol
3. Stearyl alcohol
4. Kerosene


Which of the above chemical emulsions is/are used to minimize the loss of water through the process of evaporation?


A) 1 only
B) 1 and 4
C) 2 and 4
D) 2 and 3

 

Answer : D


22)  A catchment area of 60 ha has a runoff coefficient of 0.40. If a storm of intensity 3cm h and duration longer than the time of concentration occurs in the catchment, then what is the peak discharge?


A) 2.0 m3/s
B) 3.5 m3/s
C) 4.5 m3/s
D) 2.5 m3/s


Answer : A


23) Which combination of surface water quality parameters will indicate sweep coagulation as the preferred mechanism of coagulation?


A) High turbidity — low alkalinity

B) High turbidity — high alkalinity
C) Low turbidity — high alkalinity
D) Low turbidity — low alkalinity


Answer : B


24) In a canal irrigation project, 76% of the culturable command area (CCA) remained without water during Kharif season; and 58% of CCA remained without water during Rabi season in a particular year. Rest of the areas got irrigated in each crop respectively. What is the intensity of irrigation for the project in that year?

 

A) 134%
B) 76%
C) 66%
D) 58%

 

Answer : B


25) What is the critical combination of vertical and horizontal earthquake accelerations to be considered for checking the stability of a gravity dam in reservoir full condition?


A) Vertically upward and horizontally downstream
B) Vertically upward and horizontally upstream
C) Vertically downward and horizontally upstream
D) Vertically downward and horizontally downstream


Answer : D

 

26) Which of the following categories best describes the Hirakud reservoir?


A) Reservoir for irrigation and power
B) Reservoir for flood control, power and irrigation
C) Reservoir for irrigation and water supply
D) Reservoir for recreation and fishery


Answer : B

 

27) During a particular stage of the growth of a crop, consumptive use of water is 2.8 mm/day. If the amount of water available in the soil is 25% of 80 mm depth of water what is the frequency of irrigation?


A) 9 days
B) 13 days
C) 21 days
D) 25 days


Answer : C


28) Consider the following statements: Irrigation water has to be supplied to the crops when the moisture level falls


1. below field capacity
2. to wilting point
3. below wilting point


Which of the above statement is/are correct?

 

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 2 and 3


Answer : A


29) A groundwater basin consists of 10 km2 area of plains. The maximum groundwater table fluctuation has been observed to be 1.5 m. Consider specific yield of the basin as 10%. What is the available groundwater  storage in million cubic metres?


A) 1.0
B) 1.5
C) 2.5

D) 2.0


Answer : B


30) What is the height of wave which is likely to be generated by a wind of 80 km/hr in a reservoir having a fetch of 50 km:


A) 0.5m

B) 1.0 m
C) 2.0 m
D) 3.0 m


Answer : C

 

31) In a siphon system employed for carrying water from a reservoir A at a higher elevation to another reservoir B at lower elevation, both being separated by a higher hill, what will be the pressure at the ‘Summit’ (S)?

 

A) Equal to the pressure at the water surface of reservoir A
B) Higher than the pressure at the water surface of reservoir A
C) Equal to the pressure at the water surface of reservoir B
D) Less than the pressure at both A and B above


Answer : D


32)  Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:


List-I                                            List-II

 

A. Rehbock formula                    1. Sutro weir
B. Francis formula                       2. Rectangular suppressed weir
C. A special trapezoidal weir       3. Rectangular side- contracted weir
D. Linear proportional weir          4. Cippolletti weir

 

Code:A B C D


A) 1 3 4 2
B) 2 4 3 1
C) 1 4 3 2
D) 2 3 4 1


Answer : D

 

33) Consider the following statements related to undersluices provided in diversion weirs on permeable foundations:


 I. They are fully gate-controlled and have crest at the same level as the weir crest when no silt excluders are provided.
 2. They scour the silt deposited on the river bed in the pockets upstream of the canal head regulator.
 3. It is not necessary to provide end pile line on the downstream end of the undersluice floor.

 4. The discharge capacity of the undersluice is 10-15% of the maximum flood or two times the maximum discharge of the offtaking canal or maximum winter discharge, whichever is the highest.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?


A) 1
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 2, 3 and 4
C) 3 and 4 only


Answer : B


34) What is the theoretical oxygen demand of 300 mg/L glucose solution?


A) 300 mg/L
B) 320 mg/L

C) 350 mg/L
D) 400 mg/L


Answer : B


35) Consider the following statements:


1. Giving equal weightings to horizontal and vertical creeps for design of weir foundations is one of the drawbacks of Kennedy’s theory.
2. Khosla’s theory of design of foundations for weirs is based on potential theory.
3. Piping problem can be reduced by increasing the length of floor.
4. In Lane’s weighted creep theory, horizontal creep is given less weightage compared to vertical creep.


Which of the above statements is/are correct?


A) 1

B) 2, 3 and 4
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 3 and 4 only


Answer : B


36) The power transmitted through a pipeline is maximum when the head lost due to friction in the pipe is equal to:


A) the total supply head
B) half of the total supply head
C) one-third of the total supply head
D) one-fourth of the total supply head


Answer : C


37) Consider the following with respect to the application of the Navier-Stokes equations:

 

1. Laminar flown in circular pipes
2. Laminar flow between concentric rotating cylinders
3. Laminar unidirectional flow between stationary parallel plates
4. Laminary unit directional flow between parallel plates having relative motion


Which of the above is/are correct?


A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only.
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Answer : C


38)  Consider the following:


1. Force on pipe bends and transitions
2. Jet propulsion
3. Flow velocities in open channel
4. Vortex flow


Which of the above admit employing the moment of momentum equation?


A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2, 3 and 4

 

Answer : D


39) Consider the following statements:


1. Shear stress is maximum at the centre line.
2. Maximum velocity is 3\2 times the average velocity
3. Discharge varies inversely with the coefficient of viscosity.
4. Slope of hydraulic gradient line increases linearly with the velocity of flow.


Which of the above statements are correct in connection with a steady laminar flow through a circular pipe?


A) 1, 3 and 4
B) 3 and 4 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 4

 

Answer : B

 

40)  Consider the following statements:Cavitation generally results from a combination of several influences


1. by reduction of pressure intensity below a limiting value
2. by increase in either elevation or the velocity of flow
3. by reduction of pressure load in the system
4. by decrease in the velocity of flow


Which of the above statements are correct?


B) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 3 and 4


Answer : B

 

41) What is Hydrological Cycle?


A) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea to land
B) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea back again
C) Processes involved in the transfer of water from snowmelt in mountains
D) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea to land and back to sea again


Answer : D

 

42) A triangular direct runoff hydrograph due to a storm has a time base of 60 hr and a peak flow of 30m3/s occurring at 20 hr from the start. If the catchment area is 300 km2, what is the rainfall excess in the storm?


A) 50 mm
B) 20 mm
C) 10.8 mm
D) 8.3 mm


Answer : C


43) A 3 hr unit hydrograph U1 of a catchment of area 235 km2 is in the form of a triangle with peak discharge 30 m3/s. Another 3 hr unit hydrograph U2 is also triangular in shape and has the same base width as U1, but has a  peak flow of 90 m3/s. What is the catchment area of U2?

 

A) 117.5 km2
B) 235 km2
C) 470 km2
D) 705 km2


Answer : D


44)  While selecting a centrifugal pump for your requirement of head and discharge on the basis of its performance characteristics,which one of the following criteria is to be adopted?


A) Head, discharge and efficiency
B) Head and discharge only
C) Discharge only
D) Head only


Answer : A

 

45) Consider the following statements: The function of the impeller in a centrifugal pump is to:


1. Convert the pressure energy into hydraulic energy
2. Convert the hydraulic energy into mechanical energy
3. Convert the mechanical energy into hydraulic energy
4. transform most of the kinetic energies to pressure energy


Which of the above statements is/are correct?


A) 1 only
B) 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 2, 3 and 4


Answer : B

 

46)  A centrifugal pump gives maximum efficiency when its impeller blades are


(a) bent forward
(b) bent backward
(c) straight
(d) wave-shaped


Answer : B


47)  Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the the code given below the 

Lists-I                                                           List-II


A. Spiral casing     1. To allow flow of water through it to produce a torque for the rotation of the runner
B. Stay ring            2. To direct the water on the runner at an appropriate angle

C. Guide vane       3. To distribute the flow over the periphery of the runner
D. Runner              4. To act as column helping to support the electrical generator above the turbine

 

Code: A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 1 4 2 3


Answer : C

 

48)  By which one of the following, a small quantity of water may be lifted to a great height?

 

A) Hydraulic ram
B) Hydraulic crane
C) Hydraulic lift
D) Hydraulic coupling


Answer : A

 

49) A 1.6 m3 capacity tractor loaded works at a site with an effective per-round-trip time of 64 seconds. Effective delivery of excavated material is 90%. If utilization is 50 minutes per hour working, what will be the productivity in a 4-hour shift?


A) 253 m3
B) 262 m3
C) 270 m3
D) 282 m3

 

Answer : C


50) Consider the following with respect to a double-mass curve:


 I. Plot of accumulated rainfall with respect to two chronological orders
 2. Plot for estimating multiple missing rainfall data
 3. Plot for checking the consistency of the rainfall data
 4. Plot of accumulated annual rainfall of a station vs. accumulated rainfall of a group of stations

 

Which of the above are correct?


A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4


Answer : C


51) Generally to estimate PMP, Pm = 42. 16D0.475 is used (Pm is maximum depth of precipitation,

D = duration). What are the units of Pm and D in the equation?


A) mm, sec
B) cm, sec
C) mm, hr
D) cm, hr


Answer : D


52) A 1.75 m3 capacity tractor loader has forward loaded speed of 240 m/min, returning unloaded speed of 300 m/min and operates at 80% of the specified speed. It hauls earth over a distance of 60 m with fixed time per trip being 25 seconds. What is its effective cycle time?


A) 54.25 seconds
B) 55.50 seconds
C) 56.75 seconds
D) 58.75 seconds


Answer : D

 

53) Which one of the following relates to determination of critical path in PERT?


A) Event oriented slack
B) Activity oriented float
C) Event oriented float
D) Activity oriented slack


Answer : A


54) In order to achieve a safe compressive strength of 20 kg/cm2 in a brick masonary, what should be the suitable range of crushing strength of bricks?


A) 35kg/cm2 to 70 kg/cm2
C) 70 kg/cm2 to 105 kg/cm2
C) 105 kg/cm2 to 125 kg/cm2

D) More than 125 kg/cm2


Answer : B


55) What is the requirement of water (expressed as % of cement w/w) for the completion of chemical 
reactions in the process of hydration of OPC?


A) 10 to 15%
B) 15 to 20%
C) 20 to 25%
D) 25 to 30%


Answer : C


56) Which factors comprise maturity of concrete?


A) Compressive strength and. flexural strength of concrete /
B) Cement content per cubic metre and compressive strength of concrete

C) Curing age and curing temperature of concrete
D) Age and aggregate content per cubic metre of concrete


Answer : C


57)  What is the minimum value of individual tests results (in N/mm2) for compressive strength compliance requirement for concrete M20 as per codal provision?


A) fck 1
B) fck 3
C) fck 4
D) fck 5


Answer : C


58) For what reason is it taken that the nominal maximum size of aggregate may be as large as possible?

 

A) Larger the maximum size of aggregate, more the cement required and so higher the strength.
B) Larger the maximum size of aggregate, smaller is the cement requirement for particular water cement ratio and so more economical the mix.
C) Larger the maximum size of aggregate, lesser are the voids in the mix and hence also lesser the 
cement required.
D) Larger the maximum size of aggregate, more the surface area and better the bond between 
aggregates and cement, and so higher the strength.


Answer : D


59) What is the modulus of elasticity of standard timber (Group B) in (MN/cm2)?


A) 0.5 to 1.0
B) 1.0 to 1.25

C) 1.25 to 1.5
D) 1.5 to 1.75


Answer : B


60)  What is the treatment for making timber fire- resistant?


A) ASCU treatment
B) Abel’s process
C) Creosoting
D) Tarring


Answer : B


61) How is the process of treatment of wood using a preservative solution and forcing air in at pressure designated?


A) Ruping process

B) Lawri process
C) Full cell process
D) Empty cell process


Answer : D


62) Modular bricks are of nominal size 20 × 10 × 10cm and 20% of the volume is lost in mortar between joints. Then what is the number of modular bricks required per cubic meter of brick work?


A) 520
B) 500
C) 485
D) 470


Answer : D


63) A solid metal of uniform sectional area throughout its length hangs vertically from its upper end. Devails of the bar are:length = 6m, material density = 8 × 10-5 N/mm3 and B =2 × 1o5 N/mm2. What will be the total elongation of the bar in mm?


A) 288/104

B) 48/104
C) 144/104
D) 72/104


Answer : D


64) What is the representative geometric mean size of an aggregate sample if its fineness modulus is 
3.0?


A) 150 μm
B) 300 μm

C) 600 μm
D) 12 μm


Answer : C


65) A square steel bar of 50 mm side and 5m long is subjected to a load where upon it absorbs a strain energy of 100 J. What is its modulus of resilience?


A) 1/125 Nmm/ mm3
B) 125 mm3/Nmm
C) 1/125 Nmm/ mm3
D) 100 mm3/Nmm


Answer : A


66) What is the ratio of flexural strength (fcr) to the characteristic compressive strength of concrete (fck) for M25 grade concrete?

 

A) 0.08
B) 0.11
C) 0.14
A) 0.17


Answer : C


67) Which of the following tests compares the dynamic modulus of elasticity of samples of concrete?


A) Compression test 

B) Ultrasonic pulse velocity test
C) Split test
D) Tension test


Answer : B


68) Which one of the following is correct regarding the most effective requirements of durability in concrete?


A) Providing reinforcement near the exposed concrete surface
B) Applying a protective coating to the exposed concrete surface
C) Restricting the minimum cement content and the maximum water cement ratio and the type of cement
D) Compacting the concrete to a greater degree.


Answer : C)


69) What is the radius of Mohr’s circle in case of bi-axial state of stress?


A) Half the sum of the two principal stresses
B) Half the difference of the two principal stresses
C) Difference of the two principal stresses
D) Sum of the two principal stresses


Answer : B

 

70) A square beam laid flat is then rotated in such a way that one of its diagonal becomes horizontal. 
How is its moment capacity affected?


A) Increases by 41.4%
B) Increases by 29.27%
C) Decreases by 29.27%
D) Decreases by 41.4%


Answer : D

 

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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : Chivade MahalappaUpdated Date : Sep 5, 2014

IOCL Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

IOCL recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

 

IOCL Placement Questions and Answers

 

This paper contains questions from three sections such as Aptitude, Computer Knowledge and Technical which are generaaly asked. 

 

1. Aptitude Questions

 

1)  1256 x 3892 = ?

 

(a) 4883582    

(b) 4888352  

(c) 4888532

(d) 4883852            

(e) None of these

 

Answer : b

 

2)  6 x 66 x 6666 = ?

 

(a) 263736    

(b) 267336    

(c) 263763        

(d) 263376            

(e) None of these

 

Answer : a

 

3)  (7)3 ÷ √ ? + 7 = 14

 

(a) 49        

(b) 1764    

(c) 441            

(d) 3136            

(e) None of these

 

Answer : e

 

4)  12167 x ? = 1035

 

(a) 35        

(b) 25        

(c) 55            

(d) 15                

(e) None of these

 

Answer : e

 

5)  5   x 8   ÷ 7  = ?

 

(a) 1        

(b) 1        

(c) 5            

(d) 5                

(e) None of these

 

Answer : c

 

2. Computer Knowledge Questions

 

1) The term …………….. designates equipment that might be added to a computer system to enhance its functionality.

 

(a) digital device    

(b) system add-on  

(c) disk pack    

(d) peripheral device    

(e) None of these

 

Answer : b

 

2)  A device, which is not connected to the CPU, is called as …………………

 

(a) Land-line  

(b) On-Line device    

(c) Off-line device

(d) Device    

(e) None of the above

 

Answer : c

 

3)  A …………………. Is a microprocessor-based computing device.

 

(a) personal computer  

(b) mainframe    

(c) workstation

(d) server    

(e) None of these

 

Answer : a

 

4)  The…………. Is the amount of data that a storage device can move from the storage medium to the computer per second.

 

(a) data migration rate    

(b) data digitizing    

(c) data transfer rate

(d) data access rate      

(e) None of these

 

Answer : c

 

5)    RAM can be thought of as the ………… for the computer’s processor

 

(a) factory    

(b) operating room  

(c) waiting room

(d) planning room  

(e) None of these

 

Answer : c

 

6  An area of a computer that temporarily holds data waiting to be processed is ……………..

 

(a) CPU  

(b) Memory        

(c) Storage        

(d) File            

(e) None of these

 

Answer : b

 

7)  Data becomes …………. When it is presented in a format that people can understand and use.

 

(a) processed    

(b) graphs      

(c) information    

(d) presentation    

(e) None of these

 

Answer : c

 

8)  To move a copy of a file from one computer to another over a communication channel is called?

 

(a) File transfer    

(b) File encryption  

(c) Waiting room

(d) File copying

(e) None of these

 

Answer : a

 

9)  The instructions that tell a computer how to carry out processing tasks are referred to as computer ……………….

 

(a) programs    

(b) Processors        

(c) input devices

(d) memory modules    

(e) None of these

 

Answer : a

 

10)  What kind of memory is both static and non-volatile?

 

(a) RAM        

(b) ROM    

(c) BIOS

(d) CACHE        

(e) None of these

 

Answer : b

 

3. Technical Questions

 

1) The relative speed between the magnetic fields of stator and rotor under steady state operation is zero for a

 

(a) dc machine.
(b) 3 phase induction machine.
(c) synchronous machine.
(d) single phase induction machine.

e) All of the above

 

Answer : e

 

2) What are two purposes for segmentation with a bridge?

 

1) To add more broadcast domains.
2) To create more collision domains.
3) To add more bandwidth for users.
4) To allow more broadcasts for users.

 

(a).1 only
(b).2 and 3
(c).2 and 4
(d).4 only

 

Answe r: c

 

3) A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load. Its field current is switched off. The motor will

 

(a) come to stop.
(b) Continue to run at synchronous speed.
(c) Continue to run at a speed slightly more than the synchronous speed.
(d) Continue to run at a speed slightly less than the synchronous speed.

 

Answer : b

 

4) In a stepper motor the angular displacement

 

(a) can be precisely controlled.
(b) It cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller.
(c) The angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled.
(d) It cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines.

 

Answer : a

 

5) In a D.C. machine, the armature MMF is

 

(a) stationary w.r.t. armature.
(b) Rotating w.r.t. field.
(c) Stationary w.r.t. field.
(d) Rotating w.r.t. brushes.

 

Answer : c

 

6) Out of the following methods of heating the one which is independent of supply frequency is

 

(a) electric arc heating
(b) induction heating
(c) electric resistance heating
(d) dielectric heating

 

Answer : c

 

7) When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces

 

(a) damping torque.
(b) eddy current torque.
(c) torque aiding the developed torque.
(d) no torque.

 

Answer : d

 

8) The two windings of a transformer is

 

(a) conductively linked.
(b) Inductively linked.
(c) Not linked at all.
(d) Electrically linked.

 

Answer : b
 

9)  The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because

 

(a) at no load, it will rotate at dangerously high speed. 
(b) it will fail to start.
(c) it will not develop high starting torque. 
(d) all are true.

 

Answer : a

 

10) In a 3 phase induction motor running at slip s the mechanical power developed in terms of air gap power Pg is

 

(a) (s-1)Pg

(b) Pg/1-S

(c) 1-SPg

(d) S.Pg.

 

Answer : c


11) The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is 

 

(a) low at light load only. 
(b) low at heavy load only.
(c) low at light and heavy load both.
(d) low at rated load only. 

 

Answer : a

 

12)  A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading power factors is the 

 

(a) squirrel cage induction motor. 
(b) wound rotor induction motor. 
(c) synchronous motor. 
(d) DC shunt motor.

 

Answer : c 

 

13)  The generation voltage is usually

 

(a) between 11 KV and 33 KV. 
(b) between 132 KV and 400 KV.
(c) between 400 KV and 700 KV. 
(d) None of the above. 

 

Answer : a 

 

14)  If a transformer primary is energised from a square wave voltage source, its output voltage will be 

 

(a) A square wave. 
(b) A sine wave.
(c) A triangular wave. 
(d) A pulse wave.

 

Answer : a

 

15) In a d.c. series motor the electromagnetic torque developed is proportional to 

 

(a)1a

(b)12a-Answer

(c)1/1a

(d)1/12a

 

Answer : b
 

16) A hysteresis motor

 

(a) is not a self-starting motor. 
(b) is a constant speed motor.
(c) needs dc excitation. 
(d) can not be run in reverse speed. 

 

Answer: b

 

 

17) In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at 

 

(a) unity p.f. 
(b) leading p.f. 
(c) lagging p.f. 
(d) zero p.f. leading. 

 

Answer : b

 

18) A two-winding single phase transformer has a voltage regulation of 4.5% at full-load and unity power-factor. At full-load and 0.80 power-factor lagging load the voltage regulation will be 

 

(a) 4.5%. 
(b) less than 4.5%.
(c) more than 4.5%. 
(d) 4.5% or more than 4.5%. 

 

Answer : c

 

19) The primary winding of a 220/6 V, 50 Hz transformer is energised from 110 V, 60 Hz supply. The secondary output voltage will be 

 

(a) 3.6 V. 
(b) 2.5 V.
(c) 3.0 V. 
(d) 6.0 V. 

 

Answer : c

 

20) The size of a conductor used in power cables depends on the 

 

(a) operating voltage. 
(b) power factor.
(c) current to be carried. 
(d) type of insulation used. 

 

Answer : c

 

21) The emf induced in the primary of a transformer 

 

(a) is in phase with the flux. 
(b) lags behind the flux by 90 degree.
(c) leads the flux by 90 degree. 
(d) is in phase opposition to that of flux. 

 

Answer : c

 

22) The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to the external load circuit through 

 

(a) slip rings. 
(b) commutator segments.
(c) solid connections. 
(d) carbon brushes. 

 

Answer : c

 

23) The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor at full load speed is about 

 

(a) 50 Hz. 
(b) 20 Hz.
(c) 2 Hz. 
(d) Zero. 

 

Answer : c 


24) The most suitable servomotor for low power applications is 

 

(a) a dc series motor. 
(b) a dc shunt motor. 
(c) an ac two-phase induction motor. 
(d) an ac series motor. 

 

Ans: b

 

25) Out of the following methods of heating the one which is independent of supply frequency is 

 

(a) electric arc heating
(b) induction heating
(c) electric resistance heating 
(d) dielectric heating 

 

Answer : c