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IBPS Placement Paper : 43668
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : IBPS Exam AnlysisUpdated Date : Aug 2, 2014

IBPS Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

IBPS CWE clerical PO,MT Examinations procedure previous years solved question papers and analysis 2013-2014  Analysis of IBPS PO CWE 2013 -Exam held on 19th /20th Oct 2013


IBPS CWE New examination notifications upcoming recruitments through IBPS CWE Clericals, PO,MT Specialists officers new jobs, careers news IBPS CWE PO MT Clerical SPL officers RRBs new examination procedure and IBPS Previous Years free solved question papers with detailed explanations IBPS CWE common written examination aptitude, reasoning, bank based general knowledge, computer awareness, latest current affairs RBI latest updations  in formations Here you can find a comprehensive and detailed analysis of IBPS solved question papers learn and practice largest collection of ibps sample model previous years questions with answers  

IBPS Bank CWE New and latest Examinations recruitment notifications for all over India Public sector banks, nationalised, co-operative banks and other private banks IBPS has been conducting inter-scale promotion assessments for both Generalist and Specialist cadre employees across levels of the organizations. If you are looking for a career in the Human Resource related matter we offer opportunities for employment either in our organization or any other organization who has been utilizing our services in the area of recruitment, placement, promotion and related research. IBPS Personnel offer employment opportunities to all professionals by assessing their potential in a scientific method. IBPS-Bank financial Competitive Admission Testing Learning Skill India Exercise Technology Banking Recruitment Talent Computer Educational Behavioural

 

IBPS careers in banking exams

IBPS CWE -All details regarding IBPS common written examinations (CWE Exam) for various jobs positions in banks
Every years IBPS conducts on line common written examination for clerks, PO-Probationary officers, Management trainees-MT, Specialists officers SPL -in India IBPS started the CWE exam in the year 2011,before that the recruitment /selection procedure in each bank was done by the bank itself. In the latest bank careers news and experts in India says that in the next five years about 7.5 lakh people have to be recruitment  to the banks because of the retirement of existing employees an the opening of different new branches. Being a part of the IBPS team can really be a breakthrough journey for professionals as they get an opportunity to enrich their career experience. With the selection process, the Institute helps its clients in succession planning their manpower, thereby providing opportunities for the employees to grow and develop. 

 

IBPS CWE-Common Written Examination Clerical recruitment notifications IBPS CWE clerical previous years solved questions answers for referring upcoming latest recruitment of IBPS Common Written Examination for Clerical Cadre 2013-2014

 

IBPS recruits clerk once in every year .through on line exam with 200 questions in 120 minutes.1/4th of the marks penalized for each wrong answers in objective tests. Each section 40 questions 40 marks.  You must pass each section for qualifying examination. But not just qualifying examination, candidates should score more than 160 marks out of 200

 

IBPS Expected Date of clerical cadre examination date is December 

 

IBPS CWE PO-MT Probationary Officers, Management Trainee Specialists Officers Examination Procedure 

IBPS conducts recruitment for the Probationary officers, management trainee once in a years In the Year 2012 PO was not on line. but now it is also an on line exam IBPS Po MT Spl officers exam contains 50 questions 50 marks for each sections such as reasoning aptitude, english, computer knowledge ..For the PO recruitment along with these test a test for english composition is there which includes letter writing, essay, precis etc with maximum marks of 25 and for a time of one hour

 

IBPS RRB's regional rural banks exam, specialists officer recruitment and all other recruitment officer scale I,II,III Nabard RBI,SBI SBT all examinations almost same pattern and structure the difference is number questions and marks time etc For Crack IBPS CWE exam speed in calculations is the important factor.Practice all banks IBPS SBI RBI on line mock tests. Refer and practice previous years solved question papers of IBPS CWE PO RRBs Management trainees, probationary officers clerical ..Update your current affairs 


Analysis Examination details regarding  IBPS PO CWE 2013 (Exam held on 19th /20th Oct 2013)


The IBPS P.O. On-line Exam, one of the most reputed exams in the Indian banking sector, was held on the 19th (Saturday) and 20th (Sunday) of October 2013. The next set of dates for the exam are 26th/27th of Oct 2013 and 9th/10th of Nov 2013. It has been ascertained from students' assessment that overall, the examination was moderate, comparatively easier than the one held last year.

 

Duration of the Examination 120 Minutes
Number of sections 5
Negative Marking 0.25 of marks assigned to the question
Total Questions 200
Quantitative Aptitude 50 questions
Reasoning 50 questions
English Language 40 questions
General Awareness 40 questions
Computer Knowledge 20 questions

 

IBPS CWE Exam sectional analysis is as follows : 

IBPS PO CWE  Quantitative Aptitude : 

In general, the difficulty level of this section can be pegged at moderate to difficult. It was reported that there were no questions on Simplifications and Approximations. This was something unexpected and caught students off-guard. Since the above were replaced by questions from various topics of Arithmetic, which usually take more time to solve, this section was time-consuming. 
The break-up of the 50 questions of this section is as : 
Data Interpretation – 20 
Number series – 5 
Quadratic Equations (Comparisons) – 5
Questions from individual topics of Arithmetic – 15
Data Sufficiency – 5

IBPS  CWE  Reasoning : 

According to the feedback received from candidates who have appeared for this exam, the difficulty level of this section can be termed as more or less moderate. As has been the pattern ever since the exam has gone on-line, this time too non-verbal questions were conspicuous by their absence. 
The break-up of the 50 questions in this section is as : 
Deductions – 5 
Data Sufficiency – 5 
Input/output – 5 
Decision Making – 5 
Puzzles – 15 
Other topics – 15 ( Symb & Not based Conclusions, Assumptions / Inferences / Cause and effect, Direction sense / Word digit formation / ranking etc.) 

IBPS CWE  General Awareness : 

It was reported by students that most of the 40 questions in this section were from Banking Awareness and Indian Economy. Current affairs also formed the basis for a few questions. The difficulty level can be stated as easy to moderate. 

IBPS CWE English Language: 

As reported, this section can be called a difficult one, as the Comprehension questions, which students dread, dominated this section. In one of the slots on the 19th of October, there were two passages with 15 questions and in one of the slots of the other day, the two RC passages had 10 questions each. 
Earlier, when the exam used to have 50 questions in this section, this kind of pattern was common. But with almost half of this section dominated by questions on reading comprehension, students found it very lengthy and exhaustive. Had these questions been substituted by those of verbal ability, it could have become easy for candidates to work on this section with greater speed. The break-up of the 40 questions is as : 
Reading Comprehension – 15 -20
Cloze Test – 10
Para formation Questions – 5 (with six sentences to sequence)
Grammar – 5 - 10

IBPS CWE Computer Knowledge : 

The questions in this section were reported to be easy. No great preparation was needed to tick these multiple choice questions. In fact, answers to a few questions could be worked out by looking at the various choices that each of these questions had. As compared to other IBPS exams, this section presented very little challenge to students. 
This section was reported to be easy in all the slots on 19th and 20th Oct 2013. 


In short all students opinion that the 2013 IBPS CWE examination was moderate difficulty level.  Question paper lengthy and time consuming

BSNL Placement Paper : 46806
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : NeerajUpdated Date : Dec 16, 2014

BSNL Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

                                BSNL JAOS Solved Model Question Paper

 

                                        Numerical Aptitude

 

1. A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the length of the train?
A. 120 metres 
B. 180 metres
C. 324 metres 
D. 150 metres

2. The length of the bridge, which a train 130 metres long and travelling at 45 km/hr can cross in 30 seconds, is:
A. 200 m 
B. 225 m
C. 245 m 
D. 250 m

3. Present ages of Sameer and Anand are in the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio of their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is Anand's present age in years?
A. 24 
B. 27
C. 40 
D. Cannot be determined

4. A is two years older than B who is twice as old as C. If the total of the ages of A, B and C be 27, the how old is B?
A. 7 
B. 8
C. 9 
D. 10

5. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are:
A. 39, 30 
B. 41, 32
C. 42, 33 
D. 43, 34

6. What percentage of numbers from 1 to 70 have 1 or 9 in the unit's digit?
A. 1 
B. 14
C. 20 
D. 21

7. A tank is filled by three pipes with uniform flow. The first two pipes operating simultaneously fill the tank in the same time during which the tank is filled by the third pipe alone. The second pipe fills the tank 5 hours faster than the first pipe and 4 hours slower than the third pipe. The time required by the first pipe is:
A. 6 hours 
B. 10 hours
C. 15 hours 
D. 30 hours

8. A and B invest in a business in the ratio 3 : 2. If 5% of the total profit goes to charity and A's share is Rs. 855, the total profit is:
A. Rs. 1425 
B. Rs. 1500
C. Rs. 1537.50 
D. Rs. 1576

9. Three partners shared the profit in a business in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. They had partnered for 14 months, 8 months and 7 months respectively. What was the ratio of their investments?
A. 5 : 7 : 8 
B. 20 : 49 : 64
C. 38 : 28 : 21 
D. None of these

10. The banker's discount on a bill due 4 months hence at 15% is Rs. 420. The true discount is:
A. Rs. 400 
B. Rs. 360
C. Rs. 480 
D. Rs. 320

11. The banker's gain of a certain sum due 2 years hence at 10% per annum is Rs. 24. The present worth is:
A. Rs. 480 
B. Rs. 520
C. Rs. 600 
D. Rs. 960

12. Three numbers which are co-prime to each other are such that the product of the first two is 551 and that of the last two is 1073. The sum of the three numbers is:
A. 75 
B. 81
C. 85 
D. 89

13. The least number, which when divided by 12, 15, 20 and 54 leaves in each case a remainder of 8 is:
A. 504 
B. 536
C. 544 
D. 548

14. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
A. 6.25 
B. 6.5
C. 6.75 
D. 7

 

15. An error 2% in excess is made while measuring the side of a square. The percentage of error in the calculated area of the square is:
A. 2% 
B. 2.02%
C. 4% 
D. 4.04%

 

                                         English Language

 

(Qns 1-5)Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom, If there is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) 'None of these' will be the answer.

 

1. To drive home
A. To find one's roots 
B. To return to place of rest
C. Back to original position 
D. To emphasise
E. None of these

 

2. To have an axe to grind
A. A private end to serve 
B. To fail to arouse interest
C. To have no result 
D. To work for both sides
E. None of these

 

3. To catch a tartar
A. To trap wanted criminal with great difficulty
B. To catch a dangerous person
C. To meet with disaster
D. To deal with a person who is more than one's match
E. None of these

 

4. To play second fiddle
A. To be happy, cheerful and healthy
B. To reduce importance of one's senior
C. To support the role and view of another person
D. To do back seat driving
E. None of these

 

5. A man of straw
A. A man of no substance 
B. A very active person
C. A worthy fellow 
D. An unreasonable person
E. None of these

 

(Qns 6-8)In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.

 

6. ARTIFICIAL
A. Red 
B. Natural
C. Truthful 
D. Solid

 

7. EXODUS
A. Influx 
B. Home-coming
C. Return 
D. Restoration

 

8. COMMISSIONED
A. Started 
B. Closed
C. Finished 
D. Terminated.

 

(Qns 9-12)Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer.

 

9. The small child does whatever his father was done.
A. has done 
B. did
C. does 
D. had done
E. No correction required

 

10.The man to who I sold my house was a cheat.
A. to whom I sell 
B. to who I sell
C. who was sold to 
D. to whom I sold
E. No correction required

 

11. They were all shocked at his failure in the competition.
A. were shocked at all 
B. had all shocked at
C. had all shocked by 
D. had been all shocked on
E. No correction required

 

12. He is too important for tolerating any delay.
A. to tolerate 
B. to tolerating
C. at tolerating 
D. with tolerating
E. No correction required

 

(Qns 13-15)In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

13. CORPULENT
A. Lean 
B. Gaunt
C. Emaciated 
D. Obese

 

14. VENT
A. Opening 
B. Stodge
C. End 
D. Past tense of go

 

15. CANNY
A. Obstinate 
B. Handsome
C. Clever 
D. Stout

 

                                                 Financial Management

       

1. Suppliers and Creditors of a firm are interested in
A.Profitability Position
B.Liquidity Position
C.Market Share Position
D. Debt Position

 

2. Gross Profit Ratio for a firm remains same but the Net Profit Ratio is decreasing. The reason for such behavior could be:
A. Increase in Costs of Goods Sold
B.If Increase in Expense
C. Increase in Dividend
D.Decrease in Sales.

 

3. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. A Higher Receivable Turnover is not desirable,
B. Interest Coverage Ratio depends upon Tax Rate,
C.Increase in Net Profit Ratio means increase in Sales,
D. Lower Debt-Equity Ratio means lower Financial Risk.

 

4. Debt to Total Assets of a firm is .2. The Debt to Equity boo would be:
A. 0.80
B.0.25
C. 1.00
D.0.75

 

5. Capital Budgeting is a part of:
A.Investment Decision
B. Working Capital Management
C. Marketing Management
D. Capital Structure

 

6. Capital Budgeting deals with:
A. Long-term Decisions
B. Short-term Decisions
C. Both
D.Neither a) nor b)

 

7. Which of the following is not used in Capital Budgeting?
A. Time Value of Money
B. Sensitivity Analysis
C. Net Assets Method
D. Cash Flows

 

8. Capital Budgeting Decisions are:
A. Reversible
B. Irreversible
C. Unimportant
D.All of the above

 

9. Evaluation of Capital Budgeting Proposals is based on Cash Flows because:
A. Cash Flows are easy to calculate
B.Cash Flows are suggested by SEBI
C. Cash is more important than profit
D. None of the above

 

10. Which of the following is not included in incremental A flows?
A. Opportunity Costs
B.Sunk Costs
C. Change in Working Capital
D. Inflation effect

 

11. In Capital Budgeting, Sunk cost is excluded because it is:
A. of small amount
B. not incremental
C. not reversible
D. All of the above

 

12. Savings in respect of a cost is treated in capital budgeting as:
A. An Inflow
B. An Outflow
C. Nil
D. None of the above.

 

13. Feasibility Set Approach to Capital Rationing can be applied in:
A. Accept-Reject Situations
B. Divisible Projects
C. Mutually Exclusive Projects
D. None of the above

 

14. In case of divisible projects, which of the following can be used to attain maximum NPV?
A. Feasibility Set Approach
B. Internal Rate of Return
C. Profitability Index Approach
D. Any of the above

 

15. Profitability Index, when applied to Divisible Projects, impliedly assumes that:
A. Project cannot be taken in parts
B. NPV is linearly proportionate to part of the project taken up
C. NPV is additive in nature
D. Both b) and c)

 

16. If there is no inflation during a period, then the Money Cashflow would be equal to:
A. Present Value
B. Real Cash flow
C. Real Cash flow + Present Value
D. Real Cash flow - Present Value

 

17. Real rate of return is equal to:
A. Nominal RatexInflation Rate
B. Nominal Rate/Inflation Rate
C. Nominal Rate - Inflation Rate
D. Nominal Rate + Inflation Rate

 

18. If the Real rate of return is 10% and Inflation s Money Discount Rate is:
A. 14.4%
B. 2.5%
C. 25%
D. 14%

 

19. Two mutually exclusive projects with different economic lives can be compared on the basis of
A. Internal Rate of Return
B. Profitability Index
C. Net Present Value
D. Equivalent Annuity Value

 

20. Risk in Capital budgeting is same as:
A. Uncertainty of Cash flows
B. Probability of Cash flows
C. Certainty of Cash flows
D. Variability of Cash flows

BSNL Placement Paper : 46801
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : AnuUpdated Date : Dec 11, 2014

BSNL Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

         BSNL JAOS-Solved Model Question Paper

                    

                    General English

 

1.Are you attending ----- reception today
A. a
B. an
C. the
D. no article

 

2.She wants to become ----- engineer
A. a
B. an
C. the
D. no article

 

(Qn No:3-5)Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

3. (solve as per the direction given above)
A. We discussed about the problem so thoroughly
B. on the eve of the examination
C. that I found it very easy to work it out.
D. No error.

4.(solve as per the direction given above)
A. An Indian ship
B. laden with merchandise
C. got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.
D. No error.

5.(solve as per the direction given above)
A. I could not put up in a hotel
B. because the boarding and lodging charges
C. were exorbitant.
D. No error.

 

(Qn No:6-8)Find the correctly spelt words.

6.(solve as per the direction given above)
A. Efficient 
B. Treatmeant
C. Beterment 
D. Employd

 

7.(solve as per the direction given above)
A. Foreign 
B. Foreine
C. Fariegn 
D. Forein

 

8.(solve as per the direction given above)
A. Ommineous 
B. Omineous
C. Ominous 
D. Omenous

 

(Qn No:9-12)In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicised and underlined. Below are given alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, option 'D' is the answer.

9.The workers are hell bent at getting what is due to them.
A. hell bent on getting 
B. hell bent for getting
C. hell bent upon getting 
D. No improvement

 

10.When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain their freedom from serfdom, the protestant leaders joined the princes at crushing them.
A. into crushing 
B. in crushing
C. without crushing 
D. No improvement

 

11.If the room had been brighter, I would have been able to read for a while before bed time.
A. If the room was brighter 
B. If the room are brighter
C. Had the room been brighter 
D. No improvement

 

12.his powerful desire brought about his downfall.
A. His intense desire 
B. His desire for power
C. His fatal desire 
D. No improvement

 

(Qn No:13-15)In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

13. CORPULENT
A. Lean 
B. Gaunt
C. Emaciated 
D. Obese

 

14. BRIEF
A. Limited 
B. Small
C. Little 
D. Short

 

15.EMBEZZLE
A. Misappropriate 
B. Balance
C. Remunerate 
D. Clear

 

                                                 General Aptitude

 

1. A can do a work in 15 days and B in 20 days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then the fraction of the work that is left is :
A. 1/4
B. 1/10
C. 7/15
D. 8/15

 

2. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?
A. 12 days 
B. 15 days
C. 16 days 
D. 18 days

 

3.The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is:
A. 15 
B. 16
C. 18 
D. 25

 

4.In a certain store, the profit is 320% of the cost. If the cost increases by 25% but the selling price remains constant, approximately what percentage of the selling price is the profit?
A. 30% 
B. 70%
C. 100% 
D. 250%

 

5.The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age of the youngest child?
A. 4 years 
B. 8 years
C. 10 years 
D. None of these

 

6.A father said to his son, "I was as old as you are at the present at the time of your birth". If the father's age is 38 years now, the son's age five years back was:
A. 14 years 
B. 19 years
C. 33 years 
D. 38 years

 

7. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
A. 6.25 
B. 6.5
C. 6.75 
D. 7

 

8.A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5 consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average sale of Rs. 6500?
A. Rs. 4991 
B. Rs. 5991
C. Rs. 6001 
D. Rs. 6991

 

9.A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B is the ratio 7 : 5. When 9 litres of mixture are drawn off and the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7 : 9. How many litres of liquid A was contained by the can initially?
A. 10 
B. 20
C. 21 
D. 25

 

10.A milk vendor has 2 cans of milk. The first contains 25% water and the rest milk. The second contains 50% water. How much milk should he mix from each of the containers so as to get 12 litres of milk such that the ratio of water to milk is 3 : 5?
A. 4 litres, 8 litres 
B. 6 litres, 6 litres
C. 5 litres, 7 litres 
D. 7 litres, 5 litres

 

11.Find the greatest number that will divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave the same remainder in each case.
A. 4 
B. 7
C. 9 
D. 13

 

12.The H.C.F. of two numbers is 23 and the other two factors of their L.C.M. are 13 and 14. The larger of the two numbers is:
A. 276 
B. 299
C. 322 
D. 345

 

13. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854 in 4 years. The sum is:
A. Rs. 650 
B. Rs. 690
C. Rs. 698 
D. Rs. 700

 

14.Mr. Thomas invested an amount of Rs. 13,900 divided in two different schemes A and B at the simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total amount of simple interest earned in 2 years be Rs. 3508, what was the amount invested in Scheme B?
A. Rs. 6400 
B. Rs. 6500
C. Rs. 7200 
D. Rs. 7500
E. None of these

 

15.How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to yield Rs. 81 as interest at 4.5% per annum of simple interest?
A. 3.5 years 
B. 4 years
C. 4.5 years 
D. 5 years

       

                     Financial Management/Tax

 

Q(1).The appropriate objective of an enterprise is;
A.Maximisation of sale
B. Maximisation of owners wealth.
C.Maximisation of profits.
D. None of these.

 

Q(2). The job of a finance manager is confined to
A.Raising funds
B. Management of cash
C.Raising of funds and their effective utilization.
D. None of these.

 

Q(3). Financial decision involve;
A.Investment ,financing and dividend decision
B. Investment ,financing and sales decision
C.Financing , dividend and cash decision
D. None of these.

 

Q(4). Net Profit Ratio Signifies:
A. Operational Profitability
B. Liquidity Position
C. Solvency
D.Profit

 

Q(5). Working Capital Turnover measures the relationship of Working Capital with:
A.Fixed Assets
B.Sales
C.Purchases
D.Stock.

 

Q(6). Dividend Payout Ratio is:
A.PAT Capital
B.DPS/ EPS
C. Pref. Dividend/PAT
D. Pref. Dividend/Equity Dividend

 

Q(7). Inventory Turnover measures the relationship of inventory with:
A. Average Sales
B.Cost of Goods Sold
C.Total Purchases
D. Total Assets

 

Q(8). The term 'EVA' is used for:
A.Extra Value Analysis
B.Economic Value Added
C.Expected Value Analysis
D.Engineering Value Analysis

 

Q(9). Return on Investment may be improved by:
A.Increasing Turnover
B. Reducing Expenses
C.Increasing Capital Utilization
D.All of the above

 

Q(10). In Current Ratio, Current Assets are compared with:
A.Current Profit
B.Current Liabilities
C.Fixed Assets
D.Equity Share Capital

 

Q(11). There is deterioration in the management of working capital of XYZ Ltd. What does it refer to?
A.That the Capital Employed has reduced,
B.That the Profitability has gone up,
C.That debtors collection period has increased
D.That Sales has decreased.

 

Q(12). Debt to Total Assets Ratio can be improved by:
A.Borrowing More
B.Issue of Debentures
C.Issue of Equity Shares
D.Redemption of Debt.

 

Q(13). Ratio of Net Income to Number of Equity Shares known as:
A.Price Earnings Ratio
B. Net Profit Ratio,
C.Earnings per Share
D. Dividend per Share.

 

Q(14). A Current Ratio of Less than One means:
A.Current Liabilities < Current Assets
B.Fixed Assets > Current Assets
C.Current Assets < Current Liabilities
D. Share Capital > Current Assets

 

Q(15). A firm has Capital of 10,00,000; Sales of 5,00,000; Gross Profit of . 2,00,000 and Expenses of . 1,00,000. What is the Net Profit Ratio?
A.20%
B. 50%
C.10%
D.40%

 

Q(16). Suppliers and Creditors of a firm are interested in
A.Profitability Position
B.Liquidity Position
C.Market Share Position
D. Debt Position.

 

Q(17). Which of the following is a measure of Debt Service capacity of a firm?
A.Current Ratio
B.Acid Test Ratio
C. Interest Coverage Ratio
D. Debtors Turnover

 

Q(18). Gross Profit Ratio for a firm remains same but the Net Profit Ratio is decreasing. The reason for such behavior could be:
A. Increase in Costs of Goods Sold
B.If Increase in Expense
C. Increase in Dividend
D.Decrease in Sales.

 

Q(19). Which of the following statements is correct?
A. A Higher Receivable Turnover is not desirable,
B. Interest Coverage Ratio depends upon Tax Rate,
C.Increase in Net Profit Ratio means increase in Sales,
D. Lower Debt-Equity Ratio means lower Financial Risk.

 

Q(20). Debt to Total Assets of a firm is .2. The Debt to Equity boo would be:
A. 0.80
B.0.25
C. 1.00
D.0.75

 

Q(21). Which of the following helps analysing return to equity Shareholders?
A. Return on Assets
B. Earnings Per Share
C. Net Profit Ratio
D.Return on Investment.

Q(22). In Inventory Turnover calculation, what is taken in the numerator?
A. Sales
B.Cost of Goods Sold
C.Opening Stock
D. Closing Stock.

 

Q(23). Financial Planning deals with:
A. Preparation of Financial Statements
B.Planning for a Capital Issue
C. Preparing Budgets
D.All of the above

 

Q(24). Financial planning starts with the preparation of:
A. Master Budget
B. Cash Budget
C. Balance Sheet
D.None of the above.

 

Q(25). Process of Financial Planning ends with:
A. Preparation of Projected Statements
B. Preparation of Actual Statements
C. Comparison of Actual with Projected
D. Ordering the employees that projected figures m come true.

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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : varunUpdated Date : Dec 9, 2014

IBPSGraminBankRRBs Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

                          IBPS RRBs Previous Year Whole Test Paper

                                      General Awareness

1. Which of the following is the Currency of Bahrain ? 
(A) Peso 
(B) Dinar
(C) Riyal 
(D) Baht
(E) Kwacha 

2. Which of the following organiza-tions/bodies formulates the rule of international trade among/bet-ween the nations ? 
(A) World Trade Organisation 
(B) Asian Development Bank 
(C) International Monetary Fund 
(D) World Bank 
(E) United Nations Develop-ment Programme 

3. Which of the following services is provided only by the Reserve Bank of India ? 
(A) Compilation of economic data 
(B) Issue of currency notes 
(C) Purchase and sale of gold/ gold coins 
(D) Sale of Demand Drafts 
(E) Safe deposit lockers for keeping valuables 

4. Which of the following Commi-ttees/Task force was set up to suggest reforms in Banking Sector ? 
(A) Task force on Infrastructure 
(B) Narasimham Committee 
(C) Rajinder Sachar Committee 
(D) Swaminathan Committee 
(E) None of these 

5. Pranab Mukherjee won the Presidential election against—
(A) P.A. Sangma 
(B) Pratibha Patil 
(C) Harnid Ansari 
(D) A P J, Abdul Kalam 
(E) None of these 

6. 'SEW' Tightens Consent norm was the headline in some papers /magazines recently. What is the full form of SEBI 9 
(A) Secured Economy Bureau of India 
(B) Small Economy Based Investment 
(C) Securities and Exchange Board of India 
(D) Severe Ecological Balance and Internet 
(E) Society for Ecological Balance and Internet 

7. Which of the following is the Capital of Australia ? 
(A) Perth 
(B) Sydney 
(C) Hobart
(D) Darwin 
(E) Canberra

8. Which of the following nations is not the member of OPEC ? 
(A) Algeria 
(B) Iran 
(C) Libya 
(D) Qatar 
(E) France 

9. Ms. Christine Lagarde is the—
(A) Managing Director of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) 
(B) President, World Bank 
(C) Secretary General of UNO 
(D) Foreign Minister of Russia 
(E) None of these 

10. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Football ? 
(A) Baseline 
(B) Chop 
(C) Back Pass 
(D) Drop Shot 
(E) Grand Slam 

11. Which of the following is a Public Sector Undertaking ? 
(A) AXIS Bank 
(B) Reliance Power 
(C) Hindustan Motors 
(D) Indian Oil Corporation Ltd. 
(E) Ambuja Cements 

12. Ms. Hillary Clinton who was on a visit to India in May 2012 is the Secretary of State of — 
(A) Britain 
(B) France 
(C) USA 
(D) Germany 
(E) None of these 

13. The 6th World Water Forum was organized in March 2012 in—
(A) London 
(B) Tokyo 
(C) Perth 
(D) Berlin 
(E) Marseilles 

14. Which of the following countries had launched a Spy Satellite Kobalt-M in May 2012 ? 
(A) France 
(B) China 
(C) Iran 
(D) Russia 
(E) USA 

15. Which of the following countries is the newest member of the FIFA ? 
(A) South Sudan 
(B) Bangladesh 
(C) Brazil 
(D) Cuba 
(E) Chile 

16. Which of the following is the name of a Patton Tank deve-loped in India ? 
(A) Agni 
(B) Arjun
(C) Shakti 
(D) Basant
(E) Pawan 

17. Jim Yong Kim has taken over as the new President of — 
(A) World Bank 
(B) IMF 
(C) ADB 
(D) UNESCO 
(E) Bank of America 

18. How many members are nomi-nated by the President of India to the Rajya Sabha ? 
(A) 5 
(B) 6 
(C) 8 
(D) 9 
(E) None of these 

19. Which of the following is a food-grain grown in India ? 
(A) Rose 
(B) Mustard 
(C) Sunflower 
(D) Banana 
(E) Paddy 

20. Dr. D Subbarao is a well known name in the field of — 
(A) Science and Technology 
(B) Politics 
(C) Sports 
(D) Banking 
(E) Literature 

                                          Computer Knowledge

1. The shortcut key to print docu-ments is—
(A) Ctrl + D 
(B) Ctrl + A 
(C) Ctrl + B 
(D) Ctrl + C 
(E) Ctrl + P 

2. In the binary language each letter of the alphabet, each number and each special character is made up of a unique combination of —
(A) eight bytes 
(B) eight kilobytes 
(C) eight characters 
(D) eight bits 
(E) None of these 

3. An object typically hides its data, but allows outside code to access —
(A) The methods that operate on the data 
(B) The data files 
(C) Private data members 
(D) The pseudocode 
(E) None of these 

4. A rectangular area on a com-puter screen that can contain a document, program. or mes-sages is referred to as a(n)—
(A) cell 
(B) window 
(C) tuplet 
(D) field 
(E) None of these 

5. Graphical pictures that represent an object like file, folder etc. 29. are—
(A) Task bar 
(B) Windows 
(C) Desktop
(D) Icons 
(E) None of these 

6. Because of their size and cost, these computers are relatively rare—
(A) Minicomputers 
(B) Mainframe computer 
(C) Microcomputers 
(D) Laptops 
(E) Supercomputers 

7. RAM is an acronym for—
(A) Read Al! Memory 
(B) Read Any Memory 
(C) Ready Access Memory 
(D) Random Area Memory 
(E) Random Access Memory 

8. This type of software works with endusers, application software, and computer hardware to handle the majority of technical details—
(A) Communications Software 
(B) Application Software 
(C) Utility Software 
(D) System Software 
(E) None of these 

9. Special-purpose applications in-clude all of the following except 
(A) Web authoring programs 
(B) Database management sys-tems 
(C) Multimedia creation pro-grams 
(D) Virtual reality programs 
(E) None of these 

10. This type of computer is the least powerful, yet the most widely used and fastest growing type of computer—
(A) Mainframe computers
(B) Supercomputers
(C) Minicomputers 
(D) Microcomputers
(E) None of these 

11. Programs designed to perform specific tasks related to man-aging computer resources are called—
(A) System software 
(B) Operating system 
(C) Application software 
(D) Utility programs 
(E) None of these 

12. Of the following types of computers, which is the most power-ful ? 
(A) Minicomputer 
(B) Mainframe computer 
(C) Supercomputer 
(D) Microcomputer 
(E) None of these 

13. The Internet service that pro-vides a multimedia interface to available resources is called—
(A) FTP 
(B) World Wide Web 
(C) Telnet 
(D) Gopher 
(E) None of these 

14. Word processing software is used to create —
(A) databases 
(B) documents 
(C) spreadsheets 
(D) electronic slides 
(E) None of these 

15. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be — 
(A) distributed 
(B) cabled 
(C) centralized 
(D) open source 
(E) wireless 

16. Menus are a part of the—
(A) hardware 
(B) user interface 
(C) status Bar 
(D) monitor 
(E) None of these 

17. A program that is used to view Websites is called a —
(A) word processor 
(B) web viewer 
(C) spreadsheet 
(D) search engine 
(E) browser 

18. Which of the following is not an example of a document file 
(A) Spreadsheet 
(B) Memo 
(C) Letter 
(D) Term paper 
(E) Thesis 

19. Toolbars contain small outlined areas called that provide shortcuts for quick access to commonly used commands. 
(A) buttons 
(B) dials 
(C) bullets 
(D) pointers 
(E) None of these 

20. A business's customer, inventory, and payroll records would best be stored in a file. 
(A) database 
(B) document 
(C) worksheet 
(D) presentation 
(E) None of these 

                                                        English Language

Directions- (Q 1-10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain wordsiphrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while 
answering some of the questions. 

                                    Once upon a time there lived a stone cutter is a small village. He worked hard throughout the day, pre-paring the shapes that were ordered by his customers. His hands were rough and his clothes were dirty. One day he went to the mountain to cut a big stone. It was difficult to work as the weather was extremely hot. After working for several hours, he sat down in the shade of a nearby tree and soon fell asleep. After sometime, he heard the sound of a procession. He woke up and saw many soldiers and attendants walking in the sun, alongside the 
king who not only rode an elephant but also had an umbrella to keep the sun away. "How wonder-ful it must be to be a king", thought the stone cutter. He wondered how happy would he be if he were the king instead of a poor stone cutter. As he thought so, a strange thing happened. The stone cutter found himself dressed in silk clothes and shining jewels. His hands were soft and he was sitting on the elephant. He looked around at the attendants and thought, "how easy it is to be a king, these people are here to serve me " The procession moved on and the sun grew hotter. 
                                       The stone cutter, now the king, became too warm for comfort. He asked the procession to stop so that he could rest for some time. At once the chief of the soldiers bent before the king and said, "Your Majesty, this morning you swore to have me hanged to death if we did not reach the palace before the sun set." The stone cutter felt sorry for him and let the procession go on its way again. "I am powerful, it is true, but how more powerful the sun is. I would rather be the sun than a king", he thought, At once, he became the sun, shining down on the earth.
                                       Its new power was hard to con-trol. It shone too brilliantly and burned up the fields with its rays. But no matter how hard it shone, it could not see through the clouds. It was evident that the clouds were even stronger and more powerful than the sun. The sun wished that it would rather be a cloud. Suddenly it found itself turned into a huge dark cloud. It started using its new power. It poured rain down on the fields and caused floods. All the trees and houses were swept away but the boulder, which once it had been cutting when it was a stone cutter was unmoved and unchanged. No matter how hard it poured down on the stone, the stone did not move. 
                                          The cloud wondered, "That rock is more powerful than I am. Only a stone cutter could change the rock by his skill." No sooner had it said these words, he found himself sitting on a stone. He picked up his tools and began working. 

Directions-(0. 1 and 2) Choose the word/phrase which is most similar in meaning to the word/phrase printed in bold as used in the passage. 

1. Keep the Sun away 
(A) Maintain darkness 
(B) Delay the sunset 
(C) Block the sun 
(D) Stock the shade 
(E) Enjoy little shade 

2. Evident 
(A) Obvious 
(B) Transparent 
(C) Known 
(D) Public 
(E) Active 

Directions- (3-5) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 

3. Let 
(A) Stopped 
(B) Punished 
(C) Allowed 
(D) Admitted 
(E) Disciplined 

4. Hard 
(A) Mockingly 
(B) Badly 
(C) Leisurely 
(D) Soft 
(E) Aimlessly Strange 

5. Strange
(A) Wonderful 
(B) False 
(C) Erratic 
(D) Orthodox 
(E) Usual 

6. Which of the following is most appropriate title for story ?
(A) The Stone cutter 
(B) The King's Procession 
(C) The power of nature 
(D) Experiments of a king 
(E) A dream of a king 

7. Why could the king's procession not be stopped ? 
(A) The King had promised the queen that he would reach the palace in time 
(B) it was getting dark and it was unsafe to halt 
(C) It was about to rain and the palace was close by 
(D) The soldiers were in a hurry to reach the palace as they were very hungry 
(E) None of these 

8. Why did the sun wish to become a cloud ? 
(A) it wanted to cool down the earth by raining 
(B) It did not want to set in the evening and be visible even in the night 
(C) It assumed that the clouds were stronger than the sun 
(D) It wanted to wander in the sky like the clouds did 
(E) None of these 

9. What problem did the cloud face 
(A) The cloud could not affect the boulder 
(B) The cloud had to rain all the time 
(C) The cloud brought about a huge flood for which it was punished by the king 
(D) The cloud needed the sun for its formation 
(E) None of these 

10. Why did the king desire to become the sun 
(A) The sun was troubling the king and the king desired to take revenge 
(B) The king desired to be more powerful than he already was 
(C) The chief of the soldiers suggested the king to be the sun 
(D) The king would be able to live in the sky, once he were the sun 
(E) None of these 

Directions-(Q 11-15) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type are given. These are lettered as (A). (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may either be misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appro-priate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. 'All correct' as your answer. 

11.
(A) The need to be grow should not 
(B) be mistaken for 
(C) dissatisfaction 
(D) with one's current state.
(E) All correct 

12. 
(A)He laiy in the bed to 
(B)rest 
(C)and within no time 
(D) dozed off to sleep. 
(E)All correct 

13. 
(A)It was disappointing to know 
(B) that despite 
(C)his best attempts 
(D) he had failed in the exam. 
(E) All correct 

14. 
(A)He was so scared 
(B)after watching 
(C)the movie that 
(D)he didn't sleep for three nights after that. 
(E) All correct 

15.
(A) Vijay had always been
(B) keen on 
(C)getting as 
(D)much education as he could. 
(E)All correct 

Directions- (Q. 16-20) Rearrange the following five sentences (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the ques-tions given below :
1. But Gandhiji stuck to his principles and did not copy, thus, having to face scolding and ridicule after the inspec-tor left. 
2. Gandhiji wrote four words correctly, but he could not spell the fifth word 'Kettle'. 
3. The Inspector of Schools visited Gandhiji's School. 
4. Having noticed that except Gandhiji all the other students had spelt all the five words, the teacher prompted Gandhiji to copy the word from his neighbour's slate. 
5. He read out five English words to the class and asked all the boys to write them down. 

16. Which of the following should be the LAST (FIFTH) sentence after the rearrangement ? 
(A) 2 
(B) 1 
(C) 5 
(D) 4 
(E) 3 

17. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 4 
(B) 2 
(C) 3 
(D) 5 
(E) 1 

18. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 3 
(B) 2 
(C) 5 
(D) 1 
(E) 4 

19. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 1 
(B) 3 
(C) 4
(D) 2 
(E) 5

20. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ? 
(A) 5 
(B) 2 
(C) 4 
(D) 3 
(E) 1 

                                                     Numerical Ability

Directions (Q. 1-15) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions 

1. 417.25- 41.72 -4.53 = ? 
(A) 380.06 
(B) 371 
(C) 348 
(D) 315 
(E) None of these 

2. 896 - (?)3 = 4608 + 12 
(A) 2 
(B) 23 
(C) 82 
(D) 42 
(E) 24 

3. 273 /3 - 9.1 = ? 
(A) 81.9
(B) 62.3 
(C) 84.9 
(D) 91.8 
(E) None of these 

4. sqare root of (3969) + 1.4 = ? x 2.5 
(A) 18
(B) 112.5
(C) 16 
(D) 24 
(E) None of these 

5. 15.8 x 3 + 8.1- 21-5 = ?+ 14.6 
(A) 14.9 
(B) 201 
(C) 18.4 
(D) 19.4 
(E) None of these 

6. (83)^27.3 / (83)^1.4 x (83)^46.8 =83^(31.9 ) / ? 
(A) 64.1 
(B) 41.9 
(C) 40.8 
(D) 39.1 
(E) None of these 

7. 43 % of 586 = 341.2 - ? 
(A) 76.28 
(B) 4953 
(C) 8299 
(D) 4896 
(E) None of these 

8. (50414 + 14) + 13 = ? 
(A) 2.77 
(B) 2.56 
(C) 3.14 
(D) 2.17 
(E) None of these 

9. 4431 + 431 - 31 = ? 
(A) 4530 
(B) 3969 
(C) 4831 
(D) 4031 
(E) None of these 

10. 2 and 13 /17 + 4/ 17 = 
(A) 5 
(B) 2.9 
(C) 7 
(D) 4 
(E) None of these 

11. 1001 / 96 + 16 = ? 
(A) 1108 
(B) 996 
(C) 1070 
(D) 1007 
(E) None of these 

12. 1/5 of 2/7 of 8/3 of 4095 = 
(A) 642 
(B) 598 
(C) 648 
(D) 475 
(E) None of these 

13. 32% of 150 x 53% of ? = 7632 
(A) 480 
(B) 324 
(C) 300 
(D) 298 
(E) None of these 

14. 1767 = ? x 57 
(A) 27 
(B) 31 
(C) 39 
(D) 37 
(E) None of these 

15. (7)^2 + (3)^4- (4)^3 = ? - (11)^2 
(A) 55 
(B) 196
(C) 172 
(D) 187 
(E) None of these

Directions-(O. 16---20) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions(Note : You are not expected to calculate the exact value) 

16. (10.97)^2 + (4.13)^3 x 3.79=? 
(A) 428 
(B) 376 
(C) 197 
(D) 204 
(E) 302 

17. 12.13 % of 935.81 + 1498 % of 25.85 = ? 
(A) 500 
(B) 550 
(C) 478 
(D) 341 
(E) 596 

18. cube root of(65) x 23.93 - 31.04 = ? 
(A) 98 
(B) 65 
(C) 102 
(D) 35 
(E) 79 

19. 1624.12 x 3.891 = ? 
(A) 6100 
(B) 6900
(C) 6000
(D) 6400
(E) 6500

20. 3018.19 / 2.87 - 841.02 = ? 
(A) 365 
(B) 90 
(C) 387 
(D) 1000 
(E) 200 

 

                                                             Reasoning

Directions—(Q. 1 and 2) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions. 
Sunil started walking from point A. He walked 6 metres towards East to reach point B. From point B he took a right turn and walked 3 metres to reach point C. From point C he took a right turn and walked 10 metres to reach point D. From point D he took a left turn and waked 4 metres to reach point E. From point E, he walked 4 metres East to reach point F. Point is exactly mid-way between point C and point D. 

1. If Sunil walks 4 metres to the South of point F, how far and in which direction will he be from point G ? 
(A) 1 metre towards East 
(B) 2 metres towards East
(C) 1 metre towards West 
(D) 2 metres towards West
(E) 1.5 metres towards East 

2. How far and in which direction is point F from point A ? 
(A) 1 metre towards North 
(B) 6 metres towards South 
(C) 8 metres towards South 
(D) 6 metres towards North 
(E) None of these 

3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group ? 
(A) Think 
(B) Reflect 
(C) Speak 
(D) Consider 
(E) Ponder 

4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BARGAINED, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between 
them in the English alphabetical series ? 
(A) Two 
(B) Three 
(C) None 
(D) One 
(E) More than three 

Directions—(C) 5-7) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions. 
In a group of six people P, 0, R, S, T and U, each having a different weight, S is heavier than Q, R is lighter than only T and P. Q is not the lightest. P is not the heaviest. 

5. Who amongst the following is lightest ? 
(A) T 
(B) P 
(C) R 
(D) U 
(E) None of these 

6. Who amongst the following is second heaviest ? 
(A) R 
(B) S 
(C) U 
(D) T
(E) P 

7. How many people are lighter than S ? 
(A) None 
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) More than three
(E) One 

8. Which of the following will come next in the following series ? 9 1 9 8 2 9 8 7 3 9 8 7 6 4 9 8 7 6 5 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 6 9 8 7 6 5 4 
(A) 7 
(B) 8 
(C) 3 
(D) 2
(E) 4 

9. Which of the following will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order ? ZA BY XC DW ?
(A) VF 
(B) EU 
(C) UE 
(D) EV 
(E) VE 

10. Fifteen girls are standing in a straight line facing North. Sudha is standing eleventh from the right end. Radha is standing ninth from the left end. Meena is standing exactly between Sudha and Radha. How many girls are standing to the right of Meena ? 
(A) Eight 
(B) Seven 
(C) Nine 
(D) Six 
(E) Cannot be determined 

Directions— (Q. 11-15) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions—
Eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre not necessarily in the same order. T is sitting third to the right of P. W is sitting second to the right of S. S is not an immediate neighbour of either P or T. U and Q are immediate neighbours of each other. Q is not an immediate neighbour of P. V is not an immediate neighb-our of W. 

11 What is R's position with respect to V ? 
(A) Second to the left 
(B) Second to the right 
(C) Third to the right 
(D) Third to the left 
(E) None of these 

12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which one does not belong to the group ? 
(A) RQ 
(B) PV 
(C) TP 
(D) US 
(E) WT 

13. Who is sitting second to the right of the one who is sitting to the immediate right of W ? 
(A) U 
(B) R 
(C) V 
(D) P 
(E) Q 

14. How many people are sitting bet-ween U and W when counted from the left side of U ? (
A) Three 
(B) None 
(C) More than three 
(D) Two 
(E) One 

15 Who is sitting exactly between T and S ? 
(A) U 
(B) Q 
(C) W 
(D) V 
(E) R 

Directions—(Q. 16-20) In each of the questions below, two state-ments are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregard-ing the commonly known facts. Give answer — (A) If only conclusion I follows. (B) If only conclusion II follows. (C) If either conclusion I or II follows (D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (E) If both conclusions I and II follow. 

16. Statements :
(a)All stones are pebbles. 
(b)All pebbles are rocks. 
Conclusions 
I. All stones are rocks. 
II. All rocks are pebbles. 

17. Statements: 
(a)All kings are rulers. 
(b)Some rulers are queens. 
Conclusions . 
I. Some kings are queens. 
II. Atleast some queens are rulers. 

18. Statements :
(a)Some gardens are parks. 
(b)Some parks are areas. 
Conclusions : 
I. Atleast some areas are parks. 
II. No garden is an area. 

19. Statements . 
(a)No letter is a fax. 
(b)All messages are faxes. 
Conclusions : 
I. No message is a letter. 
II. Atleast some faxes are mes-sages. 

20. Statements 
(a)Some boards are plains. 
(b)No plains is a square. 
Conclusions 
I. All squares are boards. 
II. All plains are boards.


 

SBI Placement Paper : 46716
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : Aiswarya MishraUpdated Date : Dec 4, 2014

SBI Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

 

SBI Model Questions and Answers

 

 

Section A : Quantitative Aptitude

 

 

Directions(1-10): What should come in the place of question mark(?) in the following questions .

 

1. 7960 + 2956 - 8050 + 4028 = ?

 

a) 6984

b) 6884

c) 6894

d) 6954

 

Answer : c

 

2. 25 ×3.25 + 50.4 ÷24 = ?

 

a) 84.50

b) 83.35

c) 83.53

d) 82.45

 

Answer : b

 

3. 350% of ? ÷ 50 + 248 = 591

 

a) 4900

b) 4890

c) 4850

d) 4950

 

Answer : a

 

4. ½ of 3842 + 15 % of ? = 2449

 

a) 3520
b) 3250
c) 3350
d) 3540

 

Answer : a

 

5. (833.25 -384.45)÷ 24 = ?

 

a) 1.87

b) 20.1

c) 18.7

d) 2.01

 

Answer : a

 

6. 325 314 288 247 191 ?

 

a) 126

b) 116

c) 130

d) 120

 

Answer : d

 

7. 45 46 70 141 ? 1061.5 

 

a) 353

b) 353.5

c) 352.5

d) 352

 

Answer : b

 

8. 620 632 608 644 596  ?

 

a) 536

b) 556

c) 656

d) 646

 

Answer : c

 

9. 15 25 40 65 ? 170

 

a) 115

b) 90

c) 105

d) 120

 

Answer : c

 

10. 120 320 ? 2070 5195 13007.5

 

a) 800

b) 920

c) 850

d) 900

e) None of these

 

Answer : e

 

11. A train moves past a telegraph post and a bridge 264 m long in 8 seconds and 20 seconds respectively. What is the speed of the train?

 

a) 69.5 km/hr         

b) 70 km/hr

c) 79 km/hr             

d) 79.2 km/hr

 

Answer : d

 

12. A 300 metre long train crosses a platform in 39 seconds while it crosses a signal pole in 18 seconds. What is the length of the platform?

 

a) 320 m   

b) 350 m

c) 650 m   

d) Data inadequate

 

Answer : b

 

13. P can complete a work in 12 days working 8 hours a day. Q can complete the same work in 8 days working 10 hours a day. If both P and Q work together, working 8 hours a day, in how many days can they complete the work?

 

a) 5/11

b) 6/11

c) 7/12

d) 8/12

 

Answer :  a

 

14. Ravi and Kumar are working on an assignment. Ravi takes 6 hours to type 32 pages on a computer, while Kumar takes 5 hours to type 40 pages. How much time will they take, working together on two different computers to type an assignment of 110 pages?

 

a) 7 hours 30 minutes

b) 8 hours
c) 8 hours 15 minutes

d) 8 hours 25 minutes

 

Answer : C

 

15. A trader mixes 26 kg of rice at Rs. 20 per kg with 30 kg of rice of other variety at Rs. 36 per kg and sells the mixture at Rs. 30 per kg. His profit percent is:

 

a) No profit, no loss

b) 5%
c) 8%

d) 10%
 

Answer : b

 

16. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is:

 

a) 15

b) 16
c) 18

c) 25

 

Answer : B

 

17. Present ages of Kiran and Syam are in the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio of their ages will become 11: 9 respectively. What is Syam's present age in years?

 

a) 28
b) 27
c) 26
d) 24
 

Answer : d

 

18. A is two years older than B who is twice as old as C. If the total of the ages of A, B and C be 27, then how old is B?

 

a) 7         
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10
 

Answer : d

 

19. The average weight of 8 person's increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of one of them weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person?

 

a) 76 kg

b) 76.5 kg
c) 85 kg

d) Data inadequate
 

Answer : c

 

20. 9 In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'LEADING' be arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together?

 

a) 360      
b) 480
c) 720      
d) 5040
 

Answer : c

 

21. What will be the least number which when doubled will be exactly divisible by 12, 18, 21 and 30 ?

 

a) 196

b) 630
c) 1260

d) 2520

 

Answer : B

 

22. A group of students decided to collect as many paise from each member of group as is the number of members. If the total collection amounts to Rs. 59.29, the number of the member is the group is:

 

a) 57

b) 67
c) 77

d) 87

 

Answer : C

 

23. An industrial loom weaves 0.128 metres of cloth every second. Approximately, how many seconds will it take for the loom to weave 25 metres of cloth?

 

a) 178

b) 195
c) 204

d) 488

 

Answer : b

 

24. A container contains 40 litres of milk. From this container 4 litres of milk was taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeated further two times. How much milk is now contained by the container?

 

a) 26.34 litres

b) 27.36 litres
c) 28 litres

d) 29.16 litres

 

Answer : d

 

25. Sakthi invests a part of Rs. 12,000 in 12% stock at Rs. 120 and the remainder in 15% stock at Rs. 125. If his total dividend per annum is Rs. 1360, how much does he invest in 12% stock at Rs. 120?

 

a)  Rs. 4000

b)  Rs. 4500
c)  Rs. 5500

d)  Rs. 6000

 

Answer : a

 

26. The true discount on a bill of Rs. 540 is Rs. 90. The banker's discount is:

 

a) Rs. 60

b) Rs. 108
c) Rs. 110

d) Rs. 112

 

Answer : b

 

27. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively. If they cross each other in 23 seconds, what is the ratio of their speeds?

Insufficient data

 

a) 3 : 1
b) 1 : 3
c) 3 : 2
d) 1: 4

 

Answer : d

 

28. An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple interest, but he includes the interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest becomes:

 

a) 10%

b) 10.25%
c) 10.5%

d)  None of these

 

Answer : b

 

29. The last day of a century cannot be

 

a) Monday

b) Wednesday
c) Tuesday

d) Friday

 

Answer : c

 

30. A and B started a partnership business investing some amount in the ratio of 3 : 5. C joined then after six months with an amount equal to that of B. In what proportion should the profit at the end of one year be distributed among A, B and C?

 

a) 3 : 5 : 2

b) 3 : 5 : 5
c) 6 : 10 : 5

d) Data inadequate

 

Answer : c

 

31. If 3(x - y) = 27 and 3(x + y) = 243, then x is equal to:

 

a) 0

b) 2
c) 4

c) 6

 

Answer :  C

 

32. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 6 hours. After working at it together for 2 hours, C is closed and A and B can fill the remaining part in 7 hours. The number of hours taken by C alone to fill the tank is:

 

a) 10

b) 12
c) 14

d) 16

 

Answer : c

 

33. A rectangular field is to be fenced on three sides leaving a side of 20 feet uncovered. If the area of the field is 680 sq. feet, how many feet of fencing will be required?

 

a) 34

b) 40
c) 68

d) 88

 

Answer : d

 

34. In a class, there are 15 boys and 10 girls. Three students are selected at random. The probability that 1 girl and 2 boys are selected, is:

 

a) 21/46

b) 25/117

c) 1/50

d) 3/25

 

Answer : A

 

35. Find the odd one out

 

2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64

 

a) 50

b) 26
c) 37

d) 64

 

Answer : d

 

36. A man standing at a point P is watching the top of a tower, which makes an angle of elevation of 30º with the man's eye. The man walks some distance towards the tower to watch its top and the angle of the elevation becomes 60º. What is the distance between the base of the tower and the point P?

 

a) 43 units

b) 8 units
c) 12 units

d) Data inadequate
 

Answer : d

 

37. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum of the areas of the floor and the ceiling is equal to the sum of the areas of four walls, the volume of the hall is:

 

a) 720

b) 900
c) 1200

d) 1800

 

Answer : c

 

38. How many times in a day, are the hands of a clock in straight line but opposite in direction?

 

a) 20

b) 22
c) 24

d) 48

 

Answer : b

 

39. A boat running upstream takes 8 hours 48 minutes to cover a certain distance, while it takes 4 hours to cover the same distance running downstream. What is the ratio between the speed of the boat and speed of the water current respectively?

 

a) 2 : 1

b) 3 : 2
c) 8 : 3

d) Cannot be determined
 

Answer : c

 

40. At a game of billiards, A can give B 15 points in 60 and A can give C to 20 points in 60. How many points can B give C in a game of 90?

 

a) 30 points

b) 20 points
c) 10 points

d) 12 points

 

Answer : c

 

 

Section B : Logical  Reasoning Questions

 

1. In the following question, various terms of an alphabet series are given with one or more terms missing as shown by (?). Choose the missing terms out of the given alternatives.

A, B, N, C, D, O, E, F, P, ?, ?, ?

 

a) G, H, I

b) G, H, J

c) G, H, Q

d) J, K, L

 

Answer : c

 

Directions (2-6): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

In a sports event, different games are scheduled to be held on seven days, starting on Monday and ending on Sunday. Two games are scheduled to be held on Saturday as well as on Sunday and one game on each of the remaining five days. The games to be held in these seven days are: Basketball, Football, Boxing, Sprinting, and Swimming, shooting, weightlifting, wrestling, and cycling, but not necessarily in the same order. Shooting is scheduled to be held on Thursday. Boxing and Cycling are scheduled to be held on the same day. Wrestling is scheduled to be held three days before basketball, i.e. two sports are scheduled between wrestling and basketball. Wrestling is not scheduled to be held on Wednesday. Weightlifting is scheduled immediately after the day boxing is scheduled. Football is scheduled immediately after the day wrestling is scheduled. Swimming is not scheduled on Monday. 

 

2. Which of the following games is scheduled to be held on Friday?

 

a) Basketball
b) Wrestling
c) Swimming
d) Weightlifting
 

Answer : a

 

3. Which of the following games is scheduled to be held on Sunday?

 

a) Football
b) Wrestling
c) Basketball
d) Cycling
e) Swimming

 

Answer : e

 

4. On which of the following days is sprinting scheduled?

 

a) Saturday
b) Friday
c) Wednesday
d) Monday
 

Answer : d

 

5. On which of the following days is weightlifting scheduled?

 

a) Monday
b) Tuesday
c) Wednesday
d) Friday
e) Sunday

 

Answer :  e

 

6.  Shooting is related to Basketball in the same way as Wrestling is related to

 

a) Sprinting
b) Football
c) Shooting
d) Weightlifting
 

Answer : b

 

7. In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How is MEDICINE written in the same code?

 

a) EOJDJEFM
b) EOJDEJFM
c) MFEJDJOE
d) MFEDJJOE

 

Answer : a

 

8.  In a code if THRIVES is denoted by SIUHRDU then SOULFUL is denoted in the same code by

 

a) VPTKKTE

b) VPTKETK
c) TPVKKTE
d) TNRKMVG

 

Answer : a

 

Direction (9 to 13): These questions are based on the figure given above in which (1) Rectangle represents Males, (2) Circle represents the urban (3) Square represents the educated and (4) Triangle represents the civil servants.

 

9. The number indicating the uneducated urban males is

 

a) 4
b) 5
c) 7
d) 11

 

Answer : b

 

10. The number indicating the educated civil servants who are males but not urbans is 

 

a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10

 

Answer : d

 

11. The number indicating the educated urban males who are not civil servants is 

 

a) 8
b) 9
c) 10
d) 11

 

Answer : b

 

12. The number indicating the educated males who are urban civil servants is 

 

a) 4
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

 

Answer : c.

 

13. The number indicating the uneducated females who are urban civil servants is 

 

a) 6
b) 9
c) 10
d) 11

 

Answer : d

 

14. Introducing Suresh, Subha said, “The father of his brother is the only son of my Grandmother”. How is Subha related to Suresh?

 

a) Mother
b) Cousin
c) Aunt
d) Daughter

 

Answer : b

 

15. A B @ # $ 1 2 f G h 9 2 u V n M N Q O? % = 8
If the first half of the above sequence is written in reverse order, which symbol or letter will be 11th of the right of 21th symbol or letter from the left end?

 

a) G
b) H
c) #
d) @
e) None of these

 

Answer : e

 

16. The question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments a ‘strong’ argument is and which a ‘weak’ argument is.

 

Statement: Should the railways in India be privatized in a phased manner like other public sector enterprises?

 

Arguments:

 

I.Yes. This is the only way to bring in competitiveness and provide better services to the public.
II.No. This will pose a threat to the national security of our country as multinationals will enter into the fray.

 

a) Only argument I is strong
b) Only argument II is strong
c) Either I or II is strong
d) Neither I nor II is strong
e) Both I and II are strong

 

Answer : d

 

17. Read the conclusion and then decides which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

 

Statements: 

 

1. Some swords are sharp. 
2. All swords are rusty

 

Conclusions:

 

I.  Some rusty things are sharp.
II. Some rusty things are not sharp.

 

a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Neither I nor II follows
e) Both I and II follow

 

Answer : a

 

18. In a code BOY is written as $@% and HOUR is written as ×@£O then RUBY is written in the indicating language is …..

 

a) O£$%
b) O$£%
c) %$£O
d) %£$O

 

Answer : a

 

19. Vijay started to move towards the South. After moving 15 m, he turned to his left and moved 15 m. Again he turned to his left and moved 15 m. Now how far is he from his starting point and in what direction?

 

a) 15 m, North
b) 15 m, South
c) 30 m, East
d) 15 m, West
e) 15 m, East

 

Answer : e

 

20. In a code of PROVIDE is denoted by OSNWHED then MORNING is denoted in the same code by

 

a) LPQOHOF
b) LPQOOHF
c) LPOQHOF
d) LQPOHOF
e) None of these

 

Answer : a

 

21. In a row of girls, Rita is eight from the left and Reena is seventeenth from the right. If they interchange their positions, Rita becomes fourteenth from the left. How many girls are there in the row?

 

a) 25
b) 26
c) 29
d) 32
e) 30

 

Answer : e

 

22. What will come in the place of question mark?
G D B A C?

 

a) E
b) F
c) G
d) H
e) A

 

Answer : b

 

23. A good way to figure out the relationship in a given question is to make up a sentence that describes the relationship between the first two words. Then, try to use the same sentence to find out which of the answer choices completes the same relationship with the third word.

 

Play is to actor as concert is to

 

a) symphony

b) musician
c) piano

d) percussion

 

Answer : b

 

24. In the following question contains a small paragraph followed by a question on it. Read each paragraph carefully and answer the question given below it.

 

The school has always been the most important means of transferring the wealth of tradition form one generation to the next. This applies today in an even higher degree than in former times for, through the modern development of economy, the family as bearer of tradition and education has become weakened. 

This passage best supports the statement that for transferring the wealth of tradition from one generation to the next -

 

a) there are means other than the school.
b) several different sources must be tried.
c) economic development plays a crucial role
d) modern technology must be put to use.
 

Answer : c

 

25. Read the paragraph carefully and determine the main point the author is trying to make. What conclusion can be drawn from the argument? Each paragraph is followed by five statements.One statement supports the author's argument better than the others do.

 

The criminal justice system needs to change. The system could be more just if it allowed victims the opportunity to confront the person who has harmed them. Also, mediation between victims and their offenders would give the offenders a chance to apologize for the harm they have done.
This paragraph best supports the statement that victims of a crime should

 

a) learn to forgive their offenders.
b) have the right to confront their offenders.
c) learn the art of mediation.
d) insist that their offenders be punished.
 

Answer : b

 

26. In a beach, Rina is walking with her children’s and there she met Samuel and Susan. Samuel introduces Susan to those children as “this person is the daughter of your mother’s father’s mother and is my sister. How is Samuel and Susan related to Rina?

 

a) Brother, sister
b) Uncle, aunt
c) Cousin, aunt
d) Uncle, Cousin
 

Answer : b

 

27. Which of the following is exactly in the middle of the eleventh from the left end and the fifteenth from the right end?

B A 5 D % R I * F H 6 # V 9 $ 3 E 7 G 1 ÷2 M K X 8 U F W Z N

 

a) V
b) $
c) 7
d) E
e) None

 

Answer : e

 

28. Direction: The question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments a ‘strong’ argument is and which a ‘weak’ argument is.Give answer as

 

(1) If only argument I is strong

(2) If only argument II is strong

(3) If either I or II is strong

(4) If neither I nor II is strong and

(5) If both I and II are strong.

 

Statement: Should there be a complete ban on manufacture of firecrackers in India?

 

Arguments:

I   : No. This will render thousands of workers jobless.

II : Yes. The firecracker manufacturers use child labour to a large extent.      

 

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
d) 5

 

Answer :  a

 

29. Direction: Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

 

Statements:

 

All windows are doors
No door is wall

 

Conclusions:

 

I. No window is wall

II. No wall is door

 

a) If only conclusion I follows
b) If only conclusion II follows
c) If either I or II follows
d) If neither I or II follows
e) If both I and II follows

 

Answer :  a

 

30. In a certain code “a friend of mine” 'is written as “4 9 1 6 “, “mine lots of metal “is written as “3 1 0 9 “and “a piece of metal “is written as “ 7 1 6 3” . What is the code for 'piece '?

 

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 7
 

Answer :  d

 

31. A school bus driver starts from the school, drives 2 km towards the North takes a left turn and drives for 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives for 8km before taking a left turn again and driving for 5km. The driver finally takes a left turn and drives 1 km before stopping. How far and towards which direction should the driver to reach the school again?

 

a) 3 km towards North
b) 7 km towards East
c) 6 km towards South
d) 6 km towards West
e) 5 km towards North

 

Answer : e

 

32. In a code of COURAGE is denoted by UOCREGA then JOURNAL is denoted in the same code by

 

a) UOJRLAN
b) OUJRANL
c) OJURANL
d) UOJLANR
e) UOJRLAR

 

Answer : a

 

33. In a queue, Vijay is fourteenth from the front and Jack is seventeenth from the end, while Mary’s position is in the middle of Vijay and Jack. If Vijay be ahead of Jack and there be 48 persons in the queue, how many persons are there between Vijay and Mary?

 

a) 8

b) 7

c) 6

d) 5

 

Answer : a

 

34. Athul finds that he is twelfth from the right in a line of boys and fourth from the left, how many boys should be added to the line such that there are 28 boys in the line?

 

a) 12
b) 13
c) 14
d) 15
 

Answer : b

 

35.  Look carefully the pattern and then fill the blank

QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU…….

 

a) UAV    
b) UAT
c) TAS
d) TAT
 

Answer : a

 

Section C : Verbal Ability Questions

 

1. Direction: In the following question, find out which part of the sentence has an error. The error may be idiomatic or grammatical. If there is no mistake, the answer is ‘No error’.

 

Removing seeds from (1)/cotton plants was (2)/a slowest job until (3)/Eli Whitney invented the cotton gin (4)/No error (5).

 

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) 5

 

Answer : c

 

2. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom, if there is no correct meaning 'None of these' will be the answer

To set one's face against.

 

a) To oppose with determination   
b) To judge by appearance
c) To get out of difficulty  
d) To look at one steadily
 

Answer : a

 

3. Direction: Choose the correct SYNONYM of the word in capital letters from the five options given below.

 

FASTIDIOUS

 

a) Dormant

 

b) Delicious

 

c) Fussy

 

d) Faint

 

Answer : c

 

4.  Direction: Fill the blank with suitable one.

 

Although, he is reputed for making very candid statements .............

 

a) his today’s speech was not fairly audible

b) his promises had always been realistic

c) his speech was very interesting

d) people follow whatever he instructs to them

e) his today’s statements were very ambiguous

 

Answer : e

 

5. Grammatically correct the sentence.

 

Along with a sharp rise in ……., a recession would eventually result in more men, women and children living in ………. .

 

a) Crime, apathy

b) Fatalities, poor

c) Deaths, slums

d) Unemployment, poverty

e) Migrations, streets

 

Answer : d

 

6. Direction: In the following question, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named, P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Find the correct answer.

 

1. A study

P. success increase

Q. concludes that

R. and chances for

S. commitment to future tasks

6. future success

 

a) RQPS

b) SRQP

c) QPSR

d) PSRQ

 

Answer : C

 

7. Direction: Choose the correct ANTONYM of the word in capital letters from the five options given below.

 

CONGENIAL

 

a) Disagreeable

b) Inconvenient

c) Delightful

d) Unsuitable

 

Answer : a

 

8. Direction: A statement given below is capable of being expressed by a one word. The sentence is followed by four such words of which only one is correct. Pick out the correct choice

 

A lady’s umbrella is……..

 

a) Parasol

b) Granary

c) Epitaph

d) Aviary

 

Answer : a

 

9. Direction: In the following question, find out which part of the sentence has an error. The error may be idiomatic or grammatical. If there is no mistake, the answer is ‘No error’.

 

India is a land of (1)/great political leaders (2)/who ruled the country effectively (3)/and also by protecting its national interest. (4)/No error (5).

 

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) 5

 

Answer : C

 

10. In the following question five alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase capitalized in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of idiom/phrase.

 

Why do you wish to TREAD ON THE TOES?

 

a) To give offence to them
b) To follow them grudgingly
c) To treat them indifferently
d) To be kicked by them
e) To be treat them

 

Answer : a

 

11. Direction: Choose the correct ANTONYM of the word in capital letters from the five options given below.

 

SPARTAN                                                                                                                         

 

a) Decadent

b) Teutonic

c) Slavish

d) Autonomous

 

Answer : a

 

12. Direction: Choose the correct SYNONYM of the word in capital letters from the five options given below.

 

ALACRITY

 

a) Briskness
b) Fear
c) Frankness
d) Duplicity
 

Answer :  a

 

13. Direction: Fill the blank with suitable one.

 

The ...... of the Minister's statement cannot be verified by people who have no access to official records.

 

a) Veracity

b) Verbosity

c) Ambiguity

d) Validity

 

Answer : a

 

14. Direction: In this question, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named, P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Find the correct answer.

 

1. As we move

P. We face increasing number of stressful events

Q. for instance

R. through middle age

S. that are not

6. easily controlled

 

a) SRQP

b) PSRQ

c) QPSR

d) RQPS

 

Answer : d

 

15. Direction: A statement given below is capable of being expressed by a one word. The sentence is followed by four such words of which only one is correct. Pick out the correct choice.

 

A person who renounces the world and practices self-discipline in order to attain salvation.

 

a) Sceptic

b) Ascetic

c) Devotee

d) Antiquarian

 

Answer : b

 

16.  Grammatically correct the sentence.

 

If I……..a more reliable car, I…………to Spain rather than fly.

 

a) Would have…..Would drive

b) Had…..Had driven

c) Had……Would drive

d) Would have had……Would drive

 

Answer : c

 

Direction (17- 20): Read the passage carefully and then answer the questions given below.

Harold a professional man who had worked in an office for many years had a fearful dream. In it, he found himself in a land where small slug-like animals with slimy tentacles lived on people's bodies. The people tolerated the loathsome creatures because after many years they grew into elephants which then became the nation's system of transport, carrying everyone wherever he wanted to go. Harold suddenly realized that he himself was covered with these things, and he woke up screaming. In a vivid sequence of pictures this dream dramatized for Harold what he had never been able to put in to words; he saw himself as letting society feed on his body in his early years so that it would carry him when he retired. He later threw off the "security bug" and took up freelance work.

 

17. In his dream Harold found the loathsome creatures

 

a) in his village

b) in his own house

c) in a different land

d) in his office

 

Answer : c

 

18. Which one of the following phrases best helps to bring out the precise meaning of 'loathsome creatures'?

 

a)  Security bug and slimy tentacles

b)  Fearful dream and slug-like animals

c)  Slimy tentacles and slug-like animals

d)  Slug-like animals and security bug

 

Answer : c

 

19.  The statement that 'he later threw off the security bug' means that

 

a) Harold succeeded in overcoming the need for security

b) Harold stopped giving much importance to dreams

c) Harold started tolerating social victimization

d) Harold killed all the bugs troubled him

 

Answer : a

 

20.  Harold's dream was fearful because

 

a) It brought him face to face with reality

b) It was full of vivid pictures of snakes

c) He saw huge elephant in it

d) In it he saw slimy creatures feeding on people's bodies

 

Answer : a

New India Assurance Company Limited(NIACL) Placement Paper : 46551
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : Manasi BhuttUpdated Date : Nov 13, 2014

New India Assurance Company Limited(NIACL) Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

 

Latest Placement Paper of NIACL
 

This paper contains mainly two sections such as Reasoning Ability and General Awareness.

 

Section - 1

 

a) Reasoning Ability

 

Directions(Question 1-5): In each of the following number series, two terms are put within brackets. 

 

(A) If both the bracketed terms are right;
(B) If the first bracketed term is right and second is wrong;
(C) If the first bracketed term is wrong and second is right;
(D) If both the bracketed terms are wrong.

 

1 . 5, 17, (30), 73, 129, (225)

 

Answer : C

 

2. 11, 29, (55), 89, (131), 181

 

Answer : A

 

3. 3, 12, 28, 32, (42), (57), 61, 70, 86

 

Answer : C

 

4. 2,3,6, (11), 18, (27), 38

 

Answer : A

 

5. 4, 14, (18), (24), 31, 36, 38, 48, 53

 

Answer : D

 

 

Directions(Question 6-10): There are two or three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II , III and IV. Take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows .

 

6.

 

Statements: 

 

1. Some songs are throngs.
2. Some throngs are longs.

 

Conclusions:

 

I.   Some songs are longs.
II.  No songs are longs.
III. Only longs are songs.
IV  Only songs are longs.

 

(A) Only I Follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Either I or II follows
(D) Either III or IV follows

 

Answer : C

 

7.

 

Statements:

 

1. Some charts are darts.
2. All darts are carts.
3. Some carts are smarts.

 

Conclusions:

 

I.   Some charts are carts.
II.  Some carts are darts.
Ill.  Some darts are smarts.
IV. Some smarts are charts.

 

(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only I, III and IV follow

 

Answer : A

 

8.

 

Statements:

 

1. All blanks are beams.
2. All bridges are beams.
3. All bridges are cows.

 

Conclusions:

 

I.   Some cows are beams.
II.  Some blanks are cows.
III. Some blanks are bridges.
IV. Some bridges are not cows.

 

(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) I,II and III follow
(D) None follow

 

Answer : D

 

9. 

 

Statements:

 

1. Some Chinese are not Russians.
2. All Russians are Africans.
3. Some Africans are Indians.

 

Conclusions:

 

I.   Some Chinese are not Africans.
II.  Some Chinese are not Indians.
Ill.  All Russians are Indians.
IV. Some Indians are Chinese.

 

(A) Only II follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only IV follows
(D) Either II or IV follows
 

Answer : D

 

10.

 

Statements:

 

1. All chalks are cheese.
2. No cheese are ships.
3. Some herds are ships.

 

Conclusions:

 

I.   Some herds are not chalks.
II.  Some herds are cheese.
Ill.  Some cheese are not herds.
IV. No chalk is a ship.

 

(A) I, II and IV follow
(B) Either II or III and IV follows
(C) II and III follow
(D) II and IV follow

 

Answer : B

 

Directions(Question11 -15): A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular logic.The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement?

 

Input: CRI END YAM STU THE

 

StepI     : YAM THE CRI END STE
StepII    : YAM THE STE END CRI
Step III  : STU CRI YAM THE END
Step IV  : STU CRI END THE YAM

 

Study the logic and answer questions

 

11. If step VII of an input is 'OVER THE PRE NEW BONE' what is the step IV of that input?

 

(A) BONE THE PRE OVERNEW
(B) THE PRE BONE NEW OVER
(C) THE BONE PRE OVER NEW
(D) PRE BONE THE OVER NEW

 

Answer : C

 

12. Given the following input— SYM REACH LAD PHOTO CAL what step will the following arrangement?

 

REACH LAD PHOTO SYM CAL

 

(A) VI
(B) V
(C) IV
(D) III

 

Answer : B

 

13. If Step VI of a given input be 'MAP IND PAK RUS ENG', what would be the input?

 

(A) IND MAP PAK RUS ENG
(B) IND MAP ENG RUS PAK
(C) ENG RUS IND PAK MAP
(D) RUS MAP IND ENG PAK

 

Answer : D

 

14. Given the following input, what would be Step VIII of the input?

 

Input : BANK CRIS ATTRACT WITH PRIZE

 

(A) PRIZE WITH CRIS ATTRACT BANK
(B) CRIS BANK PRIZE WITH ATTRACT
(C) PRIZE WITH BANK ATTRACT CRIS
(D) CR15 BANK ATTRACT WITH PRIZE

 

Answer : C

 

15. In which step will we get the same arrangement as the input?

 

(A) VIII
(B) IX
(C)X
(D)XI

 

Answer : C

 

Directions(Question 16- 20): In the following questions, the symbols +, -,x,÷ and = are used with the following meanings

 

A + B means A is greater than B;

A – B means A is greater than or equal to B;

A x B means A is equal to B;
A ÷ B means A is smaller than B; and
A = B means A is smaller than or equal to B.

 

For each question you have to assume given statements to be true and then decide which of the two given conclusions is are definitely true. Give answer as

 

(A) If only conclusion I is true;
(B) If only conclusion II is true;
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true; and
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.

 

16. Statements  :  D=S, N + V, D x R, R + V
     Conclusions :   I. S + V
                           II. D+N
Answer : A

 

17. Statements:    K x P, M + J, C÷ P, K = M
     Conclusions:   I. M + P
                           II. M x P
Answer : C

 

18. Statements: L – R, N x M, L ÷ M, N = P
     Conclusions: I. M + R
                           II. R+P
Answer : A

 

19. Statements: W + K, S = Z, X – W, S x K
     Conclusions: I. K x Z
                         II. X÷K
Answer : B

 

20. Statements: P ÷ Q, W – N, P — N, T + W
     Conclusions: I. P x W
                         II. Q÷W
Answer : D

 

Directions(Question 21- 25):  Read the following information to answer the questions.

 

A, B, C, D and E are sons of P, Q ,R, S and T but not in the same order.Match the right mother and son on the basis of the information given below.

  1. Q is not B's or C mother.

  2. A's or Es mother is not T.

  3. C is not R's son.

  4. E is not Q's or S's son and his mother's name does not start with the letter 'R'.

  5. A's mother is not Q or R

21. Who is S's son?

 

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

 

Answer : A

 

22. Who is C mother?

 

(A) P
(B) R
(C) S
(D) T

 

Answer : D

 

23. Who is Q's son?

 

(A) A
(B) D
(C) B
(D) E

 

Answer : B

 

24. Who is P's son?

 

(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E

 

Answer : D

 

25. Who is son of R ?

 

(A) E
(B) A
(C) B
(D) D

 

Answer : C

 

Directions (Question26-30): In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I II and III. You have to consider the statement and the assumption, and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.Then decide which one of the answers, (A), (B), (C) and (D) is correct.

 

26.

 

Statement :

 

Considering the tickets sold during the last seven days, the circus authorities decided to continue the show for another fortnight which includes two weekends.
 

Assumptions:

 

I. People may not turn up on weekdays.
II. The average number of people who will be visiting circus will be more or less the same as that of the last seven days.
III. There may not be enough responses at other places.

 

(A) None is implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Both I and II are implicit
(D) Only III is implicit

 

Answer : B

 

27.

 

Statement :

 

The telephone company informed the subscribers through a notification that those who do not pay their bills by the due date will be charged penalty for every defaulting day.

 

Assumptions:

 

I. Majority of the people may pay their bills by the due date to avoid penalty.
II. The money collected as penalty may set off the losses due to delayed payment.
III. People generally pay heed to such notices.

 

(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only II and III are implicit
(C) Only I and III are implicit
(D) All are implicit

 

Answer : D

 

28.

 

Statement:

 

The national air carrier has decided to start a weekly air service from town 'A' to town 'B'.

 

Assumptions:

 

I.  There will be enough passengers to make the operation economically viable.
II. Other carriers may not start such service.
III The people staying around these towns can afford the cost of air travel.

 

(A) Only I is implicit
(B) Both II and III are implicit
(C) Both I and II are implicit
(D) ALL are implicit

 

Answer : C

 

29.

 

Statement :

 

A group of friends decided to go for a picnic to Dum Duma Lake during the next holiday season to avoid crowd of people.

 

Assumptions:

 

I. Generally many people do not go to Dum Duma Lake.
II. People prefer other spots to Dum Duma Lake.
III. Many people do not know about Dum Duma Lake.

 

(A) Only I is implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) All are implicit

 

Answer : D

 

30.

 

Statement :

 

"Wanted a two bedroom flat in the court area for immediate possession"-Advertisement.

 

Assumptions:

 

I.  Flats are available in court
II. Some people will respond to the advertisement.
Ill. It is a practice to give such an advertisement.

 

(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Only III is implicit
(D) All are implicit

 

Answer : A

 

Directions(Questions 31- 35): Choose the odd one.

 

31.

 

(A) YNHIA
(B) SGRFI
(C) ISEPU
(D) FHUJU

 

Answer : D

 

32.

 

(A) PROUD
(B) DRIVER
(C) WHEAT
(D) TRAIN

 

Answer : B

 

33.

 

(A) CXHIA
(B) RCFCL
(C) MTOWF
(D) CPRSV

 

Answer : C

 

34.

 

(A) JOT
(B) OUT
(C) TEN
(D) DIN

 

Answer : B

 

35. 

 

(A) HR
(B) GT
(C) KP
(D) FU

 

Answer : A

 

Directions(Questions 36-37): Find the missing terms

 

36. pq.....rqp.....qrrq.......p.......rrqpp........r

 

(A) rqpqr
(B) qprrq
(C) qrprp
(D) rppqq

 

Answer : D

 

37. nnt.......qqn......tt......qnn......tq.

 

(A) nnqtq
(B) qntnq
(C) tnqtq
(D) ttqtq

 

Answer : C

 

Directions(Question 38 - 39)

 

P + Q means P is the brother of Q
P – Q means P is the sister of Q
P x Q means P is the father of Q
P ÷ Q means P is the mother of

 

38. A÷B-C x D,then A is D

 

(A) Sister
(B) Aunt
(C) Mother
(D) Grandmother

 

Answer : D

 

39. Which of the following shows that V is the grandmother of Y?

 

(A) VxR+KVY
(B) V÷RxK-Y
(C) V÷R+KxY
(D) VxR-K÷Y

 

Answer : B

 

40. How many pairs of letters are there in the word STRAIGHT FORWARD which have numbers of letters between them in the word equal to the number of letters between them in English alphabet?

 

(A)4
(B)5
(C)6
(D)7

 

Answer : C

 

41. Milk: Butter

 

(A) Banana : Fruit
(B) Juice : Health
(C) Wood: Paper
(D) Chili Spices

 

Answer : C

 

42. Hat : Headwear

 

(A) Shark : Fish
(B) Crocodile : Terrapin
(C) Shoe : Socks
(D) Glove: Hand

 

Answer : D

 

43. Horse : Cow

 

(A) Milk: Ice-cream
(B) Mars : Moon
(C) Snow : Water
(D) Pink: Blue

 

Answer : B

 

44. Hair : Head

 

(A) Teeth : Mouth
(B) Tea-leaves : Mountain slopes
(C) Hand: Arm
(D) Footpath : Road

 

Answer : A

 

45. Fore: Hind

 

(A) Sky:Space
(B) Land:Sea
(C) North : South
(D) Face:Neck

 

Answer : C

 

Directions(Question 46 - 49): Read the following information and answer the questions given below it. If ranks of five candidates P, Q ,R,S and T are arranged in ascending order of their marks in Numerical Ability, T is the fourth and S is the first. When they are arranged in the ascending order of marks in General Awareness, P takes the place of T and T takes the place of Q. R's position remains the same in both the arrangements. Q's marks are lowest in one test and highest in the other test. P has more marks than R in Numerical Ability.

 

46. Who has secured the highest marks in General Awareness?

 

(A)Q
(B)T
(C)S
(D)R

 

Answer : B

 

47. Who has secured the highest marks in Numerical Ability?

 

(A)S
(B)R
(C)P
(D)Q

 

Answer : D

 

 

48. Which of the following groups of candidates has improvement in rank in General Awareness as compared to that in Numerical Ability?

 

(A) SPT
(B) PSR
(C) QST
(D) SPQ

 

Answer : A

 

49. Whose marks in General Awareness are more than R's marks in General Awareness?

 

(A) Only P's
(B) P's, Q's and S's
(C) P's, S's and T's
(D) P's, Q's and T's

 

Answer : C

 

50.In a certain code CAMEL is written as XPOGT and RABBITS as YPUULFZ. How can AIRMAIL be written in that code?

 

(A) PIYOPLT
(B) PLYOPTL
(C) PLROPLT
(D) PLYOPLT

 

Answer : D

 

Section- 2

 

General Awareness

 

1. Which of the following insurance companies writes its punch line in the advertisements "Insurance is the subject matter of solicitation" ?

 

(A) CIC
(B) LIC
(C) ING Vysya Life Insurance Co.
(D) Tata AIG Life Insurance Co.
(E) None of these

 

Answer : B

 

2. How much Foreign Institutional Investment is allowed in insurance sector at present.

 

(A) 20%
(B) 46%
(C) 59%
(D) 63%
(E) None of these

 

Answer : E

 

3. How many public sector companies in India are in Insurance Business.

 

(A) Only one
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than ten

 

Answer : A

 

4. Which of the following was the parent company of New India Assurance ?

 

(A) LIC
(B) GIC
(C) Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd.
(D) United India Insurance
(E) None of these

 

Answer : B

 

5. Which of the following is not the name of an Insurance Scheme launched by the Government of India.

 

(A) Janashree Bima Yojana
(B) Krishi Shramik Sarnajik Suraksha Yojana
(C) Shiksha Sahyog Yojana
(D) Varsha Bima Yojana
(E) National Saving Scheme

 

Answer : D

 

6. Which of the following words/terms is closely associated with the insurance business.

 

(A) Archives
(B) Donation
(C) Actuary
(D) Quest
(E) All are associated with insurance

 

Answer : C

 

7. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the agency /organization which is the regulator of insurance business in India ?

 

(A) NHB
(B) IRDA
(C) IBA
(D) IDFC
(E) ICRISAT

 

Answer : B

 

8. Insurance services are normally not provided for which of the following?

 

(A) Health
(B) Life
(C) jobs
(D) House & Property
(E) It is available for all

 

Answer : C

 

9. The New India Assurance Company was established in 1919 by 

 

(A) Dorab Tata
(B) G. D. Birla
(C) Iamunalal Baja]
(D) Kamlapat Singhania
(E) None of these

 

Answer : A

 

10. Which of the following is largest Non Life Insurance Company in India ?

 

(A) ICICI Lombard General Insurance Company Ltd.
(B) United India Insurance Company Ltd.
(C) General Insurance Company Ltd.
(D).New India Assurance Company Ltd.
(E) None of these

 

Answer : D

 

11. Which of the following organizations of the workers of unorganized sector has adopted an insurance scheme for all its workers and has become a model organization for the workers of the unorganized sector ?

 

(A) SERC
(B) SEWA
(C) VSNL
(D) SEBI
(E) MTNL

 

Answer : B

 

12. Which of the following projects of the ISRO was insured by the New India Assurance Company ?

 

(A) MATSAT- II
(B) Aryabhatt
(C) PSLV
(D) Chandrayaan
(E) lNSAT- 2E

 

Answer : C

 

13.Which of t.he following industrial groups of India is Not in any type of Insurance Business in India ?

 

(A) Tatas
(B) Birlas
(C)' Iaipurias
(D) Mahindras
(E) All are in Insurance Business

 

Answer : C

 

14. Which of the following Insurance Companies was launched with NABARD as one of its promoter"s with 30% stake in it ?

 

(A) General Insurance Corporation Ltd.
(B) National Insurance Company Ltd.
(C) Agriculture Insurance Company Ltd
(D) SBI Life Insurance Company Ltd.
(E) None of these

 

Answer : A

 

15. Who amongst the following is new Foreign Secretary of India ?

 

(A) Nirupama Rao
(B) Goolarn E. Vahanvati
(C) Brindeshwar Pathak
(D) Naveen Chawla
(E) None of these

 

Answer : A

 

16.Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the organizations which provides credit guarantee to exporters ?

 

(A) FICCI
(B) NABARD
(C) SIDBI
(D) ECGC
(E) SEBI

 

Answer : D

 

17. The Railway Budget 2009-10 was presented in the Lok Sabha (in Iuly 2009) by

 

(A) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(B) Kapil Sibal
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Mamata Banerjee
(E) Pranab Mukherjee

 

Answer : D

 

18. 'Satyam' the well known company which has been in the news in recent past, is now known with its new name as.............

 

(A) Mahindra Satyarn
(B) Birla Satyam
(C) Reliance Satyam
(D) Tata Satyam
(E) None of these

 

Answer : A

 

19. As per the announcement made by the Govt. of India, which of the following organizations is set up by it for a very specific purpose of providing a personal identity card to all its citizens ?

 

(A) National Remote Sensing Agency
(B) Unique Identification Authority of India (UIA)
(C) National Spot Exchange
(D) Trade Development Authority
(E) People's Union for Civil Liberties

 

Answer : B

 

20. Saina Nehwal is a famous........

 

(A) Badminton player
(B) Table Tennis Player
(C) Lawn Tennis Player •
(D) Hockey Player
(E) Chess Player

 

Answer : A

 

21. 'No Tobacco Day' is observed every year on.............

 

(A) lst May
(B) lst ]une
(C) 31st May
(D) 30th june
(E) None of these

 

Answer : C

 

22. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the field of Literature ?

 

(A) N. Borlaug Award
(B) Kalinga Prize
(C) Kishor Kumar Award
(D) Saraswati Samman
(E) Dronacharya Award
Answer : D

 

23. Which of the following states has highest Literacy Rate in country ?

 

(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Delhi
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) Kerala

 

Answer : E

 

24. Which of the following cups/trophies is closely associated with the game of Hockey ?

 

(A) Mardeka Cup
(B) Wimbledon Trophy
(C) Ranji Trophy
(D) Durand Cup
(E) Agha Khan Cup

 

Answer : E

 

25. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus ?

 

(A) Plague
(B) Cholera
(C) Whooping cough
(D) Tetanus
(E) Chicken pox

 

Answer :

intel Placement Paper : 46442
Views : 994
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : Vaishnavi GuptaUpdated Date : Oct 29, 2014

intel Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

 

Intel Latest  Questions and Answers 

 

1.  The microcomputer, Intel MCS-80 is based on the widely used Intel.

 

A. 8080 microprocessor
B. 8085 microprocessor
C. 8086 microprocessor
D. 8082 microprocessor

 

Answer :  A

 

2. If a and b are positive integers and (a-b)/3.5 = 4/7, then 

 

A. b < a
B. b > a
C. b = a
D. b >= a

 

Answer : A


3. In a microprocessor the clock signal is

 

A. Is always generated internally
B. Is always supplied externally
C. May be generated internally or supplied externally
D. Is mostly supplied externally

 

Answer: C


4. What is the selling price of a car if the cost of the car is Rs.60 and a profit of 10% over selling price is earned?

 

A.  Rs 68
B.  Rs 67
C.  Rs 69
D.  Rs 66

 

Answer : D 

 

5. Which of the following identifiers is invalid in Pascal?

 

A. BETA
B. MAX 40
C. 2ND
D. A MAX

 

Answer :  C


    
6. Computers 'Basic input output system' is generally stored in RAM chips.

 

A. True    

B. False

 

Answer : A

 

7. There are 5 red shoes, 4 green shoes. If one draw randomly a shoe what is the probability of getting a red shoe is?

 

A.  5C1/ 4C1
B.  4C1/ 9C1
C.  5C1/ 9C1
D.  9C1/ 5C1

 

Answer : C

 

8. In 8085

 

A. The upper 8 address bits appear on address bus and lower 8 bits on address data bus
B. The lower 8 address bits appear on address bus and the upper 8 address bits appear on address          data bus
C. Either upper or lower 8 address bits may appear at address bus
D. Either upper or lower 8 address bits may appear at address data bus

 

Answer :  A


9. The stack is a data storage area in RAM used by certain microprocessor operations.

 

A. True    
B.  False

 

Answer : A


10. A company contracts to paint 3 houses. Mr.Brown can paint a house in 6 days while Mr.Black would take 8 days and Mr.Blue 12 days. After 8 days Mr.Brown goes on vacation and Mr. Black begins to work for a period of 6 days. How many days will it take Mr.Blue to complete the contract?

 

A.  7
B.  8
C.  11
D.  12

 

Answer : C

 

11. Which of the following is true?

 

A. Intel 8080 was the ancestor of Intel 8085
B. Intel 8080 was the ancestor of Intel Z 80
C. Intel 8080 was the ancestor of both Intel 8085 and Z 80
D. Intel 8085 was the ancestor of Intel 8085

 

Answer :  C

 

12.  2 hours after a freight train leaves Delhi a passenger train leaves the same station travelling in the same direction at an average speed of 16 km/hr. After travelling 4 hrs the passenger train overtakes the freight train. The average speed of the freight train was?

 

A.  30
B.  40
C.  58
D.  60

 

Answer : B

 

13. When was the first 8-bit microprocessor introduced?

 

A. 1969    
B. 1974    
C. 1979    
D. 1985

 

Answer :  B

 

14. In june a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its game played. After a phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50% .How many games must the team have won in a row to attain this average?

 

A. 12
B. 20
C. 24
D. 30

 

Answer : C


15. Which is a machine-oriented high-level language for the GEC 4080 series machines.

 

A. LOGO
B. SNOBOL
C. Babbage
D. ALGOL

 

Answer :  C


16. If 9x-3y=12 and 3x-5y=7 then 6x-2y = ?

 

A.  -5
B.   4
C.   2
D.   8

 

Answer : D


17. A program that is employed in the development, repair or enhancement of other programs is known as

 

A. System software
B. Software tool
C. Applications program
D. Utility program


Answer : B

 

18. The price of a product is reduced by 30% . By what percentage should it be increased to make it 100% ?

 

A. 42.857% 
B. 43%
C. 45%
D. 41%

 

Answer : A

 

19.  A program component that allows structuring of a program in an unusual way is known as

 

A.  Correlation
B.  Coroutine
C.  Diagonalization
D.  Quene
 

Answer : B

 

20. The radian of a number system

 

A. Is variable
B. Has nothing to do with digit position value
C. Equals the number of its distinct counting digits
D. Is always an even number
 

Answer :  C

Infosys Placement Paper : 46366
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : sayali deshpande Updated Date : Oct 22, 2014

Infosys Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

DRDO-CEPTAM Placement Paper : 46272
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : Aliya MukharjiUpdated Date : Oct 10, 2014

DRDO-CEPTAM Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

 

DRDO Latest Question Paper

 

This paper mainly consist of questions from Aptitude, Technical( Electronics and Computer Science) and some generally asked interview questions.

 

A) Aptitude Questions:

 

1. For which field was SAMYUKTA developed and used?

 

a) RAC

b) Navy

c) Army

d) Air force

 

2. Complete the following series with the next two numbers: 3, 5, 11, 21

 

a) 35 and 53

b) 34 and 52

c) 35 and 52

d) 34 and 53

 

3. In which year was DRDO formed?

 

a) 1950

b) 1954

c) 1947

d) 1958

 

4. Find the values of (A*B).A for the vectors A = 3i – 2j+k and B = 2i-k.

 

a) 1

b) 3

c) 0

d) 2

 

5. Choose the correct alternative what will be equivalent to hen, when kennel is to a dog.

 

a) Coop

b) Nest

c) Stable

d) Hole

 

6 .How will you write PARIS if DELHI is written as EDHIL?

 

a) SAPIR

b) APRIS

c) APISR

d) SARIP

 

7. Which gas causes Green House Effect in the atmosphere?

 

a) N2 level

b) SO2 level

c) CO2 level

d) CO level

 

8. From the below mentioned list of words, choose the words which are incorrectly spelt.

 

 Accomodate, Forty, Exaggerate, Continous, Independent, Etiquette, Receipt.

a) 1

b) 4

c) 3

d) 2

 

9. Choose the correct alternative to which DARL 202 is a variety of:

 

a) Capsicum

b) Tomato

c) Pea

d) Garlic

 

10. Find the two numbers whose sum of two numbers is 16 and the sum of their squares is a minimum.

 

a) 9,7

b) 5,11

c) 10,6

d) 8,8

 

11. At the eye tip of a centrifugal impeller, blade velocity is 200 m/s while the uniform axial velocity at the inlet is 150 m/s. If the sonic velocity is 300 m/s, then the inlet Mach number of the flow will be

 

a) 0.75                        

b) .66                             

c) 0.90                               

d) 0.83

 

12. The five items: A, B, C, D, and E are pushed in a stack, one after the other starting from A. The stack is popped four times and each element Is inserted in a queue. Then two elements are deleted from the queue and pushed back on the stack. Now one item is popped from the stack. The popped item is

 

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

 

13. A metallic cube of side 10 cm, density 6.8 gm/cc is floating in liquid mercury (density 13.6gm/cc), with 5 cm height of cube exposed above the mercury level. Water (density 1 gm/cc) is filled over this, to submerge the cube fully. The new height of cube exposed above mercury level is

 

a) 4.6 cm                  

b) 5.4 cm                       

c) 5.0 cm                           

d) 5.8 cm

 

14. Which of the following statements will stand true, if A, B and C are three places in India with longitudes 80E, 85E and 90E respectively?

 

a) A, B and C all have the local time

b) Local time of C is ahead of that of B

c) Local time of A is ahead of that of C

d) Local time of B is ahead of that of C

 

15. Choose the correct alternative to state the meaning of word Audacity.

 

a) Boldness

b) Daring

c) Both A & B

d) None of the above

 

16. The pressure drop for a relatively low Reynolds number flow in a 600 mm, 30 m long pipeline is 7OkPa. What is the wall shear stress?

 

a) 50 Pa                      

b) 1400 Pa                           

c) 700 Pa                     

d) 350 Pa

 

17.The radiative heat transfer rate per unit area (W/m2) between two plane parallel grey surfaces (emissivity 0.9) maintained at 400 K and 300 K is (Stefan Boltzmann constant σ = 5.67 x 10 W/m2k4)

 

a) 1020                     

b) 464                          

c) 812                                 

d) 567

 

18. A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter and plunger of 1.5 cm. It is required to lift a mass of 1000kg. The force required on plunger is nearly equal to

 

a) 100N                 

b) 1000N                   

c) 10000N                     

d) 10N

 

B) Technical- Electronics Questions

 

1. Complete the following statement, In a BJT CASCODE pair, a

 

a) Common base follows a common emitter

c) Common emitter follows a common base

d) Common collector follows a common base

e) Common base follows a common collector

 

2. What will 0.75 in decimal system be equivalent to in octal system?

 

a) 0.50

b) 0.60

c) 0.54

d) 0.52

 

3. What shall be the common emitter DC current gain be when the common base DC current gain of a BJT is 0.98?

 

a) 1

b) 0.02

c) 51

d) 49

 

4. Ring counter is analogous to:

 

a) Latch

b) Toggle switch

c) S – R flip flop

d) Stepping switch

 

5. Round Robin scheduling is essentially the pre – emptive version of:

 

a) Shortest Job First

b) FIFO

c) Longest remaining time

d) Shortest remaining time

 

6.What shall be the highest frequency of a bandwidth of a signal is 5 kHz and the lowest frequency is 52 kHz?

 

a) 57 kHz

b) 10 kHz

c) 5 kHz

d) 47 kHz

 

7. Choose the correct option that is printed as a result of the call demo (1234)?

 

a) 12344321

b) 1441

c) 43211234

d) 3443

 

8. Choose the correct alternative that represents an example of selection sort algorithm design technique.

 

a) Backtracking

b) Greedy Method

c) Dynamic Programming

d) Divide and Conquer

 

9. Which of the following option stands true in respect to 2phase commit protocol?

 

a) Detects Deadlock

b) Ensures Serializability

c) Recover from Deadlock

d) Prevents Deadlock

 

10. What does the computer store in the Big – Indian system?

 

a) LSB of data in the highest memory address of data unit

b) MSB of data in the lowest memory address of data unit

c) LSB of data in the lowest memory address of data unit

d) MSB of data in the highest memory address of data unit

 

11. Choose the option that does not represent a feature of WAP 2.0.

 

a) Interface to a storage device

b) Hashing

c) Multimedia Messaging

d) Push & Pull Model

 

12. The principal of locality of reference justifies the use of

 

a) Virtual memory

b) Interrupts

c) Main memory

d) Cache memory

 

B) Technical- Computer Science Questions

 

1. What does IEEE 802.11 stand for?

 

a) Broadband Wireless

b) Wireless LANs

c) Ethernet

d) Bluetooth

 

2. What is SSL not responsible for?

 

a) Data integrity protection

b) Mutual authentication of client & server

c) Secret communication

d) Error detection & correction

 

3. A language that provides garbage collection automatically is:

 

a) C++

b) C

c) Fortran

d) Lisp

 

4. What does Armstrong’s inference rule doesn’t determine?

 

a) Transitivity

b) Reflexivity

c) Augmentation

d) Mutual dependency

 

5 ) Who determines the number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a virtual memory environment?

 

a) Page size

b) The instruction set architecture

c) Physical memory size

d) Number of processes in memory

 

6. What does bit stuffing refer to?

 

a) Appending a nibble to the flag sequence

b) Inserting a ‘0’ in user stream to differentiate it with a flag

c) Appending a nibble to the use data stream

d) Inserting a ‘0’ in flag stream to avoid ambiguity

 

7. What is the role of Ethernet hub?

 

a) Connects to a token – ring network

b) Functions as a repeater

c) Functions as a getaway

d) Connects to a digital PBX

 

8. What shall be the value of I at the end of pseudo code?

 

a) 6

b) 4

c) 7

d) 4

 

9. What is the level of aggregation of information required for operational control?

 

a) Qualitative

b)Detailed

c)Aggregate

d) None of the above

 

10. Which address will a router look at when a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B?

 

a) IP

b) Subnet mask

c) Port

d) Physical

 

11. What is the full form of SSL?

 

a) Secure Sockets Layer

b) Standard Security Label

c) Standard Secure Layer

d) None of the above

 

12. Which operation will you choose to extract specified columns from a table?

 

a) Join

b) Substitute

c) Project

d) Extract

 

13. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of 01111100110111100011?

 

a) ABD3F

b) CD73E

c) FA4CD

d) 7CDE3

 

14. What is a virtual memory?

 

a) A technique to allow a program, of size more than the size of the main memory, town

b) Part of secondary storage used in program execution

c) Part of main memory only used for swapping

d) None of the above

 

15. What does a task in blocked state mean?

 

a) It must still be placed in the run queues

b) It is waiting for some temporarily unavailable resources

c) It is executable

d) It is running

 

16. In relational database which command will you use to control access over objects?

 

a) GRANT & REVOKE

b) QUE & QUIST

c) CASCADE & MVD

d) None of the above

 

17. In which cases will you not use BCNF?

 

a) The candidate key overlap

b) Two or more candidate keys

c) Two mutually exclusive foreign keys

d) The candidate key overlap

 

18. What is the standard of certificate used on internet?

 

a) X.409

b) X.25

c) X.509

d) X.301

 

 

D) Technical- Interview Questions

 

1. Why do you need to do coding?

 

2. What is a PSK?

 

3. State the differences between PSK and FSK while explain which one is better and why.

 

4. Where all can you use FSK and PSK?

 

5. What is your understanding of FSK?

 

6. Certain questions based on the subject you chose as you’re favourite.

7. What is your understanding of frequency used as a key in FSK?

8. Are you aware about VCO, if yes, explain?

 

9. The difference between microprocessor and microcontroller?

 

10. Which are your favorite subjects?

 

11. How will you generate a FSK

12. How will you process an 8 bit microprocessor and 16 bit microprocessor?

13. What is the full form of GSM and CDMA?

 

14. What was the IC name used in your lab?

15. What do you understanding by coding?

 

16. SNR is the abbreviation of?

17. Question on family and educational background were also asked.

18. You may also experience some counter questions based on the answers you provide to the interviewer.

 

Capgemini Placement Paper : 46265
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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : Raghav Updated Date : Oct 14, 2014

Capgemini Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers

 

Capgemini Latest Selection Procedure and Experience

 

Hey guys,

 

My name is Raghav.Capgemini came to our campus on 13/09/2014.

 

Selection Procedure consist of 3 rounds 

 

1. Aptitude Test

 

2. Group Discussion

 

3. Technical cum HR Interview

 

Aptitude Test

 

It was coordinated by cocubes.com.It consisted of 3 sections namely

 

1. English

 

2. Logical Reasoning

 

3. Maths(Quantitative aptitude)

 

25 questions from each section and each having a separate cutoff. Total time given is 90 minutes.

 

A) English : It was the trickiest of all the sections.

 

a) One reading comprehension( No of Questions : 4)

 

b) Error correction (No of Questions : 4)

 

c) Synonyms(No of Questions : 2)

 

d) Preposition(No of Questions : 3)

 

e) Error finding(No of Questions : 2)

 

f) Fill in the blanks(No of Questions : 2)

 

g) Based on vocab paragraph completion (No of Questions : 4 )

 

Cutoff of this section was also higher than the others. around 15 i guess.

 

B) Logical Reasoning : It was an easy one.

 

a) Two flowcharts (No of Questions : 10)

 

b) Logical deductions (No of Questions : 5-6 )

 

c) Rest simple selection, arrangement questions

 

Cut off of this section must have been around 12

 

C) Maths: It was a moderate one.

 

Main topics: 

 

Time and distance, Time and work, Mensuration(there were no geometry ques in my set but there were in others), A.P, G.P, Simple equations,Ratio proportion and Variation, Percentages, averages etc... Questions were easy but a bit calculative in my set.It was relatively easier in some sets cut off of this section also must have been around 11-12.

 

Way to attempt the test:  

 

  1. English can be done in 20-22 minutes. If not done fully move ahead because each section has cutoff

  2. Logical reasoning would take upto 25-27 min

  3. Maths will take up your rest of the time.

Do keep separate 5 minutes for evaluation of the section in which your attempt is less in the first 70 minutes.( I kept it for English)

 

Another way is do 15 questions from each section then 5 from each and then 5 from each I attempted 19, 22, 20 question from each sec respectively. But students doing 15 ques in each sec also cleared cutoff easily.

 

Group Discussion Round

 

Results were announced after a while and my name was there for the group discussion round.(out of 1300 only 350 cleared the test).Entered in the room. I was the first person of my group. some of the guys were late so the coordinator started chitchatting and was a decent guy. He made us all really comfortable. Then he asked for the topic for the GD from us.

 

Do give your suggestions.. i am a cricket fan so i proposed a topic that IS T20 KILLING THE SPIRIT OF TEST CRICKET? then he asked everyone if all are comfortable with this a few hand went up but most of them were down so after a few suggestions he himself gave us a topic. Topic was NON VIOLENCE IS THE WAY. Its not a debate that you have to stick to one side of the argument... Only 3-4 guys were speaking early in the group of 12. i was one of them. They are just looking at the way you are speaking.. just have a good command over the language rest will be okay. Ours was not a GD as only 3 - 4 were speaking so then he gave a chance for everyone to speak.But it might not be the case with you, so do speak 4-5 times in a gd to make your presence felt. It can be just a point of 15-30 sec. Average time of the GD was 25 min but ours went on for 45 minutes Results were declared at night and interview was on next day. My name was there who cleared the GD. (out of 350, 160 cleared this round) 

 

HOPE THIS HELPS YOU GUYS... SEE YOU AT CAPGEMINI... :)